phase 3 Flashcards
1
Q
- The use of the lights and siren on an ambulance:
A) gives you the legal right of way.
B) is a request for the right of way.
C) enables you to exceed the speed limit.
D) is statistically the safest mode of transport.
A
B
2
Q
- What entity is responsible for making recommendations regarding infection control practices that include all areas of personal protective equipment, sharps containers, and disinfecting equipment that is carried on an ambulance?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) United States Department of Transportation
C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
A
A
3
Q
- A third-service EMS system is one in which:
A) a public agency not affiliated with the fire department provides EMS service.
B) an EMS ambulance is housed in a fire department and is staffed by EMTs.
C) responders from a fire department assist the ambulance on every EMS call.
D) a privately owned ambulance service works in tandem with a public EMS system.
A
A
4
Q
- With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that:
A) an ambulance must never exceed the posted speed limit, even if it is responding to a call for a critical patient.
B) the emergency vehicle operator can legally exceed the posted speed limit by 20 miles per hour, but only if it is safe to do so.
C) an ambulance must use its lights and siren and remain at least 100 feet behind a vehicle that is failing to yield.
D) the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others.
A
D
5
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is correct?
A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear once that vehicle has passed.
B) If you are using an emergency escort, you should follow closely behind it to avoid a wake effect collision.
C) Use of a police escort is an acceptable practice, because it often facilitates a faster response time to the scene.
D) The use of emergency escorts is generally discouraged, unless you are traveling through a busy intersection.
A
A
6
Q
- When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather:
A) the entire ambulance should be positioned off of the gravel.
B) the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.
C) you should place safety cones at all four points of the vehicle.
D) it is generally considered safe to turn off your warning lights.
A
B
7
Q
23. Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) using your emergency flashers. B) leaving the headlights on. C) wearing a reflective vest. D) turning off the strobe lights.
A
B
8
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding loading and securing a patient in the back of the ambulance is correct?
A) Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat-belted.
B) All patients transported in the back of the ambulance must be secured on the stretcher, even if they request otherwise.
C) It generally takes a minimum of three people to safely load an average-sized adult on the stretcher into the ambulance.
D) All patients should initially be loaded into the ambulance on the stretcher, but they can move to the bench seat once loaded.
A
A
9
Q
- The paramedic should NOT operate an emergency vehicle if he or she:
A) has worked more than 12 straight hours.
B) is a personal acquaintance of the patient.
C) is taking a cold remedy or an analgesic.
D) just finished an intense exercise regimen.
A
C
10
Q
- General principles for backing up an ambulance include:
A) using one spotter for each side of the ambulance.
B) keeping the window up to avoid any distractions.
C) not using audible warning devices so you can hear.
D) stopping the vehicle if you lose sight of your spotter.
A
D
11
Q
- When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should:
A) place the child on a backboard, even in the absence of trauma.
B) use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.
C) place the child on a parent’s lap and secure them both with straps.
D) secure the child as usual, using the adult straps on the stretcher.
A
B
12
Q
- The MOST important factor to consider when determining if transport of a trauma patient via helicopter is appropriate is:
A) the patient’s hemodynamic status.
B) delays in ground transport due to traffic.
C) the injury mechanism that was involved.
D) the need for definitive airway management.
A
A
13
Q
- When assisting with a helicopter landing at night, you should:
A) leave your headlights on to signify your location.
B) avoid shining a spotlight up at the descending aircraft.
C) place a single strobe light in the center of the landing zone.
D) refrain from parking the ambulance under overhead wires.
A
B
14
Q
- After a helicopter lands and continues to keep its rotor blades active, you should:
A) post a firefighter near the tail rotor to keep bystanders away.
B) approach the aircraft from the front and keep the pilot in view at all times.
C) slowly approach the left side of the aircraft while keeping your head down.
D) not approach the aircraft until the pilot or a crew member signals you to do so.
A
D
15
Q
37. The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose is called: A) cleaning. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) high-level disinfection.
A
B
16
Q
- While responding to a call for a pediatric cardiac arrest, you approach a school bus with its red warning lights on. You should:
A) turn your emergency lights and siren off and carefully proceed past the bus at a slow speed.
B) use your PA system to advise the students to remain on the bus as you carefully pass it on the left.
C) carefully pass the bus on the right, if possible, so the children exiting the bus will be able to see you.
D) wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.
A
D
17
Q
- A single command system is one in which:
A) the incident commander assumes all functional roles.
B) one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond.
C) one person is in charge, unless multiple agencies respond.
D) one person from each responding agency assumes command.
A
B
18
Q
- A multiple-casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as an event in which:
A) mutual aid from other agencies is required to care for numerous patients.
B) there are at least 25 patients, more than half of whom are critically injured.
C) the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.
D) there are more patients who require advanced life support than patients who do not.
A
C
19
Q
3. Which of the following events would MOST likely cause an open, or uncontained, multiple-casualty incident? A) Tornado B) Bus wreck C) Small explosion D) Two-car collision
A
A
20
Q
- A closed, or contained, multiple-casualty incident is a situation that:
A) does not have the potential to grow in size or complexity.
B) involves no more than 10 patients who are critically injured.
C) does not require mutual aid assistance from other agencies.
D) is not expected to produce more patients than initially present.
A
D
21
Q
6. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process in which individual units or different organizations make independent decisions about the next appropriate action. A) Freelancing B) Sole command C) Unified command D) Effort duplication
A
A
22
Q
- An individual’s span of control:
A) should be self-assigned and dependent on the incident size.
B) is the degree of responsibility assigned by a higher authority.
C) represents the number of personnel who report to him or her.
D) limits his or her autonomy to delegate tasks to another person.
A
C
23
Q
- Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander?
A) Assessing the entire incident scene
B) Developing a plan to manage the incident
C) Establishing strategic objectives and priorities
D) Authorizing medical treatment interventions
A
D
24
Q
- During a small-scale incident, the incident commander:
A) will likely not respond to the scene.
B) may perform all the command functions.
C) primarily assumes the role of safety officer.
D) delegates all authority to the senior paramedic.
A
B
25
Q
- At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for:
A) locating food, shelter, and health care for you and the other responders present at the incident.
B) managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.
C) ensuring that there is ample lighting and functional communications equipment during the incident.
D) obtaining data regarding problems that may arise at the incident and revising the plan to solve the problem.
A
B
26
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?
A) A unified command system is difficult to establish before an incident and is activated when the resources of one agency are significantly overwhelmed.
B) In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities.
C) A unified command system functions optimally if one incident commander from each agency is identified before a multiple-casualty incident actually occurs.
D) The response plan developed by a unified command system should focus only on major events such as building collapses, plane crashes, and terrorist attacks.
A
B
27
Q
- The transfer of incident command should occur:
A) when the most experienced paramedic arrives.
B) over the radio so all involved personnel can hear.
C) at least every hour throughout the entire incident.
D) face to face, if possible, and in an orderly manner.
A
D
28
Q
- The FIRST step in the START triage system involves:
A) directing all the walking wounded to an easily identifiable landmark.
B) quickly removing the obviously dead victims to a predesignated area.
C) identifying the nonambulatory patients and assessing their breathing.
D) obtaining an estimate of the total number of critically injured victims.
A
A
29
Q
- According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:
A) he or she is in need of immediate intubation.
B) the airway is completely blocked by swelling.
C) a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.
D) he or she does not respond to two rescue breaths.
A
C
30
Q
- According to the START triage system, if a patient has a strong radial pulse, you should:
A) place him or her in the delayed category.
B) control bleeding and assess mental status.
C) assess his or her ability to follow commands.
D) determine whether the pulse rate is slow or fast.
A
B
31
Q
- According to the JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands should be:
A) quickly moved to a designated area of the triage section and monitored closely.
B) taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.
C) labeled with a red tag and transported immediately to a pediatric trauma center.
D) assigned the same triage category as the walking wounded and evaluated later.
A
B
32
Q
50. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should: A) deliver five rescue breaths. B) manually open the patient's airway. C) categorize the patient as expectant. D) immediately assess for a pulse.
A
D
33
Q
20. The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he or she believes a rescuer is in danger. A) logistics chief B) rescue officer C) triage officer D) safety officer
A
D
34
Q
- The National Incident Management System is designed to:
A) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity.
B) provide a consistent template to enable state, federal, and local governments to respond safely to any act of terrorism.
C) educate state, federal, and local governments, as well as private-sector organizations, to effectively prevent a domestic incident.
D) maximize the capabilities of each state in the United States to manage a large-scale disaster effectively, regardless of the cause.
A
A
35
Q
- Preparedness in a given area should involve decisions and planning about:
A) major disasters, such as tornadoes and earthquakes.
B) the most likely disasters for the area, among other disasters.
C) international terrorist attacks and catastrophic natural disasters.
D) the most common disasters encountered throughout the world.
A
B
36
Q
- After ensuring your own safety, you should consider the safety of, in order:
A) your partner, the patient, other rescuers, and any bystanders.
B) the patient, other rescuers, any bystanders, and your partner.
C) your partner, other rescuers, the patient, and any bystanders.
D) the patient, your partner, any bystanders, and other rescuers.
A
C
37
Q
- The primary function of the treatment section is to:
A) expediently move patients to the transportation area.
B) rapidly assess each patient to determine injury severity.
C) separate and treat patients based on their triage category.
D) treat each patient in the order in which he or she presents.
A
C
38
Q
35. Communicating with area hospitals to determine their capabilities and resources is a responsibility of the: A) treatment officer. B) individual paramedic. C) chief medical officer. D) transportation officer.
A
D
39
Q
- The staging supervisor is responsible for:
A) tracking the number of vehicles transporting patients.
B) supervising all responders who are providing treatment.
C) requesting additional medical supplies as they are needed.
D) coordinating with all incoming and outgoing ambulances.
A
D
40
Q
- In contrast to primary triage, secondary triage:
A) requires a more rapid assessment.
B) is performed in the treatment area.
C) is typically performed by a physician.
D) involves initial placement of triage tags.
A
B
41
Q
21. If an incident is such that it warrants evacuation of people, the incident commander would MOST likely request that the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ disseminate that information as well as evacuation directions. A) safety officer B) liaison officer C) operations chief D) public information officer
A
D
42
Q
- You are caring for a patient with non-life-threatening injuries in the treatment section of a multiple-casualty incident when you are approached by several TV reporters who are seeking details regarding the incident. You should:
A) provide a brief overview of the current situation.
B) direct the reporters to the public information officer.
C) firmly tell the reporters to leave the scene immediately.
D) ignore the reporters’ questions and continue patient care.
A
B
43
Q
- Which of the following situations does NOT depict a technical rescue?
A) Disentangling a young woman from her badly damaged vehicle
B) Moving a 180-pound man from his living room to the ambulance
C) Gaining access to an unresponsive man who is trapped in a grain silo
D) Retrieving a woman whose car was swept off the road by swift water
A
B
