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AIR WARFARE PHASE 1 > PHASE 1 > Flashcards

PHASE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

EAWS was established in

A

1980

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2
Q

EAWS was made mandatory in

A

august 2010

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3
Q

SORM

A

Ship organization and regulations manual

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4
Q

What is the sorm used for?

A

used to issue policy governing USS abraham lincoln organization, operation, regulations, and administrative procedures

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5
Q

how many chapters makes up the sorm

A

26

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6
Q

what are the 3 objectives of first aid

A

prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life

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7
Q

what are the 8 categories of first aid

A
  1. bleeding
  2. burns
  3. fractures
  4. electrical shock
  5. obstructed airways
  6. heat injuries
  7. cold injuries
  8. shock
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8
Q

4 methods to control bleeding

A
  1. direct pressure
  2. elevation
  3. pressure points
  4. tq’s
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9
Q

what is a pressure point

A

a point on the body where a main artery lies near the surface and over a bone

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10
Q

how many pressure points are there

A

11 on each side of the body

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11
Q

what is shock

A

life threatening medical condition where the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of sever injury or illness

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12
Q

how many types of shock and what are there

A

5
1. septic
2. anaphylactic
3. neurogenic
4. hypovolemic
5. cardiogenic

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13
Q

What does CPR do

A

supports small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to buy time until normal heart functions are restored

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14
Q

The key to survival for victims of cardiac arrest is what

A

immediate recognition and immediate activation of the emergency response team

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15
Q

6 steps in the CPR survival chain

A
  1. recognition and activation of CPR
  2. Chest compressions
  3. AED
  4. rapid defibrillation
  5. ALS
  6. integrated post cardiac arrest care
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16
Q

what is the survival chain

A

an integrated set of coordinated actions

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17
Q

Chemical warfare

A

employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect

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18
Q

how many chemical agents are there

A

4

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19
Q

what are the four chemical agents

A
  1. choking
  2. blister
  3. nerve
  4. blood
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20
Q

what are nerve agents

A

LIQUID casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions

sarin, tabun, soman, VX

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21
Q

what are blister agents

A

SOLID or LIQUID casualty agents that cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often result in temporary blindness or death

distilled mustards, lewisite, phosgene oxime, levenstein mustard

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22
Q

what are blood agents

A

GASEOUS casualty agents that attack enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream, rapid breathing and choking may occur due to a lack of oxygen in the blood

hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride, arsine

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23
Q

what are choking agents

A

GASEOUS or LIQUID casualty agents with initial sx of tears, dry throat, nasuea, vomiting, and headache. Lungs can become filled with fluid making the victim feel as if they are drowning

phosgene, disphosgene

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24
Q

what is biological warfare

A

the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of combatant forces

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25
Q

what are the basic divisions of biological agents

A

pathogens and toxins

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26
Q

what are some PATHOGENS that can be used as bio agents

A
  1. bacteria
  2. rickettsia
  3. viruses
  4. fungi
  5. protozoa
  6. prions
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27
Q

what are the major groupings of TOXINS

A
  1. mycotoxins
  2. bacterial toxins
  3. algal toxins
  4. animal venoms
  5. plant toxins
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28
Q

the primary groups of toxins based of physiological effects are

A
  1. cytotoxins
  2. enterotoxins
  3. neurotoxins
  4. dermatoxins
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29
Q

examples of IPE

A
  1. M-50 mask
  2. Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG)
  3. chemical protective gloves and liners
  4. chemical protective overboots
  5. skin decon kit
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30
Q

what is radiological warfare

A

the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce wide spread injury and illness

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31
Q

what are the 5 types of nuclear explosions

A
  1. high altitude air burst
  2. air burst
  3. surface burst
  4. shallow underwater burst
  5. deep underwater burst
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32
Q

which nuclear explosion has the worst fallout

A

surface burst due to the fireball and blast

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33
Q

what is a DT-60 dosimeter

A

non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter that can determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens

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34
Q

What are some life threatening hazards during flight ops

A
  1. jet intakes
  2. jet exhaust
  3. props
  4. helicopter rotor blades
  5. downwash
  6. arresting gear wires
  7. catapult shuttles
  8. elevators
  9. JBD’s
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35
Q

what is flight quarters

A

the ship shall be prepared to launch, recover, arm, fuel, and service aircraft and at the same time be prepared to handles aircraft crashes, fight aircraft/fuel fires, and render aid and assistance to injured personnel

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36
Q

what is alert 5

A

Condition 1: the aircraft shall be spotted on the catapult or in a position affording a clear route to the catapult

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37
Q

what is alert 15

A

Condition 2: all provisions for condition 1 apply, except that aircrew shall be in flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready room. No maintenance action allowed. Alert SAR helicopter in Condition 2 may be folded provided the primary SAR helicopter is airborne

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38
Q

what is alert 30

A

Condition 3: Aircrew shall be briefed and in the flight suits maintaining contact with their ready room. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. No maintenance action allowed

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39
Q

what is alert 60

A

Condition 4: Aircrew shall be briefed and in contact with their ready rooms. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. Maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch in involved

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40
Q

minimum personnel required to move an aircraft

A

1 qualified aircraft director
1 qualified tractor driver
1 brake rider
2 plane handlers
2 wing safeties
1 tail safety

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41
Q

who wears yellow jerseys

A

aircraft directors
shooters
flight deck officer
aircraft handling officer

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42
Q

what divisions wear yellow shirts

A

V1/3

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43
Q

what is a yellow shirts job

A

direct all aircraft, taxi and towing. ensure safety for all personnel on the flight deck and hangar deck

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44
Q

what divisions wear blue jerseys

A

V1/3

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45
Q

what is a blue shirts job

A

Plane handlers – ensure all aircraft are chocked and chained properly

Tractor drivers – tow and service all aircraft on board

Elevator operators – raise and lower all elevators as needed

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46
Q

Who wears red jerseys

A

Crash/salvage, EOD, AO’s, and air department DC/3M division (V5)

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47
Q

Who wears green jerseys

A

V2

Catapult/arresting gear personnel, photographers, maintenance personnel, helicopter landing signal enlisted-man

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48
Q

what division works on all of the arresting gear wires and catapults

A

V2

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49
Q

who wears brown jerseys

A

plane captains

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50
Q

foul line

A

Alternating red/white line

The purpose of this marking is to identify the landing area

If this line is fouled during recovery DEATH may occur

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51
Q

JBD

A

Outlined by a yellow line (movable object)

Deflects all jet exhaust during launch operations

If a JBD is inoperative only the CO can authorize an aircraft to launch off that specific catapult

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52
Q

Elevators

A

alternating red/yellow

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53
Q

Stanchions

A

alternating red/yellow

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54
Q

Safe launch line (shot lines)

A

Catapults ½ (bow catapults) alternating red/white

Catapults ¾ (waist catapults) solid yellow. The waist shot lines are yellow so its does not get confused with the foul line

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55
Q

Ordinance elevator

A

alternating red and yellow

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56
Q

A bomb jettison ramp is a ramp designated to eliminate loose ordinance and is identified how?

A

Identified by yellow stripe painted up and over the deck edge at both ends of the ramp

The flight deck in front of the ramp opening is marked w/ alternating 4 inch wide red/yellow striped w/ a 12 inch black facsimile of a bomb centered

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57
Q

how is steam smothering identified

A

18 inch black stripe w/ a 3 inch white STEAM stenciled in the center of the stripe on wheel stop coaming

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58
Q

what are the 3 types of barricades

A

o Fixed wing barricade
o Propeller barricade
o Training barricade

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59
Q

What is a deck pendant/purchase cable used for

A

used to recover aircraft

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60
Q

what takes the initial impact upon arrestment

A

impact pad

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61
Q

what retracts all wires

A

retractable deck sheaves

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62
Q

what is used to launch all fixed wing aircraft

A

shuttle

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63
Q

what is used to deflect jet exhaust and protect personnel and equipment

A

JBD

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64
Q

what is a maintenance requirement used prior to launching of an aircraft

A

No-load

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65
Q

who under the Air Officer as the principal assistant ensures the ship is capable of meeting all mission requirements related to flight and hangar deck air operations ?

A

Aircraft handling officer

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66
Q

what is Support Equipment (SE)

A

used to service, test, and trouble shoot aircraft systems

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67
Q

What should personnel be aware of when working around aircraft? (DANGER)

A

Intake

Exhaust

Flight controls

Compressed gasses

Explosives hazmat

Eye, hearing, and industrial environmental dangers

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68
Q

How many categories of tie downs are there?

A

4

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69
Q

Initial tie down

A

Minimum of 6 chains

This condition of aircraft security exists immediately prior to aircraft movement from spot and immediately after aircraft is parked

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70
Q

intermediate tie down

A

9 chains required

This condition of aircraft security shall exist during flight quarters

Air craft that are not scheduled for launch on any given cyclic or CARQUALS events shall be on intermediate tie downs

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71
Q

Permanent tie down

A

14 chains required

Not at flight quarters and the aircraft is not expected to fly

All aircraft parked in the hangar bay will be on permanent tie downs

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72
Q

heavy weather tie down

A

20 chains required

Made at the determination of the aircraft handling officer

A maximum number of air craft shall be spotted on the hangar deck in such a manner to permit access to fire stations at all times

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73
Q

What tie down is required to refuel an aircraft?

A

initial

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74
Q

what is used to communicate on the flight deck

A

aircraft hand signals

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75
Q

What is the NATOPS hand signal manual

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-113

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76
Q

Who can authorize moving a “no brake” air craft

A

Aircraft handling officer

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77
Q

dimensions of an aircraft carrier hangar

A

110 ft wide
685 ft wide
25 ft over head clearance

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78
Q

what is the actual storage space of the hangar bay

A

1.4 acres

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79
Q

What determines the condition for defense of the US homeland and assets abroad?

A

THREATCON scale

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80
Q

What does the DEFCON scale determine?

A

the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war

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81
Q

where are hangar bay 1/2 ACE’s?

A

starboard side

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82
Q

where is hangar bay 3’s ACE’s

A

port and starboard sides

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83
Q

FPCON levels are based off what?

A

Terrorist threat level

The risk of terrorist attacks in which personnel and assets are exposed

The ability to penetrate existing physical security systems

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84
Q

How many defense readiness conditions are there?

A

5

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85
Q

What is deadly force?
(WORD FOR WORD)

A

deadly force is the force that is likely to cause, or that a persons knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm or injury

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86
Q

what are some circumstances for the use of deadly force

A

Self defense and the defense of other DOD personnel

Protecting assets vital to national security

Protecting inherently dangerous property

Protection national critical infrastructure

Performing an arrest or apprehension, and preventing escape

Defense against animals

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87
Q

What does NAMP stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

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88
Q

What is the objective of NAMP?

A

To achieve/continually improve aviation material readiness/safety standards established by the CNO and the COMNAVAIRFOR w/ coordination from the CMC, w/ optimum use of man power, material, facilities, funds

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89
Q

Who is in charge of NAMP?

A

CNO (LISAAAAA)

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90
Q

MMCO

A

Maintenance/Material Control Officer

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91
Q

MO

A

Maintenance Officer

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92
Q

AMO

A

Aircraft maintenance officer/assistant maintenance officer

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93
Q

MMCPO

A

Maintenance master chief petty officer

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94
Q

QAO

A

Quality Assurance Officer

95
Q

who ensures personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods

A

QAO

96
Q

MCO

A

material control officer

97
Q

what is an MCO

A

Supply corps officer assigned to a deployable squadron for handling of finances, material requisitions, etc

98
Q

What are the NAMP maintenance concepts?

A

O-level

I-level

D-level

99
Q

What is O-level maintenance

A

Maintenance which is performed by an operating unit (squadrons) on a day to day basis in support of its own operations

100
Q

What is I-level maintenance

A

Enhance/sustain the combat readiness/mission capability of supported activities (squadrons) by providing quality/timely material support at nearest location

101
Q

What is D-level maintenance

A

Performed at or by FRC sires to ensure continued flying integrity or airframes/flight systems during subsequent operational service periods

Performed on material requiring major overhaul/rebuilding of parts

102
Q

What are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP

A

Rework and Upkeep

103
Q

What is rework maintenance

A

Restorative/additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and support equipment at d-level FRC’s and other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs

104
Q

What is upkeep maintenance

A

Preventative, restorative, additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units

105
Q

How many types of upkeep maintenances/inspections are there?

A

7

106
Q

UPKEEP

-turnaround

A

24 hours and no flight occurs during this period. No maintenance other than servicing

107
Q

UPKEEP

-daily

A

conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than turnaround. Good for 72 hours w/o flight/major maintenance. Aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is required as long as it doesn’t surpass the 72 hour time limit

108
Q

UPKEEP

-special

A

scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily/phase intervals are specified in applicable PMS pubs and based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles/events

109
Q

UPKEEP

-conditional

A

conditional maintenance requirements are unscheduled events required as a result of specific over limit condition. Result of circumstances or events which create an admin requirement for an inspection

110
Q

UPKEEP

-phase

A

divides the total scheduled maintenance requirements into smaller packages. Done sequentially and at specified intervals

111
Q

UPKEEP

  • acceptance
A

performed at time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft/SE from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance.

112
Q

UPKEEP

-Transfer

A

performed at a time a reporting custodian transfers aircraft/SE

113
Q

What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance work load?

A

MMP (monthly maintenance plan)

Prepared and distributed at the 25th of each month at 0 level and the 1st of each month at the I level

114
Q

What is an aircraft log book

A

Record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, installed equipment

Record of rework, major repairs, flight and operational date maintenance directives affecting aircraft components and accessories

115
Q

How many sections can an aircraft log book be broken into?

A

14

116
Q

What are some examples of sections of the aircraft log book

A

Non-aging record

Flight time

Inspection record

Repair/rework

Technical directives

Miscellaneous history

Preservation and de preservation record

Installed explosive devices

Inventory record

Assembly service record

Equipment history record

Scheduled removal components cards (SRC’s)

Aviation life supper systems records

Aeronautical equipment service records (AESR’s)

117
Q

Who certifies that work involved has been personally inspected by them properly completed and is in accordance with current instruction ?

A

QAR
Quality assurance rep

118
Q

CDQAR

A

collateral duty quality assurance rep

119
Q

CDI

A

Collateral duty inspector

120
Q

Who inspects all work/complies with required QA inspections during all maintenance action performed by their respective work center

A

CDI

121
Q

What are some programs managed by NAMP?

A

NAMP compliance auditing

Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP)

Technical Data Management (Formerly known as central technical publications library (CTPL))

Maintenance Department Safety

SE Misuse/abuse reporting

Aircraft Confined Space Program

(O-Level) Vibration Analysis

122
Q

What are the three audits performed by QA

A

Special
Work center
Program audits

123
Q

Special audit

A

Evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures, and programs

Copies maintained for 1 year

124
Q

Work center audit

A

Conducted semi-annually to evaluate overall quality of performance of each work center, all areas are evaluated

125
Q

Program audits

A

Evaluate specific programs, provided systematic and coordinated method of identifying deficiencies

Audited annually at a minimum

126
Q

ACSP

A

Aircraft confined space program

127
Q

What is the objective of the ACSP?

A

to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on equipment fuel cells/tanks

128
Q

NAMDRP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program

129
Q

What was established in 1961 as a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps

A

NATOPS

130
Q

What does NATOPS stand for?

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

131
Q

When was the angled flight deck introduced?

A

1954

132
Q

What was the first standardization program and when was it initiated?

A

NAMP 1959

133
Q

What was the second standardization program and when was it initiated?

A

Fleet Replacement Squadron in 1961

134
Q

What is a manual designed to standardize procedures for operating aircraft?

A

NATOPS

135
Q

What are the most dangerous times for maintenance personnel with an aircraft?

A

engine start
operation
shut down

136
Q

Warning (NATOPS)

A

operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed/followed

137
Q

Caution (NATOPS)

A

operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed

138
Q

Note (NATOPS)

A

operating procedure, practice, condition that must be emphasized

139
Q

Shall (NATOPS)

A

procedure that is MANDATORY

140
Q

Should (NATOPS)

A

procedure that is RECOMMENDED

141
Q

May (NATOPS)

A

optional

142
Q

Will (NATOPS)

A

indicated futurity/never indicates any degree of requirement for application of procedure

143
Q

The visual identification marker is located on what part of the aircraft?

A

vertical stabilizer

144
Q

COMNAVAIRLANT (aircraft markings)

A

first character A-M, second character A-Z

145
Q

COMNAVAIRPAC (aircraft markings)

A

first character N-Z, Second character A-Z

146
Q

CNATRA (aircraft markings)

A

only character is A-G

147
Q

USS ABRAHAM LINCOLN Aircraft Marking

A

NG

148
Q

When was the first take off from a ship?

A

14NOV1910

149
Q

Who was the first pilot to take off from a ship?

A

Eugene Ely (civilian pilot)
Flew off of a wooden platform off of the deck of the USS Birmingham (CL2)

150
Q

The glen curtis biplane later became what?

A

A-1 Triad

The navy’s first aircraft

151
Q

Who was the first fatality of naval aviation and when did it happen?

A

ENS William D. Billingsley

20JUN1913

152
Q

What was the name of the former collier/coal carrier that eventually was converted to the Navy’s First Aircraft Carrier ?

A

The jupiter

153
Q

What was the navy’s first carrier and when was it commissioned?

A

USS Langley (CV-1)

20MAR1922

154
Q

What was the navy’s first jet and when did it make its first landing?

A

FJ-1 Fury

10MAR1948

Landed on the USS Boxer (CV-21)

155
Q

What are the dates for Coral Sea?

A

4MAY1942 - 8MAY1942

156
Q

What was the significance of the battle of coral sea?

A

Fought solely by air, the fleets didn’t see each other

The Lexington was sunk

The Yorktown was damaged

157
Q

What are the dates for the battle of midway?

A

3JUN1942 - 5JUN1942

158
Q

What was the significance of the battle of midway?

A

Turning point in the pacific theater

All four Japanese carriers were sunk

Admiral Nimitz positioned the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown out of Japanese range

159
Q

What are the dates for the battle of Guadalcanal?

A

13NOV1942 - 15NOV1942

160
Q

What was the significance of the battle of Guadalcanal?

A

Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers

USS Juneau was involved

The 5 Sullivan brother died
A ship was later named in their honor

161
Q

Newport News Ship Building was awarded the contract to build CVN 72 on

A

27DEC1982

162
Q

When was the lincolns keel laid?

A

3NOV1984

163
Q

Who was the first lincoln crew member and when did they report?

A

Master Chief Robert Wellcome

20JAN1987

164
Q

When was the lincoln christened and launched?

A

13FEB1988

165
Q

Who was the lincolns first CO?

A

CAPT William B. Hayden

166
Q

When was the lincoln commissioned?

A

11NOV1989

167
Q

When was the lincoln transferred to the pacific and where was it home ported>

A

September 1990

Naval Station Alameda, CA

168
Q

The Lincoln’s maiden WESTPAC deployment was for what?

A

Desert storm/desert shield

169
Q

When did the lincoln get deployed to the coast of somalia in support of operation restore hope?

A

october 1993

4 weeks air wing flew patrols over mogadishu

170
Q

When did combat exclusion laws get repealed?

A

april 1993

171
Q

Who was the first female f-14 pilot and when did she begin training?

A

LT Kara spears hultgreen

24OCT1994

172
Q

When did the lincoln report to its new homeport in everett, wa

A

8Jan1997

173
Q

From july 2002 to 2003 the lincoln was deployed for how many days in support of operation enduring freedom, southern watch, and iraqi freedom?

A

290 days

174
Q

After the tsunami in sumatra, how many days was the lincoln on station and how many pounds of relief were delivered?

A

33 days and 5.7 million pounds of humanitarian relief supplies

175
Q

When was the final line of the gettysburg address delivered and where was it delivered to?

A

19NOV1863

Dedication ceremony of the gettysburg national cemetary

176
Q

How many types of motion are there pertaining to flight and what are they?

A

3
Speed
Acceleration
Velocity

177
Q

What is acceleration?

A

Rate of change of speed and or velocity of matter with time

178
Q

What is speed?

A

rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time

179
Q

What is velocity

A

the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

180
Q

How many laws of motion are there?

A

3

181
Q

What is newtons first law of motion

A

Inertia

An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will stay in motion at the same speed and in the same direction until acted on by an outside force

182
Q

What is newtons second law of motion

A

Force

If an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved

183
Q

What is newtons third law of motion

A

Action/Reaction

for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

184
Q

What is lift?

A

Force that act in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air, it counteracts the effects of weight

Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained

185
Q

What is weight?

A

Force of gravity acting downward on an aircraft and everything on the aircraft

186
Q

What is drag?

A

Force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of air about the wings, fuselage, or body

Drag resists motion

187
Q

What is thrust?

A

Force developed by the aircrafts engine acts as in the forward direction

Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained

188
Q

What is longitudinal axis of the aircraft (roll) ?

A

Imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail

189
Q

What is the lateral axis (pitch) ?

A

imaginary reference lien running parallel to the wings

190
Q

What is the vertical axis?

A

imaginary reference line running from the tip to the bottom of the aircraft

191
Q

What controls the roll or longitudinal axis?

A

Ailerons

192
Q

What controls the pitch or lateral axis?

A

elevators

193
Q

What controls the yaw or vertical axis?

A

Rudder

194
Q

What controls the roll/pitch tilts the plane (angle) of the rotor blades forward, aft, or sideways giving helicopters its directional motion by changing the direction of the lift, from vertical to a varying degree based on a 0 degree centerline ?

A

Cyclic stick

195
Q

What is the yaw component counteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces, this movement is the vertical axis

A

tail rotor

196
Q

What are some non axis affecting flight controls?

A

Flap
Spoiler
Speed Brakes
Slats

197
Q

What is a flap?

A

(leading/trailing edge) creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift

It reduces take off runs and landing rollout

198
Q

What is a spoiler?

A

Used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces, creates a more predictable landing glidescope

199
Q

What are speed brakes?

A

Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft

200
Q

What are slats?

A

Moveable control surfaces attached to the landing edge of the wing

When open or extended forward a lot is created between the slat and wing leading edge

201
Q

What is the angle of attack?

A

Angle at which the fuselage meets the flow of air defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind

Measured in units as opposed to degrees

202
Q

What is autorotation?

A

WHERE THE PILOT HAS THE ROTORS SPIN THE OPPOSITE WAY

Method allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power

The collective is lowered allowing reverse airflow through the rotor to maintain RPM

203
Q

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

204
Q

What does NALCOMIS do?

A

Provides the capability to manage maintenance/supply functions and processes

205
Q

What does OOMA stand for?

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

206
Q

What does OIMA stand for?

A

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity

207
Q

What does OOMA track?

A

NMCS/PMCS status

Flyable discrepancies

Non-aircraft related discrepancies

ALSS Status

SE Status

Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status

208
Q

What are some responsibilities of Maintenance/production control?

A

o Monitor current aircraft/equipment status
o Tracks status of incomplete maintenance actions
o Sets work center priorities
o Report equipment configuration, material readiness, flight data
o Brief pilots/aircrew via QA/work center prior to functional check flight
o Review, update, and approve all work orders
o Reviews, approves, or rejects corrective actions
o When parts are required, assign projects/priority codes to requisitions

209
Q

What is a JCN?

A

a 9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection

210
Q

What is Type WO?

A

2 character code that describes the type of maintenance to be performed

211
Q

What is Accumulated Job Status History?

A

history if the WO from start to finish

212
Q

What are work hours?

A

To include workers name, tools used, the QA/CDI that inspected them and they hours they worked

213
Q

what is work center?

A

identifies the work center responsible to complete the maintenance action

214
Q

What is the Work Unit Code (WUC)

A

Numeric or alphanumeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction

215
Q

What are the different work order types?

A

o DM: discrepancy maintenance
o TS: trouble shooting
o CM: cannibalization maintenance
o AD: Assist maintenance
o FO: facilitate other maintenance
o CL: conditional look phase
o CF: conditional fix phase
o SX: special inspection one work center
o SC: special inspection control
o TD: technical directive

216
Q

What does OIMA do?

A

provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level

217
Q

What are some of the processes for OIMA?

A

 Engine/SE repair
 Material requisitions
 Repairable management
 AWP management
 Personnel assignment
 Sub-custody of equipment

218
Q

how many basic core capabilities of naval aviation are there?

A

6

219
Q

what are the basic core capabilities of naval aviation

A

forward presence
deterrence
sea control
power projection
maritime security
humanitarian assistance/disaster relief

220
Q

What is forward presence?

A

key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world

The deployable/expeditionary character of naval aviation distinguishes it as the centerpiece of core

221
Q

What is deterrence?

A

Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning

Possessing superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors

222
Q

What is sea control?

A

Protects the ability to operate freely at sea and enable joint operations

Surveillance  detection  attack of costal, surface, subsurface platforms are readily executed

223
Q

What is maritime security?

A

Maintenance of security at sea and mitigation of threats short of war

Combating terrorism, piracy, drug trafficking and other threats to enhance global stability

224
Q

What is humanitarian relief?

A

A human obligation and a foundation of human character

Majority of the worlds population lives within a few hundred miles of the ocean, meaning that access is best achieved by maritime forces

225
Q

What does HSC stand for and what do they do?

A

Helicopter sea combat

Units perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, SAR missions

226
Q

What does HSM stand for and what do they do?

A

Helicopter Maritime Strike

Primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare secondary roles are logistics and rescue

227
Q

What does VAQ stand for and what do they do?

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare

Fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppress, degrade, and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems

228
Q

What does VAW stand for and what do they do?

A

Carrier Airborne early warning

Fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft

229
Q

What does VQ stand for and what do they do?

A

Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy

229
Q

What does VFA stand for and what do they do?

A

Strike Fighter

Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions

230
Q

What does VRC stand for and what do they do?

A

Aircraft Logistics Support

Fixed wing squadrons for transport of personnel and supplies

231
Q

What does VT stand for and what do they do?

A

Training

fixed wing squadrons that provide basic/advanced training

232
Q

What does VX/VXE stand for and what do they do?

A

Air Test and Evaluation

Fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate operational capabilities of new aircraft/equipment is an operational environment

They develop tactics and doctrines for their most effective use

AIR WARFARE PHASE 1 (1 decks)

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