Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mock answers I got wrong > phase 2a mock sba paper 2 PTS > Flashcards

phase 2a mock sba paper 2 PTS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three cardinal signs of heart failure?

A. Angina, shortness of breath, oedema
B. Cough, ankle oedema, fatigue
C. Headache, fatigue, shortness of breath
D. Pallor, ankle oedema, headache
E. Shortness of breath, fatigue, ankle oedem

A

E. Shortness of breath, fatigue, ankle oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which blood pressure reading taken in clinic would be classed as stage 1 hypertension?
    A. 125/80
    B. 135/85
    C. 145/95
    D. 165/105
    E. 180/110
A

C. 145/95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a sign of infective endocarditis?
    A. Janeway lesions
    B. Osler’s nodes
    C. Roth spots
    D. Splinter haemorrhages
    E. Xanthelasma
A

E. Xanthelasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A 35-year-old male presents to A&E after vomiting blood. He had been having some abdominal pain, feeling very nauseous and had been retching several times a day before finally vomiting blood this morning. He hasn’t noticed any weight loss, fevers or any other systemic symptoms. He drinks 2/3 pints every evening and has been eating/drinking as normal. He doesn’t take any prescribed or over the counter medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Peptic ulcer rupture
    B. Oesophageal malignancy
    C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
    D. Achalasia
    E. Mallory Weiss tear
A

E. Mallory Weiss tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of these is a not a cause of peptic ulcers?
    A. H. Pylori
    B. Increased stomach acid production
    C. Recurrent NSAID use
    D. Autoimmune gastritis
    E. Mucosal ischaemia
A

D. Autoimmune gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A 35-year-old male presents to A&E with pain in the middle of his abdomen which comes and goes. He says that he has been vomiting a lot over the last 7 days his abdomen is slightly bloated, and he hasn’t opened his bowels or passed wind in the last 3 days. He finds the pain gets much worse after he vomits, and he feels he has lost his appetite. He had an appendicectomy when he was 8 years old, but he has no other medical history of any other condition. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. IBS
    B. Large bowel obstruction
    C. Small bowel obstruction
    D. Crohn’s
    E. Coeliac Disease
A

Answer C-Small bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. A 60-year-old male presents with blood and mucus in his stools for the past 3 weeks, he has had on off diarrhoea and constipation during this time. He has lost 2 stone over the 3 weeks. He smokes and reveals his father died of rectal cancer. Which is the most appropriate investigation?
    A. Blood test: FBC, U+E, Tumour Markers etc
    B. Colonoscopy
    C. Double contrast barium enema
    D. CT Colonoscopy
    E. MRI
A

Question 24- Answer B- Colonoscopy
Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for bowel cancer.
(A)Blood tests are useful for monitoring but not diagnostic (tumour markers are not specific enough). (C)Double contrast barium enema is second line to colonoscopy and avoids risk of perforation but misses small lesions.
(D)CT colonoscopy is useful for older patients and is good at excluding cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Where are majority of colon cancers found?
    A. Ascending colon
    B. Caecum
    C. Descending colon
    D. Transverse colon
    E. Distal colon
A

Question 25- Answer E- Distal Colon
Around 38% of colon cancer is found in the distal colon; this includes the anus, rectosigmoid junction, sigmoid colon, and rectum. These often can be detected by digital rectal examination. Also, the closer the cancer is to the outside of the body the more visible blood and mucus will be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in his umbilical region which has now migrated to the right iliac fossa. He is pyrexic and vomiting. Which of the of the following is not a likely differential?
    A. Diverticulitis
    B. Ectopic Pregnancy
    C. Food poisoning
    D. Perforated ulcer
    E. UTI
A

Answer B- Ectopic Pregnancy
All of the answers are differential diagnoses for abdominal pain, note that the most likely diagnosis is in fact appendicitis due to the patients age and symptoms of pain migration.
Note that the patient is male (his umbilical region…, he is pyrexic…) and therefore you should not suspect ectopic pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of these is not a cause of diverticulum?
    A. Alcohol
    B. Low fibre diet
    C. Obesity
    D. NSAIDs
    E. Smoking
A

A. Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A 48-year-old female complains of bright red rectal bleeding which can be found upon wiping, she has been constipated recently and admits to straining. She feels tired but has not noticed any weight loss. What would the likely diagnosis be?
    A. Anal Fistula
    B. Anal Fissure
    C. Inflammatory Bowel Disease
    D. Haemorrhoids
    E. Rectal Cancer
A

D. Haemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. A 38-year-old female presents to you with bouts of diarrhoea with urgency, fatigue, abdominal pain and mouth ulcers. She smokes and complains of a stressful life. What investigation result may you expect to see?
    A. Anaemia due to Iron and Folate deficiency
    B. C.Diff positive stool sample
    C. Duodenal biopsy showing villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia
    D. Normal ESR and CRP
    E. pANCA positive
A

A. Anaemia due to Iron and Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following would you least expect to cause an acute kidney injury?
    A. Acute tubular necrosis
    B. Hypervolaemia
    C. Nephrotoxins
    D. Prostate hyperplasia
    E. Sepsis
A

B. Hypervolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of pyelonephritis?
    A. Staphylococcus Saprophyticus
    B. Enterococcus
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Klebsiella
    E. Proteus
A

C. Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best investigation to use in the management of pyelonephritis?
    A. Full blood count
    B. Midstream urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity
    C. Nuclei acid amplification test
    D. Ultrasound
    E. Urine dipstick
A

B. Midstream urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Alex, a 45-year-old builder presents to your GP with a 7-month history of recurring perineal pain as well as pain and difficulty when passing urine. He says he needs to go to the toilet many times a day which is starting to affect his work. On further questioning he reluctantly tells you that he has also had some pain when ejaculating. Alex mentions a workplace incident that he thinks might be related, where he fell from height and injured his hip close to a year ago. You decide to carry out a digital rectal exam- you don’t think his prostate is hard or irregular. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the history so far?
    A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
    B. Cystitis
    C. Prostate cancer
    D. Prostatitis
    E. Pyelonephritis
A

D. Prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Lucy is a 30-year-old woman who is 2 months pregnant, as her GP you find that she has a lower urinary tract infection and are considering which antibiotic to prescribe her. Which of the following medications would you definitely avoid prescribing?
    A. Amoxicillin
    B. Cephalexin
    C. Fosfomycin
    D. Nitrofurantoin
    E. Trimethoprim
A

E. Trimethoprim

18
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a complication of polycystic kidney disease?
    A. Cardiovascular disease
    B. Kidney stones
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. Polycystic liver disease
    E. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
A

C. Nephrotic syndrome

19
Q
  1. A patient presents to A&E with a fever and confusion. Upon further investigation, you find that she has AKI and her FBC reveals thrombocytopenia and anaemia. You recognise this as Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura and realise it is a medical emergency and you need to treat her immediately without waiting for diagnostic confirmation. What is the urgent gold standard treatment for someone with TTP?
    A. Platelets
    B. Hydroxycarbamide
    C. Immunosuppressants
    D. Plasma exchange
    E. Broad spectrum antibiotics
A

E. Broad spectrum antibiotics

20
Q
  1. What is the protein target of Rituximab?
    A. CD4
    B. CD8
    C. CD20
    D. HER2
    E. TNF-alpha
A

C. CD20

21
Q
  1. A 24-year-old male presents to General Practice complaining of a painful elbow. Upon examination the GP suspects a diagnosis of olecranon bursitis. The patient asks the GP about the pathological process that occurs in this condition. The GP explains the process of inflammation. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of acute inflammation?
    A. Rubor
    B. Dolor
    C. Suppuration
    D. Tumor
    E. Loss of function
A

C. Suppuration

22
Q
  1. A 63-year-old female is undergoing investigations for a suspected malignancy. The radiologist report confirms the presence of a malignant tumour of smooth muscle.
    What is the name for a malignant tumour of smooth muscle?
    A. Rhabdomyoma
    B. Leiomyoma
    C. Liposarcoma
    D. Leiomyosarcoma
    E. Rhabdomyosarcoma
A

D. Leiomyosarcoma

23
Q
  1. A 14-year-old female presents to A&E with severe abdominal pain. The pain started as a general tummy ache but the pain has now localised to the right iliac fossa. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. What type of cells would you expect predominantly during this disease process?
    A. B lymphocytes
    B. Macrophages
    C. Mast cells
    D. Neutrophils
    E. T lymphocytes
A

D. Neutrophils

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of an upper Gi bleed?
    A. Coffee ground vomit
    B. Diarrhoea
    C. Hypotension
    D. Melaena
    E. Tachycardia
A

B. Diarrhoea

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cause of Pancreatitis?
    A. Coeliac Disease
    B. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder (GORD)
    C. Horner’s syndrome
    D. Mumps
    E. Obesity
A

D. Mumps

26
Q
  1. Mr Gascoigne, a 52-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by the police after wandering confused in the street. He is a known alcoholic but from what history you can gather, it seems that he has not had a drink in the last 48 hours. Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate pharmaceutical treatment for this patient?
    A. Adrenaline
    B. Amlodipine
    C. Chlordiazepoxide
    D. Methadone
    E. Morphine
A

C. Chlordiazepoxide

27
Q
  1. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy is a complication of alcoholism caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
    A. Folate
    B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
    C. Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
    D. Vitamin C
    E. Vitamin K
A

B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

28
Q
  1. Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur with Alendronic Acid use?
    A. Cough
    B. Gout
    C. Haemolytic anaemia
    D. Oesophagitis
    E. Urinary frequency
A

D. Oesophagitis

29
Q
  1. Richard, a 76-year-old gentleman, presents to his GP with ongoing left knee pain that has now led to him developing a slight limp. He experiences stiffness in the mornings but says it soon gets better as he makes his breakfast. On examination, his left knee is tender and shows some deformity. Richard mentions he used to be a keen footballer and had a nasty injury to his knee several years ago. The GP requests an X-ray. Given the likely diagnosis, which is least likely to be seen on the X-ray?
    A. Joint space narrowing
    B. Osteophyte formation
    C. Soft tissue swelling
    D. Subchondral cysts
    E. Subchondral sclerosis
A

C. Soft tissue swelling

30
Q
  1. A 23-year-old student comes to your GP clinic complaining of back pain. He describes an aching pain that has come on over a few months and now wakes him at night. He denies weight loss, fevers or change in appetite. He has found gentle exercise to be helpful but struggles to keep up with his usual yoga class, finding the stretches difficult. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate first line management?
    A. Chemotherapy
    B. Ibuprofen
    C. Infliximab
    D. Paracetamol
    E. Watch and wait
A

B. Ibuprofen

31
Q
  1. Which of the following X ray signs is mostly likely to be found a patient with psoriatic arthritis?
    A. Bamboo spine
    B. Pencil in cup
    C. Periarticular erosions
    D. Osteophytes
    E. Rhomboid crystals
A

B. Pencil in cup

32
Q
  1. Peter, a 23-year-old investment banker, has come to A&E with bleeding from his mouth. His brother has come with him and says that an hour he watched as Peter suddenly gasped for air, fell to the floor and started making jerking movements for about a minute. He was unresponsive for a few minutes and then completely recovered. Peter says he’s doesn’t think he’s ever had seizure before, although when working late he sometimes notices his head or arm twitching. There is no other significant past medical, family or medication histories. Cardiovascular exam, neurological exam, blood tests and ECG are all normal. What pharmacological treatment should be offered to the patient before their discharge from hospital?
    A. Clonazepam
    B. Gabapentin
    C. Rivastigmine
    D. No treatment needed
    E. Sodium valproate
A

E. Sodium valproate

33
Q
  1. A 52-year-old man complains of an incident occurring a few hours ago as ‘a black curtain suddenly coming down’ over his right eye. He says that the episode was painless and only lasted a few minutes and that his vision was back to normal after. You check his observations and note the following: RR 14, HR 70, T 36.5oC, SPO2 98% room air, BP 165/95. On listening to his neck, you can hear a bruit. He has no other past medical history other than having type 2 diabetes which is controlled with medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Amaurosis fugax
    B. Glaucoma
    C. Optic neuritis
    D. Papilledema
    E. Retinal vein thrombosis
A

A. Amaurosis fugax

34
Q
  1. A 48-year-old woman presents with a daily headache and blurred vision that has worsened over the past several months. You are worried that she could have a space-occupying lesion. Which of the following clinical features is least likely to occur in patients with brain tumours?
    A. Ascending paralysis from the lower limbs
    B. Coma
    C. Dysdiadochokinesis
    D. Nausea and vomiting
    E. Seizures
A

Question 85- Answer A- Ascending paralysis from the lower limbs
(A) is the correct answer at it is a feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome which is an autoimmune neurological disorder and is highly unlikely to be seen in patients with a brain tumour without GBS.
(B) Coma is a late stage feature of brain tumours, secondary to raised ICP. (C) cerebellar signs – DANISH– are focal neurological signs that can be caused by mass effect of brain tumours (Dysdiadokinesis, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, slurred/stacatto speech, hypotonia. (D) due to raised ICP. (E) Another focal neurological sign as the regular electrical activity of the brain is disturbed by the tumour.

35
Q
  1. What is the commonest cause of an infective exacerbation of COPD?
    A. Haemophilus Influenzae
    B. Parainfluenza Viruses
    C. Rhinovirus
    D. Staphylococcus Aureus
    E. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
A

A. Haemophilus Influenzae

36
Q
  1. Harry, a 75-year-old ex-miner, is admitted to A&E after struggling with breathlessness and a cough. He is known to have COPD and usually manages this with oxygen at home, he has been a smoker for 25 years and previously worked as a coal miner for 30 years. The HCA documents his observations as follows:
     O2Sats:87%onair
     HR:100
     RR:24
     BP : 115/75
     Temp : 37.4
    On listening to his chest you hear a bilateral expiratory wheeze. You start him on oxygen and prescribe him salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulizers. You insert a cannula and send off bloods to the labs, a CXR is requested. What is the next most immediate step in Harrys Management?
    A. Arterial blood gas sampling
    B. Assess Peak Flow
    C. Start non-invasive ventilation (BIPAP)
    D. Take a sputum sample for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
    E. Urine sample for microscopy and sensitivity
A

A. Arterial blood gas sampling

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is a sign of a life-threatening asthma attack?
    A. Inability to complete sentences in one breath
    B. SpO2 <92%
    C. Pulse < 110
    D. RR≥25
    E. RR<25
A

B. SpO2 <92%

38
Q
  1. Jess, a 21-year-old asthmatic has come to see her GP after she noticed that she feels shaky and her heart races after she takes one of her new medications for asthma. Which medication below is most commonly associated with a fine tremor?
    A. Beclametasone inhaler
    B. Montelukast oral medication
    C. Proprionate inhaler
    D. Prednisolone oral medication
    E. Salbutamol inhaler
A

Answer E- Salbutamol Inhaler
Salbutamol is a short acting beta agonist. It is designed to work selectively on the beta 2 adrenergic receptors found in the lungs, which relaxes the smooth muscle of the airways. However, the drug isn’t completely selective and so some of the drug acts on the sympathetic receptors in the heart (causing tachycardia) and sympathetic receptors in skeletal muscle (causing a tremor).
Another important side effect of salbutamol is hypokalaemia.
Options A and C (Beclametasone and Proprionate) are inhaled corticosteroids, important side effects of these are oral candida and stunted growth in children.
Option B (montelukast) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
Option D (prednisolone) is a corticosteroid.

39
Q
  1. Sarah is a 35-year-old and is 7 months pregnant with her first child. Yesterday whilst cooking breakfast she developed a sharp chest pain on her left side and has felt progressively short of breath since. The pain feels sharp and worsens on taking a deep breath or speaking. She is normally fit and well, takes no regular medications and denies any previous episodes like this in the past. On examination her heart rate is 78 bpm, her respiratory rate is 20, temperature is 37.3 and blood pressure is 125/ 85. On listening to her chest you hear normal heart sounds and good air entry bilaterally. What is the mostly likely pathology behind Sarah’s presentation?
    A. Angina
    B. Muscular strain
    C. Myocardial Infarction
    D. Pneumothorax
    E. Pulmonary Embolism
A

Answer E- Pulmonary Embolism
The mostly likely cause is a pulmonary embolism, the classic symptoms of a pulmonary embolism are pleuritic chest pain (worse on deep breaths), shortness of breath and haemoptysis. Pregnancy is a risk factor for pulmonary embolisms as during pregnancy the blood is in a more hypercoagulable state. The majority of PE’s during pregnancy are seen in the third trimester. Diagram (right)= Virchow’s triad

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for a Pulmonary Embolism?
    A. Antiphospholipid syndrome
    B. Cancer
    C. Early mobility post-surgery
    D. Factor V Leiden mutation
    E. Synthetic Oestrogen
A

Answer C- Early mobility post-surgery
Early mobility post-surgery decreases the risk of a DVT or a PE. Immobility increases the risk. All of the other options are risk factors for a DVT or PE. (Refer again to Virchow’s triad above)

41
Q
  1. Mick, a 75-year-old care home resident, has been brought to A&E after suddenly becoming confused and drowsy. On examination he looks dehydrated. On auscultation of his chest you hear coarse crackles and reduced air entry bilaterally and he is coughing up green sputum. His vital signs are:
     HR: 100
     RR: 28
     Temp: 38.2
     Oxygen Sats: 94% on 15L high flow oxygen
     BP: 100/65
    IV access is gained, and bloods are taken, fluid and antibiotics are administered. A CXR is ordered. His bloods come back showing urea levels of 8mmol/L. You suspect Mick is suffering from a chest infection. What is his CURB65 score?
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
A

Answer C- 3
Mick’s CURB65 score is a 3 overall due to his age, confusion and urea levels. NICE guidance suggests that intensive care should be considered for patients scoring a 3 or above. A CURB65 score should be used alongside clinical judgement. One point is scored for each of the categories below

mock answers I got wrong (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions