Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHENOM 100 > PHENOM 100 MEMORY ITEMS/LIMITATIONS > Flashcards

PHENOM 100 MEMORY ITEMS/LIMITATIONS Flashcards

Preparation for CAE standard Phenom 100 Practical Exam oral portion.

1
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)

A

10,626 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)

A

10,582 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)

A

9,877 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When must the yaw damper be engaged?

A

The yaw damper must be engaged above 25,000 ft and above 250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum Zero-fuel Weight (MZFW)?

A

8,885 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal maximum speed at which the Landing Gear can be safely extended and retracted (VLO)?

A

180 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the event of Emergency Descent, at what speed can the Landing Gear be extended?

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal maximum speed at which the airplane can be flown with the Landing Gear extended and locked (VLE)?

A

275 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Minimum Control Speed (VMC) configured in takeoff configuration?

A

97 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Minimum Control Speed (VMC) configured in landing with NO ICING CONDITIONS configuration?

A

86 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Minimum Control Speed (VMC) configured in landing with ICING CONDITIONS configuration?

A

97 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Operating Maneuvering Speed VO?

A

186 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MAXIMUM FLAP EXTENDED SPEED (VFE)-Flap 1

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MAXIMUM FLAP EXTENDED SPEED (VFE)-Flap 2

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MAXIMUM FLAP EXTENDED SPEED (VFE)-Flap 3

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MAXIMUM FLAP EXTENDED SPEED (VFE)-Flap FULL

A

145 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MAXIMUM ALTITUDE FOR FLAP EXTENDED Yaw Damper Operative

A

15,000 ft MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MAXIMUM ALTITUDE FOR FLAP EXTENDED Yaw Damper Inoperative

A

12,000 ft MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the maximum Tire Ground Speed?

A

139 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Load Factor limit with Flaps UP

A

3.27 Gs No Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Load Factor limit with Flaps Down (1, 2, 3 & FULL)

A

2.0 Gs No Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum number of adult passengers in the standard seating configuration?

A

Five (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum loading (lbs): RH Forward Wardrobe

A

55 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum loading (lbs): LAV cabinet

A

33 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Maximum loading (lbs): Aft Baggage compartment

A

353 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maximum loading (lbs): Forward Baggage compartment

A

66 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Runway slope operating limitation?

A

Permissible range is from -2% to +2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type of runway surface allowed?

A

Paved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should the hydraulic system precharge pressure be checked?

A

At each 15 consecutive calendar days or before next flight, whichever occurs last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When must the Stall Warning and Protection System (SWPS) be tested?

A

Prior to each flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the prohibitions associated with the use of the Synthetic Vision System (SVS)?

A

SVS cannot be used as primary information to make decisions on maneuvering , navigation, avoiding terrain, obstacles, or traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required for engine start?

A

24 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the minimum Ground Power Unit (GPU) voltage required for battery charging?

A

27 V

35
Q

What is the maximum generator load when on ground?

A

250 Amps each

36
Q

Maximum generator load may be exceeded up to 300 Amps, when?

A

In-flight below 34,000 ft

37
Q

Maximum usable quantity per tank?

A

209.4 US Gallons - 1403 lbs

38
Q

Unusable quantity per tank?

A

3.3 US Gallons - 22 lbs

39
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance?

A

33 US Gallons 220 lbs

40
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

-37 C

41
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature on the ground?

A

52 C

42
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature in flight?

A

80 C

43
Q

When must the Fuel Transfer button be pushed out?

A

During takeoff, landing, maneuvers, and turbulence.

44
Q

Minimum Autopilot engagement height dual engine?

A

500 ft AGL

45
Q

Minimum Autopilot engagement height single engine?

A

1000 ft AGL

46
Q

Minimum Autopilot use height?

A

195 ft

47
Q

THRUST SETTING MAXIMUM Time limit

Max ITT-N2-N1-Oil Pressure-Oil Temp-

A 
Time limit- 10 min 
Max ITT- 845 C
N2-100.4%
N1- 100.0%
Oil Pressure- X
Oil Temp- X
48
Q

THRUST SETTING TO/GA Time limit

Max ITT-N2-N1-Oil Pressure-Oil Temp-

A 
Time limit- 5 min
Max ITT- 830 C
N2- 100.4%
N1- 100.0%
Oil Pressure- 170 PSI
Oil Temp- 14-130 C
49
Q

THRUST SETTING MAX/CONTINUOUS CLIMB Time limit-Max ITT-N2-N1-Oil Pressure-Oil Temp-

A 
Time limit- X
Max ITT- 830 C
N2-100.4%
N1-100.0%
Oil Pressure- 170 PSI
Oil Temp- 14-130 C
50
Q

THRUST SETTING STARTING Time limit

Max ITT-N2-N1-Oil Pressure-Oil Temp-

A 
Time limit-X
Max ITT- 830 C * may be exceeded for 5 sec
N2-X
N1-X
Oil Pressure- 0-275PSI
Oil Temp--40C
51
Q

Cool-down time between engine starter motorings?

A

First —60 sec
Second —60 sec
Third — 15 min
Fourth — 30 min

52
Q

Configuration necessary for air conditioning system operation on ground _______

A

The GPU must be used or both generators must be turned ON

53
Q

Maximum Differential Pressure _____

A

8.3 PSI

54
Q

Maximum Differential Overpressure _______

A

8.6 PSI

55
Q

Maximum Differential Negative Pressure _______

A

-0.4 PSI

56
Q

Maximum Differential Pressure for Takeoff and Landing ______

A

0.2 PSI

57
Q

OPERATION IN ICING CONDITIONS: Minimum Temperature for Wing/Stabilizer (WING/STAB) Deice System Operation ________

A

-40 C

58
Q

OPERATION IN ICING CONDITIONS: Minimum Airspeed (Flap ZERO and Gear UP)

A

160 KIAS

59
Q

When must the crew activate the ENGINE ice protection system?

A

If SAT (TAT inflight) is between 5°C and 10°C with visible moisture: ENG 1 and ENG 2 Switches–ON WINGSTAB Switch–OFF WSHLD 1 and WSHLD 2 Switches–OFF

60
Q

When must the crew activate ALL AVAILABLE ice protection systems?

A

At the first sign of ice formation or if SAT (TAT inflight) is below 5°C with visible moisture: WSHLD 1 and WSHLD 2 Switches–ON ENG 1 and ENG 2 Switches–ON WINGSTAB Switch–ON

61
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES (FAA)

A
  1. Oxygen Masks–DON, EMER EMER then 100% after 2 minutes
  2. Dilution Valve–CLOSED
  3. Smoke Goggles (if available)–DON
  4. Communication–ESTABLISH
  5. DUMP Button–PUSH IN
62
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: SMOKE EVACUATION (FAA)

A
  1. Oxygen Masks–DON, EMER EMER then 100% after 2 minutes. 2. Dilution Valve–CLOSED
  2. Smoke Goggles (if available)–DON
  3. Communication–ESTABLISH
  4. Oxygen Knob–CREW ONLY
  5. DUMP Button–PUSH IN
  6. BLEED Knob–OFF VENT
63
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: DUAL ENGINE FAILURE

A
  1. Thrust Levers–IDLE
  2. Oxygen Masks–DON, 100%
  3. Communication–ESTABLISH
64
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: EMERGENCY DESCENT

A
  1. SIGNS/OUTLET Switch–PED-BELTS/OFF
  2. Altitude–MAX 10,000 FT OR MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
  3. Thrust Levers–IDLE
  4. SPEED BRAKE Switch (if available)–OPEN
  5. Airspeed–MAX 250 KIAS/MMO
  6. LDG GEAR Lever–DN
  7. Transponder–7700
  8. ATC–NOTIFY
65
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: EMERGENCY EVACUATION

A
  1. Thrust Levers–IDLE
  2. Emergency/Parking Brake–ON
  3. START/STOP Knobs–STOP
  4. SHUTOFF 1 & 2 Buttons–PUSH IN
  5. PRESN MODE Switch–MAN
  6. DUMP Button–PUSH IN
  7. ATC–NOTIFY
  8. Emergency Evacuation–PERFORM
  9. BATT 1 & 2 Switches–OFF
66
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: ENGINE ABNORMAL START

A

Affected engine: 1. START/STOP Knob–STOP

67
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION

A

Affected engine:

  1. Thrust Lever–IDLE
  2. START/STOP Knob–STOP
  3. SHUTOFF Button–PUSH IN Wait 30 seconds and if fire persists: 4. BOTTLE Switch–DISCH
68
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: CAB ALTITUDE HI

A
  1. Oxygen Masks–DON, 100%
  2. Communication–ESTABLISH
  3. SIGNS/OUTLET Switch–PED-BELTS/OFF
  4. Altitude–MAX 10,000 FT OR MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
  5. Thrust Levers–IDLE
  6. SPEED BRAKE Switch (if available)–OPEN
  7. Airspeed–MAX 250 KIAS/MMO
  8. LDG GEAR Lever–DN
  9. Transponder –7700
  10. ATC–NOTIFY
69
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: ELEC XFR FAIL

A
  1. ELEC EMER Button–PUSH IN
70
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: E1 (E2) FIRE

A

Affected Engine:

  1. Thrust Lever–IDLE
  2. START/STOP Knob–STOP
  3. SHUTOFF Button–PUSH IN On ground or if fire persists after 30 seconds in flight:
  4. BOTTLE Switch–DISCH
71
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: TAKEOFF WITH ENGINE FAILURE AT OR ABOVE V1

A

Positive rate of climb:

  1. LDG GEAR Lever–UP
  2. Airspeed–V2

FLAP POSITION 1-PITCH 9.5° W/ NO ICING, W/ ICING PITCH 6.0°
FLAP POSITION 2-PITCH 9° W/ NO ICING, W/ ICING PITCH 5.5°

72
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: REJECTED TAKEOFF (AT OR BELOW V1)

A
  1. Thrust Levers–IDLE
73
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: GEAR LEVER CAN NOT BE MOVED UP

A

If associated with engine failure and obstacle clearance, simultaneously proceed:

  1. DN LCK REL Button–PRESS
  2. LDG GEAR Lever–UP
74
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: INADVERTENT PUSHER ACTUATION (FAA)

A
  1. QUICK DISCONNECT Button – PRESS

2. PUSHER CUTOUT Button–PUSH IN

75
Q

MEMORY ITEMS: LG WOW SYS FAIL

A

If associated with engine failure and obstacle clearance,simultaneously proceed:

  1. DN LCK REL Button –PRESS
  2. LDG GEAR Lever–UP
76
Q

What are the requirements for single pilot operations?

A

1) Pilot must occupy left seat;
2) Autopilot and flight director must be operational;
3) Pilot must wear headset with mounted microphone

77
Q

What happens if tire ground speed is exceeded?

A

Tires must be replaced

78
Q

Maximum total fuel quantity?

A

425.4 US Gallons 2850 lbs

79
Q

When is fuel transferring unavailable?

A

When fuel quantity drops below 46 US Gallons (308 lbs)SE or 54.2 US Gallons (363 lbs) dual engine

80
Q

What is the minimum operating oil temperature?

A

14 C

81
Q

After completing a start with cold fuel (0 C or lower) how long should thrust levers (TLs) remain at idle? Why?

A

3 minutes, to ensure no ice particles in fuel supply to engine.

82
Q

Minimum airspeed for WINGSTAB operation in clean configuration?

A

150 KIAS

83
Q

Can you take of with frost on airplane surface?

A

Takeoff is prohibited with frost (polished or not), ice, snow or slush adhering to wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces.

84
Q

Maximum Auto Pilot (AP) loss height

A

54 ft

PHENOM 100 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions