PHASE 1 Flashcards
1
Q
EAWS was established in
A
1980
2
Q
EAWS was made mandatory in
A
august 2010
3
Q
SORM
A
Ship organization and regulations manual
4
Q
What is the sorm used for?
A
used to issue policy governing USS abraham lincoln organization, operation, regulations, and administrative procedures
5
Q
how many chapters makes up the sorm
A
26
6
Q
what are the 3 objectives of first aid
A
prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life
7
Q
what are the 8 categories of first aid
A
- bleeding
- burns
- fractures
- electrical shock
- obstructed airways
- heat injuries
- cold injuries
- shock
8
Q
4 methods to control bleeding
A
- direct pressure
- elevation
- pressure points
- tq’s
9
Q
what is a pressure point
A
a point on the body where a main artery lies near the surface and over a bone
10
Q
how many pressure points are there
A
11 on each side of the body
11
Q
what is shock
A
life threatening medical condition where the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of sever injury or illness
12
Q
how many types of shock and what are there
A
5
1. septic
2. anaphylactic
3. neurogenic
4. hypovolemic
5. cardiogenic
13
Q
What does CPR do
A
supports small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to buy time until normal heart functions are restored
14
Q
The key to survival for victims of cardiac arrest is what
A
immediate recognition and immediate activation of the emergency response team
15
Q
6 steps in the CPR survival chain
A
- recognition and activation of CPR
- Chest compressions
- AED
- rapid defibrillation
- ALS
- integrated post cardiac arrest care
16
Q
what is the survival chain
A
an integrated set of coordinated actions
17
Q
Chemical warfare
A
employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect
18
Q
how many chemical agents are there
A
4
19
Q
what are the four chemical agents
A
- choking
- blister
- nerve
- blood
20
Q
what are nerve agents
A
LIQUID casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions
sarin, tabun, soman, VX
21
Q
what are blister agents
A
SOLID or LIQUID casualty agents that cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often result in temporary blindness or death
distilled mustards, lewisite, phosgene oxime, levenstein mustard
22
Q
what are blood agents
A
GASEOUS casualty agents that attack enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream, rapid breathing and choking may occur due to a lack of oxygen in the blood
hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, arsine
23
Q
what are choking agents
A
GASEOUS or LIQUID casualty agents with initial sx of tears, dry throat, nasuea, vomiting, and headache. Lungs can become filled with fluid making the victim feel as if they are drowning
phosgene, disphosgene
24
Q
what is biological warfare
A
the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of combatant forces
25
what are the basic divisions of biological agents
pathogens and toxins
26
what are some PATHOGENS that can be used as bio agents
1. bacteria
2. rickettsia
3. viruses
4. fungi
5. protozoa
6. prions
27
what are the major groupings of TOXINS
1. mycotoxins
2. bacterial toxins
3. algal toxins
4. animal venoms
5. plant toxins
28
the primary groups of toxins based of physiological effects are
1. cytotoxins
2. enterotoxins
3. neurotoxins
4. dermatoxins
29
examples of IPE
1. M-50 mask
2. Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG)
3. chemical protective gloves and liners
4. chemical protective overboots
5. skin decon kit
30
what is radiological warfare
the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce wide spread injury and illness
31
what are the 5 types of nuclear explosions
1. high altitude air burst
2. air burst
3. surface burst
4. shallow underwater burst
5. deep underwater burst
32
which nuclear explosion has the worst fallout
surface burst due to the fireball and blast
33
what is a DT-60 dosimeter
non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter that can determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens
34
What are some life threatening hazards during flight ops
1. jet intakes
2. jet exhaust
3. props
4. helicopter rotor blades
5. downwash
6. arresting gear wires
7. catapult shuttles
8. elevators
9. JBD's
35
what is flight quarters
the ship shall be prepared to launch, recover, arm, fuel, and service aircraft and at the same time be prepared to handles aircraft crashes, fight aircraft/fuel fires, and render aid and assistance to injured personnel
36
what is alert 5
Condition 1: the aircraft shall be spotted on the catapult or in a position affording a clear route to the catapult
37
what is alert 15
Condition 2: all provisions for condition 1 apply, except that aircrew shall be in flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready room. No maintenance action allowed. Alert SAR helicopter in Condition 2 may be folded provided the primary SAR helicopter is airborne
38
what is alert 30
Condition 3: Aircrew shall be briefed and in the flight suits maintaining contact with their ready room. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. No maintenance action allowed
39
what is alert 60
Condition 4: Aircrew shall be briefed and in contact with their ready rooms. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. Maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch in involved
40
minimum personnel required to move an aircraft
1 qualified aircraft director
1 qualified tractor driver
1 brake rider
2 plane handlers
2 wing safeties
1 tail safety
41
who wears yellow jerseys
aircraft directors
shooters
flight deck officer
aircraft handling officer
42
what divisions wear yellow shirts
V1/3
43
what is a yellow shirts job
direct all aircraft, taxi and towing. ensure safety for all personnel on the flight deck and hangar deck
44
what divisions wear blue jerseys
V1/3
45
what is a blue shirts job
Plane handlers – ensure all aircraft are chocked and chained properly
Tractor drivers – tow and service all aircraft on board
Elevator operators – raise and lower all elevators as needed
46
Who wears red jerseys
Crash/salvage, EOD, AO’s, and air department DC/3M division (V5)
47
Who wears green jerseys
V2
Catapult/arresting gear personnel, photographers, maintenance personnel, helicopter landing signal enlisted-man
48
what division works on all of the arresting gear wires and catapults
V2
49
who wears brown jerseys
plane captains
50
foul line
Alternating red/white line
The purpose of this marking is to identify the landing area
If this line is fouled during recovery DEATH may occur
51
JBD
Outlined by a yellow line (movable object)
Deflects all jet exhaust during launch operations
If a JBD is inoperative only the CO can authorize an aircraft to launch off that specific catapult
52
Elevators
alternating red/yellow
53
Stanchions
alternating red/yellow
54
Safe launch line (shot lines)
Catapults ½ (bow catapults) alternating red/white
Catapults ¾ (waist catapults) solid yellow. The waist shot lines are yellow so its does not get confused with the foul line
55
Ordinance elevator
alternating red and yellow
56
A bomb jettison ramp is a ramp designated to eliminate loose ordinance and is identified how?
Identified by yellow stripe painted up and over the deck edge at both ends of the ramp
The flight deck in front of the ramp opening is marked w/ alternating 4 inch wide red/yellow striped w/ a 12 inch black facsimile of a bomb centered
57
how is steam smothering identified
18 inch black stripe w/ a 3 inch white STEAM stenciled in the center of the stripe on wheel stop coaming
58
what are the 3 types of barricades
o Fixed wing barricade
o Propeller barricade
o Training barricade
59
What is a deck pendant/purchase cable used for
used to recover aircraft
60
what takes the initial impact upon arrestment
impact pad
61
what retracts all wires
retractable deck sheaves
62
what is used to launch all fixed wing aircraft
shuttle
63
what is used to deflect jet exhaust and protect personnel and equipment
JBD
64
what is a maintenance requirement used prior to launching of an aircraft
No-load
65
who under the Air Officer as the principal assistant ensures the ship is capable of meeting all mission requirements related to flight and hangar deck air operations ?
Aircraft handling officer
66
what is Support Equipment (SE)
used to service, test, and trouble shoot aircraft systems
67
What should personnel be aware of when working around aircraft? (DANGER)
Intake
Exhaust
Flight controls
Compressed gasses
Explosives hazmat
Eye, hearing, and industrial environmental dangers
68
How many categories of tie downs are there?
4
69
Initial tie down
Minimum of 6 chains
This condition of aircraft security exists immediately prior to aircraft movement from spot and immediately after aircraft is parked
70
intermediate tie down
9 chains required
This condition of aircraft security shall exist during flight quarters
Air craft that are not scheduled for launch on any given cyclic or CARQUALS events shall be on intermediate tie downs
71
Permanent tie down
14 chains required
Not at flight quarters and the aircraft is not expected to fly
All aircraft parked in the hangar bay will be on permanent tie downs
72
heavy weather tie down
20 chains required
Made at the determination of the aircraft handling officer
A maximum number of air craft shall be spotted on the hangar deck in such a manner to permit access to fire stations at all times
73
What tie down is required to refuel an aircraft?
initial
74
what is used to communicate on the flight deck
aircraft hand signals
75
What is the NATOPS hand signal manual
NAVAIR 00-80T-113
76
Who can authorize moving a "no brake" air craft
Aircraft handling officer
77
dimensions of an aircraft carrier hangar
110 ft wide
685 ft wide
25 ft over head clearance
78
what is the actual storage space of the hangar bay
1.4 acres
79
What determines the condition for defense of the US homeland and assets abroad?
THREATCON scale
80
What does the DEFCON scale determine?
the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war
81
where are hangar bay 1/2 ACE's?
starboard side
82
where is hangar bay 3's ACE's
port and starboard sides
83
FPCON levels are based off what?
Terrorist threat level
The risk of terrorist attacks in which personnel and assets are exposed
The ability to penetrate existing physical security systems
84
How many defense readiness conditions are there?
5
85
What is deadly force?
(WORD FOR WORD)
deadly force is the force that is likely to cause, or that a persons knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm or injury
86
what are some circumstances for the use of deadly force
Self defense and the defense of other DOD personnel
Protecting assets vital to national security
Protecting inherently dangerous property
Protection national critical infrastructure
Performing an arrest or apprehension, and preventing escape
Defense against animals
87
What does NAMP stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
88
What is the objective of NAMP?
To achieve/continually improve aviation material readiness/safety standards established by the CNO and the COMNAVAIRFOR w/ coordination from the CMC, w/ optimum use of man power, material, facilities, funds
89
Who is in charge of NAMP?
CNO (LISAAAAA)
90
MMCO
Maintenance/Material Control Officer
91
MO
Maintenance Officer
92
AMO
Aircraft maintenance officer/assistant maintenance officer
93
MMCPO
Maintenance master chief petty officer
94
QAO
Quality Assurance Officer
95
who ensures personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods
QAO
96
MCO
material control officer
97
what is an MCO
Supply corps officer assigned to a deployable squadron for handling of finances, material requisitions, etc
98
What are the NAMP maintenance concepts?
O-level
I-level
D-level
99
What is O-level maintenance
Maintenance which is performed by an operating unit (squadrons) on a day to day basis in support of its own operations
100
What is I-level maintenance
Enhance/sustain the combat readiness/mission capability of supported activities (squadrons) by providing quality/timely material support at nearest location
101
What is D-level maintenance
Performed at or by FRC sires to ensure continued flying integrity or airframes/flight systems during subsequent operational service periods
Performed on material requiring major overhaul/rebuilding of parts
102
What are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP
Rework and Upkeep
103
What is rework maintenance
Restorative/additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and support equipment at d-level FRC’s and other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs
104
What is upkeep maintenance
Preventative, restorative, additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units
105
How many types of upkeep maintenances/inspections are there?
7
106
UPKEEP
-turnaround
24 hours and no flight occurs during this period. No maintenance other than servicing
107
UPKEEP
-daily
conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than turnaround. Good for 72 hours w/o flight/major maintenance. Aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is required as long as it doesn’t surpass the 72 hour time limit
108
UPKEEP
-special
scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily/phase intervals are specified in applicable PMS pubs and based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles/events
109
UPKEEP
-conditional
conditional maintenance requirements are unscheduled events required as a result of specific over limit condition. Result of circumstances or events which create an admin requirement for an inspection
110
UPKEEP
-phase
divides the total scheduled maintenance requirements into smaller packages. Done sequentially and at specified intervals
111
UPKEEP
- acceptance
performed at time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft/SE from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance.
112
UPKEEP
-Transfer
performed at a time a reporting custodian transfers aircraft/SE
113
What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance work load?
MMP (monthly maintenance plan)
Prepared and distributed at the 25th of each month at 0 level and the 1st of each month at the I level
114
What is an aircraft log book
Record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, installed equipment
Record of rework, major repairs, flight and operational date maintenance directives affecting aircraft components and accessories
115
How many sections can an aircraft log book be broken into?
14
116
What are some examples of sections of the aircraft log book
Non-aging record
Flight time
Inspection record
Repair/rework
Technical directives
Miscellaneous history
Preservation and de preservation record
Installed explosive devices
Inventory record
Assembly service record
Equipment history record
Scheduled removal components cards (SRC’s)
Aviation life supper systems records
Aeronautical equipment service records (AESR’s)
117
Who certifies that work involved has been personally inspected by them properly completed and is in accordance with current instruction ?
QAR
Quality assurance rep
118
CDQAR
collateral duty quality assurance rep
119
CDI
Collateral duty inspector
120
Who inspects all work/complies with required QA inspections during all maintenance action performed by their respective work center
CDI
121
What are some programs managed by NAMP?
NAMP compliance auditing
Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
Technical Data Management (Formerly known as central technical publications library (CTPL))
Maintenance Department Safety
SE Misuse/abuse reporting
Aircraft Confined Space Program
(O-Level) Vibration Analysis
122
What are the three audits performed by QA
Special
Work center
Program audits
123
Special audit
Evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures, and programs
Copies maintained for 1 year
124
Work center audit
Conducted semi-annually to evaluate overall quality of performance of each work center, all areas are evaluated
125
Program audits
Evaluate specific programs, provided systematic and coordinated method of identifying deficiencies
Audited annually at a minimum
126
ACSP
Aircraft confined space program
127
What is the objective of the ACSP?
to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on equipment fuel cells/tanks
128
NAMDRP
Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program
129
What was established in 1961 as a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps
NATOPS
130
What does NATOPS stand for?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
131
When was the angled flight deck introduced?
1954
132
What was the first standardization program and when was it initiated?
NAMP 1959
133
What was the second standardization program and when was it initiated?
Fleet Replacement Squadron in 1961
134
What is a manual designed to standardize procedures for operating aircraft?
NATOPS
135
What are the most dangerous times for maintenance personnel with an aircraft?
engine start
operation
shut down
136
Warning (NATOPS)
operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed/followed
137
Caution (NATOPS)
operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed
138
Note (NATOPS)
operating procedure, practice, condition that must be emphasized
139
Shall (NATOPS)
procedure that is MANDATORY
140
Should (NATOPS)
procedure that is RECOMMENDED
141
May (NATOPS)
optional
142
Will (NATOPS)
indicated futurity/never indicates any degree of requirement for application of procedure
143
The visual identification marker is located on what part of the aircraft?
vertical stabilizer
144
COMNAVAIRLANT (aircraft markings)
first character A-M, second character A-Z
145
COMNAVAIRPAC (aircraft markings)
first character N-Z, Second character A-Z
146
CNATRA (aircraft markings)
only character is A-G
147
USS ABRAHAM LINCOLN Aircraft Marking
NG
148
When was the first take off from a ship?
14NOV1910
149
Who was the first pilot to take off from a ship?
Eugene Ely (civilian pilot)
Flew off of a wooden platform off of the deck of the USS Birmingham (CL2)
150
The glen curtis biplane later became what?
A-1 Triad
The navy's first aircraft
151
Who was the first fatality of naval aviation and when did it happen?
ENS William D. Billingsley
20JUN1913
152
What was the name of the former collier/coal carrier that eventually was converted to the Navy’s First Aircraft Carrier ?
The jupiter
153
What was the navy's first carrier and when was it commissioned?
USS Langley (CV-1)
20MAR1922
154
What was the navy's first jet and when did it make its first landing?
FJ-1 Fury
10MAR1948
Landed on the USS Boxer (CV-21)
155
What are the dates for Coral Sea?
4MAY1942 - 8MAY1942
156
What was the significance of the battle of coral sea?
Fought solely by air, the fleets didn’t see each other
The Lexington was sunk
The Yorktown was damaged
157
What are the dates for the battle of midway?
3JUN1942 - 5JUN1942
158
What was the significance of the battle of midway?
Turning point in the pacific theater
All four Japanese carriers were sunk
Admiral Nimitz positioned the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown out of Japanese range
159
What are the dates for the battle of Guadalcanal?
13NOV1942 - 15NOV1942
160
What was the significance of the battle of Guadalcanal?
Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers
USS Juneau was involved
The 5 Sullivan brother died
A ship was later named in their honor
161
Newport News Ship Building was awarded the contract to build CVN 72 on
27DEC1982
162
When was the lincolns keel laid?
3NOV1984
163
Who was the first lincoln crew member and when did they report?
Master Chief Robert Wellcome
20JAN1987
164
When was the lincoln christened and launched?
13FEB1988
165
Who was the lincolns first CO?
CAPT William B. Hayden
166
When was the lincoln commissioned?
11NOV1989
167
When was the lincoln transferred to the pacific and where was it home ported>
September 1990
Naval Station Alameda, CA
168
The Lincoln's maiden WESTPAC deployment was for what?
Desert storm/desert shield
169
When did the lincoln get deployed to the coast of somalia in support of operation restore hope?
october 1993
4 weeks air wing flew patrols over mogadishu
170
When did combat exclusion laws get repealed?
april 1993
171
Who was the first female f-14 pilot and when did she begin training?
LT Kara spears hultgreen
24OCT1994
172
When did the lincoln report to its new homeport in everett, wa
8Jan1997
173
From july 2002 to 2003 the lincoln was deployed for how many days in support of operation enduring freedom, southern watch, and iraqi freedom?
290 days
174
After the tsunami in sumatra, how many days was the lincoln on station and how many pounds of relief were delivered?
33 days and 5.7 million pounds of humanitarian relief supplies
175
When was the final line of the gettysburg address delivered and where was it delivered to?
19NOV1863
Dedication ceremony of the gettysburg national cemetary
176
How many types of motion are there pertaining to flight and what are they?
3
Speed
Acceleration
Velocity
177
What is acceleration?
Rate of change of speed and or velocity of matter with time
178
What is speed?
rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time
179
What is velocity
the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction
180
How many laws of motion are there?
3
181
What is newtons first law of motion
Inertia
An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will stay in motion at the same speed and in the same direction until acted on by an outside force
182
What is newtons second law of motion
Force
If an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved
183
What is newtons third law of motion
Action/Reaction
for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
184
What is lift?
Force that act in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air, it counteracts the effects of weight
Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained
185
What is weight?
Force of gravity acting downward on an aircraft and everything on the aircraft
186
What is drag?
Force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of air about the wings, fuselage, or body
Drag resists motion
187
What is thrust?
Force developed by the aircrafts engine acts as in the forward direction
Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained
188
What is longitudinal axis of the aircraft (roll) ?
Imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail
189
What is the lateral axis (pitch) ?
imaginary reference lien running parallel to the wings
190
What is the vertical axis?
imaginary reference line running from the tip to the bottom of the aircraft
191
What controls the roll or longitudinal axis?
Ailerons
192
What controls the pitch or lateral axis?
elevators
193
What controls the yaw or vertical axis?
Rudder
194
What controls the roll/pitch tilts the plane (angle) of the rotor blades forward, aft, or sideways giving helicopters its directional motion by changing the direction of the lift, from vertical to a varying degree based on a 0 degree centerline ?
Cyclic stick
195
What is the yaw component counteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces, this movement is the vertical axis
tail rotor
196
What are some non axis affecting flight controls?
Flap
Spoiler
Speed Brakes
Slats
197
What is a flap?
(leading/trailing edge) creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift
It reduces take off runs and landing rollout
198
What is a spoiler?
Used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces, creates a more predictable landing glidescope
199
What are speed brakes?
Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft
200
What are slats?
Moveable control surfaces attached to the landing edge of the wing
When open or extended forward a lot is created between the slat and wing leading edge
201
What is the angle of attack?
Angle at which the fuselage meets the flow of air defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind
Measured in units as opposed to degrees
202
What is autorotation?
WHERE THE PILOT HAS THE ROTORS SPIN THE OPPOSITE WAY
Method allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power
The collective is lowered allowing reverse airflow through the rotor to maintain RPM
203
What does NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
204
What does NALCOMIS do?
Provides the capability to manage maintenance/supply functions and processes
205
What does OOMA stand for?
Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity
206
What does OIMA stand for?
Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity
207
What does OOMA track?
NMCS/PMCS status
Flyable discrepancies
Non-aircraft related discrepancies
ALSS Status
SE Status
Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status
208
What are some responsibilities of Maintenance/production control?
o Monitor current aircraft/equipment status
o Tracks status of incomplete maintenance actions
o Sets work center priorities
o Report equipment configuration, material readiness, flight data
o Brief pilots/aircrew via QA/work center prior to functional check flight
o Review, update, and approve all work orders
o Reviews, approves, or rejects corrective actions
o When parts are required, assign projects/priority codes to requisitions
209
What is a JCN?
a 9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection
210
What is Type WO?
2 character code that describes the type of maintenance to be performed
211
What is Accumulated Job Status History?
history if the WO from start to finish
212
What are work hours?
To include workers name, tools used, the QA/CDI that inspected them and they hours they worked
213
what is work center?
identifies the work center responsible to complete the maintenance action
214
What is the Work Unit Code (WUC)
Numeric or alphanumeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction
215
What are the different work order types?
o DM: discrepancy maintenance
o TS: trouble shooting
o CM: cannibalization maintenance
o AD: Assist maintenance
o FO: facilitate other maintenance
o CL: conditional look phase
o CF: conditional fix phase
o SX: special inspection one work center
o SC: special inspection control
o TD: technical directive
216
What does OIMA do?
provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level
217
What are some of the processes for OIMA?
Engine/SE repair
Material requisitions
Repairable management
AWP management
Personnel assignment
Sub-custody of equipment
218
how many basic core capabilities of naval aviation are there?
6
219
what are the basic core capabilities of naval aviation
forward presence
deterrence
sea control
power projection
maritime security
humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
220
What is forward presence?
key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world
The deployable/expeditionary character of naval aviation distinguishes it as the centerpiece of core
221
What is deterrence?
Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning
Possessing superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors
222
What is sea control?
Protects the ability to operate freely at sea and enable joint operations
Surveillance detection attack of costal, surface, subsurface platforms are readily executed
223
What is maritime security?
Maintenance of security at sea and mitigation of threats short of war
Combating terrorism, piracy, drug trafficking and other threats to enhance global stability
224
What is humanitarian relief?
A human obligation and a foundation of human character
Majority of the worlds population lives within a few hundred miles of the ocean, meaning that access is best achieved by maritime forces
225
What does HSC stand for and what do they do?
Helicopter sea combat
Units perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, SAR missions
226
What does HSM stand for and what do they do?
Helicopter Maritime Strike
Primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare secondary roles are logistics and rescue
227
What does VAQ stand for and what do they do?
Tactical Electronic Warfare
Fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppress, degrade, and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems
228
What does VAW stand for and what do they do?
Carrier Airborne early warning
Fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft
229
What does VQ stand for and what do they do?
Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy
229
What does VFA stand for and what do they do?
Strike Fighter
Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions
230
What does VRC stand for and what do they do?
Aircraft Logistics Support
Fixed wing squadrons for transport of personnel and supplies
231
What does VT stand for and what do they do?
Training
fixed wing squadrons that provide basic/advanced training
232
What does VX/VXE stand for and what do they do?
Air Test and Evaluation
Fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate operational capabilities of new aircraft/equipment is an operational environment
They develop tactics and doctrines for their most effective use
