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Embryology > Pharyngeal Apparatus > Flashcards

Pharyngeal Apparatus Flashcards

1
Q

What artery is associated with the 1st PA?

A

Maxillary

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2
Q

What artery is associated with the 2nd PA?

A

Hyoid and stapedial aa.

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3
Q

What artery is associated with the 3rd PA?

A

Carotids (commmon, internal, etc.)

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4
Q

What artery is associated with the 4th PA?

A

Arch of aorta, right subclavian, sprout of pumonary aa.

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5
Q

What artery is associated with the 6th PA?

A

Ductus arteriosus

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6
Q

What is the apparatus origin (include arch) of the mandible?

A

Meckel’s cartilage from the 1st arch

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7
Q

Give the PA# and adult skeletal derivates of cartilage from the maxillary process (4).

A

1st PA – Premaxilla, maxilla, zygomatic bone, and part of temporal bone (intramembranous ossification).

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8
Q

Give the PA# and adult skeletal derivates of cartilage from the mandibular process, aka ______ cartilage (3).

A

1st PA – Meckel’s cartilage: Malleus and incus, mandible.

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9
Q

Give the adult muscular derivate(s) of 1st PA mesoderm (8)

A

Muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, M and L pterygoids), ant. belly of digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, tensor palatini.

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10
Q

Give the adult muscular derivate(s) of 2nd PA mesoderm (5)

A

Stapedius, stylohyoid, post. belly of digastric, auricular muscle, and muscles of facial expression.

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11
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 2nd PA cartilage (5), aka _______ cartilage.

A

Stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser horn and upper body of hyoid.
aka Reichert’s cartilage –From 2nd/hyoid arch

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12
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 3rd arch cartilage (2)

A

Lower part and greater horn of hyoid

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13
Q

Give the adult muscular derivate of 3rd PA mesoderm (1)

A

stylopharyngeus

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14
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 4th and 6th PA cartilage (5)

A

Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform (laryngeal cartilages).

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15
Q

Give the adult muscular derivate(s) and their individual nerves of 4th and 6th PA mesoderm (separately) —> 4th: (3), 6th: (1).

A

4th: Cricothyroid, levator PALATINE, pharyngeal constrictors —> Superior laryngeal n. (CN X).
6th: Intrinsic laryngeal muscles —> Recurrent laryngeal n. (CN X).

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16
Q

What are the CNs associated with the PAs?

A

1: V2 and V3
2: Facial CN VII
3: Glossopharyngeal (IX)
4: Vagus –Superior laryngeal
6: Vagus Recurrent laryngeal

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17
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 1st PP (2)

A

Tympanic (middle ear) cavity, Auditory (eustachian) tube

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18
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 2nd PP (2)

A

Palatine tonsils, tonsillar fossa

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19
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 3rd PP (2)

A

Inferior parathyroid, Thymus

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20
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 4th PP (2)

A

Superior parathyroid, ultimobranchial bodies (parafollicular “C” cells of thyroid gland).

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21
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 1st PC (1)

A

Penetrates underlying mesenchyme and gives rise to EXTERNAL AUDITORY MEATUS

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22
Q

Give the adult derivate(s) of 2nd PC

A

2nd merges with 3rd and 4th and forms an ectoderm-lined cavity — The CERVICAL SINUS, which is later obliterated.
PC 2, 3, and 4 have NO ADULT DERIVATIVES

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23
Q
  1. ) What three components fuse to form the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
  2. ) Give the sensory and taste innervation for the anterior 2/3 and its arch.
A

1.) Two lateral lingual swellings, and the tuberculum impar.
2.) Sensory –CN V3 trigeminal, lingual branch (1st arch).
Taste –CN VII facial, chorda tympani (2nd arch).

24
Q
  1. ) What components comprise the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
  2. ) Give its sensory and taste innervation and its arch.
A
  1. ) Develops from the COPULA (hypobranchial emience, 2nd arch), and the hypopharyngeal eminence (3rd/4th arch) which overgrows the 2nd arch components, thus giving it 3rd arch innervation…
  2. ) Glossopharyngeal for both.
25
Q

What two structures does the hypobranchial eminence (copula) become, and what is its arch?

A

Posterior 1/3 of tongue and epiglottis.

26
Q

What arch does the epithelium covering the posterior-most portion of the tongue come from, and what is its innervation?

A

4th arch –Superior laryngeal n., branch of VAGUS (CN X).

27
Q
  1. ) Which lingual papillae appear first? What is their innervation?
  2. ) Which are next? innervation?
A
  1. ) Vallate and foliate (CN IX)

2. ) Fungiform (chorda tympani, CN VII)

28
Q

Which lingual papillae are last to develop and when? Innervation?

A

Filiform:10-11 wks. Sensory, touch –CN V for anterior 2/3, CN IX for posterior 1/3.

29
Q

When do taste buds first appear?

A

11-13 wks.

30
Q

All tongue muscles are innervated by what nerve?

A

CN XII *except for palatoglossus m. —> CN X

31
Q

When are all salivary glands secreting by?

A

18 weeks

32
Q

Give the tissue origin for all three salivary glands and when they begin forming

A

Parotid (6th week): oral ectoderm.

Submand. (late 6th wk) and Sublingual (8th wk): Endoderm.

33
Q

CT of all salivary glands is of what origin?

A

Neural crest

34
Q
  1. ) From where and what tissue origin does the thyroid gland appear?
  2. ) What indicates its point of origin later on in development?
  3. ) Describe its descent into the neck
  4. ) At its final location by which week?
A
  1. ) Appears as an endodermal proliferation in the floor of the pharynx.
  2. ) Foramen cecum.
  3. ) Thyroid descends ventral to the neck, connected to the tongue by the THYROGLOSSAL DUCT, which later disappears.
  4. ) 7th week
35
Q
  1. ) What is the embryologic etiology of a midline cyst in the neck? Where are most present?
  2. ) Contrast this with a lateral cyst (embryologic origin and etiology).
A
  1. ) Thyroglossal cyst = midline; remnant of the thyroglossal duct. Usually present in front of the hyoid bone.
  2. ) Lateral cyst = remnant of the cervical sinus, an embryologic intermediate of the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th pharyngeal clefts.
36
Q

What is the fate of the pharyngeal clefts?

A

1st becomes the external auditory meatus. 2nd, 3rd, and 4th become the cervical sinus, which is later obliterated.

37
Q

What is the cause of a branchial fistula?

A

Occurs when the 2nd pharyngeal arch fails to grow caudally, and the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th clefts communicate with the surface by a narrow canal – on lateral neck directly anterior to SCM.

38
Q

When does the face being to develop? What are the first three things and from where?

A 
4th week —> Three swellings: 1.) Frontonasal prominence (from where?). 2-3.) Maxillary and mandibular prominences (1st arch) separated by nasal pit. 
#25 lobo
39
Q

What is the upper lip composed of and what is the origin? What do they become?

A

Two maxillary prominences (1st PA) grow medially and compress two medial nasal prominences (frontonasal prominence origin – NOT 1st PA) toward the midline and fuse with it, forming the upper lip. Thus, the medial nasal prominences form the philtrum, and the two maxillary nasal prominences form the lateral aspects of the upper lip.

40
Q

What is the adult remnant of the thyroglossal duct?

A

Foramen cecum: The proximal opening of the thyroglossal duct persists as a small blind pit.

41
Q
  1. ) What is the tissue origin of the lacrimal sac?

2. ) How does is form?

A

1.) Frontonasal process ectoderm.
2.) Begins as nasolacrimal groove separating maxillary and lateral nasal prominences. Its ectoderm detaches to form a solid cord which canalizes to form the nasolacrimal duct – the upper end of which widens to form the lacrimal sac.
#27 lobo

42
Q

What five prominences give rise to the nose? Tissue origin?

A

Frontal prominence forms the bridge.
Merged medial prominences (x2) form the crest and tip.
Lateral nasal prominences (x2) form the sides (alae).
*All are frontonasal prominence in origin, which is NOT 1st PA, it is neuroectoderm????

43
Q

What causes am oblique facial cleft?

A

Maxillary prominence failing to merge with corresponding lateral nasal prominence.

44
Q

When does the palate begin and end development?

A

6th wk, completed 12th wk (p.122)

45
Q
  1. ) What is the precursor to the primary palate? What is another name for 1˚ palate?
  2. ) Where is it in relation to incisive foramen?
  3. ) What part of the lip did these precursors give rise to?
A
  1. ) Develops from intermaxillary segment (medial nasal process – from frontonasal prominence) of the maxilla. Also called MEDIAN PALATINE PROCESS.
  2. ) Anterior to incisive foramen
  3. ) Philtrum
    p. 122
46
Q
  1. ) What is the precursor to most of the hard and soft palate? give its origin and names (2).
  2. ) Where is it in relation to the incisive foramen?
A
  1. ) 2˚ palate —> Forms from two mesenchymal projections from the MAXILLARY PROMINENCES, initially called the lateral palatal processes, i.e. PALATAL SHELVES.
  2. ) Posterior to incisive foramen –forms most of adult hard palate.
    p. 122
47
Q

What embryologic process does the 2˚ palate represent?

A 
Medially fused palatine shelves
#30 lobo
48
Q

What fuses and where to form the DEFINITIVE PALATE?

A 
1˚ and 2˚palate fuse at the INCISIVE FORAMEN to form the definitive palate. 
#31 lobo
49
Q

What causes a cleft lip?

A 
Intermaxillary segment, aka medial nasal process/prominence, failing to fuse with the maxillary process either on ONE SIDE (unilateral cleft lip), or BOTH SIDES (bilateral cleft lip). 
#32
50
Q

What is the cause of a posterior cleft palate? Which adult palate(s)/structures does the defect include (3)?

A

Failure of the palatine shelves, aka lateral palatine prominences, to fuse in the midline/migrate medially. Includes hard and soft palate (only 2˚), and uvula.

51
Q

What is the cause of an anterior cleft palate? Which adult palate(s)/structures does the defect include (3)?

A

Failure (partial or complete) of the maxillary prominence to fuse with the medial nasal prominence on one or both sides. Includes lateral cleft lip, cleft upper jaw, and cleft between 1˚ and 2˚ palates.

52
Q
  1. ) What forms the nasal septum?

2. ) How does this contribute to the 1˚ palate and, later, the pre-maxillary part of the maxilla?

A
  1. ) Downward growth from internal parts of the merged MEDIAL NASAL PROMINENCES.
  2. ) It (nasal septum) fuses with the palatal processes anterior to posterior (completed by 12th week).
    p. 127
53
Q

What defect(s) causes a complete cleft palate (clefts of anterior and posterior parts of palate and lip)?

A

Failure of the lateral palatine processes to meet and fuse with the 1˚ palate, with one another, and with the NASAL SEPTUM.
p.124

54
Q

What causes median cleft lip?

A 
Incomplete merging of the two medial nasal prominences. 
#34 lobo
55
Q
  1. ) What is DiGeorge Syndrome?
  2. ) What characterizes it (3)?
  3. ) What PAs involved?
A
  1. ) Infants born without thymus and parathyroid glands.
  2. ) Characterized by congenital hypoparathyroidism, anomalies of the mouth and heart (shortened e.g. philtrum, nasal clefts, heart defects).
  3. ) 3rd and 4th (thymus/parathyroid), and 1st (facial anomalies).
    p. 113
56
Q

What is 1st arch syndrome, its causes/origins (and timing), and describe its TWO main manifestations and their characteristics? (Treacher –three, Pierre – 5).

A

Abnormal 1st arch development resulting in anomalies of the eyes, ears, mandible, and palate. Caused by insufficient migration of neural crest cells into the 1st arch during the 4th week.

  1. ) Treacher Collins syndrome: Underdevelopment of facial zygomatic bones (malar hypoplasia). Characterized by down-slanting palpebral fissures (eyelids), defects in lower eyelids, deformed ears (external, sometimes middle and inner).
  2. ) Pierre Robin syndrome: Hypoplaisa of mandible, cleft palate, and defects of eyes and ears. Results in posterior displacement of the tongue, preventing full closure of the palatine processes = BILATERAL CLEFT PALATE.
    p. 111

Embryology (5 decks)

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