Pharmokinetics and Pharmodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the clearance rate?

A

VD X Kel OR (0.693 X Vd) / (T 1/2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the elimination rate?

A

Kel= Cl/Vd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Half-life eqn?

A

(0.693 X Vd)/ Cl = 0.693/Kel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Css eqn?

A

Css=F x D / (Cl x dose interval)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is dosing rate eqn?

A

Css X Cl/ F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maintenance dose?

A

(dosing rate/ F) x dosing interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the loading dose eqn?

A

Css x Vd/ F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kind of drugs can pass through lipid membranes?

A

unionized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If pH is less than pKa then (blank) forms predominate

A

protonated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When pH is greater than pKa the (blank) forms predominate

A

deprotonated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When pH=Pka then what does that mean?

A

HA=A- and BH+=B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When you give a drug where does it go first?

A

brain, heart, liver and kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WHen you give a drug where does it stay the longest?

A

adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When you give a drug, where will it be most concentrated between 15-30 minutes?

A

skeletal muscle and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the volume of distribution?

A

the amount of drug that is no longer in the serum (i.e. you can only check the serum where you put the drug in so if there is less drug in there then it has clearly been distributed in the tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you calculate the volume of distribution?

A

Vd= Dose/ (concentration in the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the central volume of your blood?

A

5.5 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Central volume?

A

Vc=dose/peak serum level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is knowing the central volume helpful?

A

because it tells us the distribution of drug to non-vascular compartments and about the elimination that may occur before a sample can be taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is often referred to as the central compartment?

A

the Vc of your blood (5.5L) when given IV drug admin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does drug get retains in the central compartment?

A

via proten binding an partitioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does high protein binding mean the drug will be less available?

A

not necessarily because the binding is reversible, it is low affinity but high capacity binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when drugs bind to RBCs is this reversible?

A

no so it will affect pharmokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is peripheral volume?

A

sum of all the spaces outside the central compartment in which the drug distributes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drugs taken (blank) or (blank) will first move into the central volume before distributing to the periphera compartment

A

orally

administered IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Peripheral volume plus central volume = ?

A

apparent volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If you double your volume of distribution what will happen?

A

your t 1/2 will increase and your concentration in the plasma will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the peripheral volume?

A

the sum of all the spaces outside the central compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What organ metabolizes drugs?

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the transporters on hepatocytes?

A

ABC, NTCP, OAT, OATP, OCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

On hepatocytes is an OATP receptor which many drugs can bind to. Name 3 common types

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins), ACE-inhibitors, and chemotherapeutics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Several members of the OATP superfamily are expressed in the human liver including …..?

A

OATP1B1
OATP1B3
OATP2B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which one of the OATP superfamily receptors is only found on the liver?

A

OATP1B1

OATP2B1 and OATP1B3 have been detected in several tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which one of the OATP superfamily receptors is only found in brain, intestine, placenta, heart and platelets

A

OATP2B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which one of the OATP superfamily receptors is only found in the placenta stomach, colon and prostate?

A

OATP1B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Soooo… what two subfamily transporters are of particular importance for hepatic drug disposition?

A

OATP2B1

OATP1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a potent inhibitor of OATP2B1 and OATP1B1?

A

cyclosporin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What besides an inhibitor of OATP2B1 and OATP1B1 is cyclosporin A?

A

It is a substrate of CYP3A4 and functions as a competitive inhibitor thus resulting in increased levels of CYP3A4 substrates in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(blank) interacts with ABCB1 and ABCC2

A

cyclosporin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The ABC efflux pumps expressed in the (blank) of hepatocytes influence biliary elimination of substrate drugs.

A

canalicular membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens if your ABC transporters on your hepatocytes are inhibited?

A

you will get increased heptaocellular accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inhibition of intestinal ABCB1 or ABCC2- mediated drug efflux may lead to (blank)

A

enhanced intestinal absorption of co-admin drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

(blank) has a narrow therapeutic window

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

(blank) has a narrow therapeutic window and lots of drug interactions

A

digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What 2 transporters does cyclosporine (cicloral) inhibit the substrates of?

A

OATP

BCRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

(blank) is a substrate of OATP1B1/1B3 and BCRP. Cyclosporin (increases/decreases) exposure 4.6 fold

A

Pitavastatin

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

(blank) is inhibited by other OATP or BCRP inhibitors.

A

Rosuvastatin (crestor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

(blank) increases rosuvastatin exposure 2 fold.

A

Lopinair/ritonavir (kaletra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lopinavir/ritonavir are inhibitors of (blank).

A

OATP1B1/1B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the phases of metabolism in the liver?

A

phase 1 “oxygenases”

phase 2 “transferases”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the oxygenases in the liver?

A

cyctochrome P450

Flavin-containing monooxygenases (mEH, sEH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the transferases in the liver?

A
Sulfotransferase
UDP-glucuronosyltransferases (UGT)
Glutathione-S-transferases (GST)
N-acetyltransferases (NAT)
Methyltransferases (MT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does this:

C and O oxidation, dealkylation, others

A

Cyctochrome P450s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does this:

N, S, and P oxidation

A

Flavin-containing monooxygenase (FMO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does this:

Hydrolysis of epoxides

A

Epoxide hydrolases (mEH, sEH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does this:

addition of sulfate

A

Sulfotransferases (SULT)

57
Q

What does this:

addition of glucuronic acid

A

UDP-glucuronyosyltransferase

58
Q

What does this:

addition of acetyl group

A

n-acetyltrasnferases (NAT)

59
Q

What does this:

addition of a methyl group

A

methyltransferases (MT)

60
Q

What reduces alcohol in the liver?
What reduces aldehyde in the liver?
what reduces quinones in the liver?

A

alcohol dehydrogenase
aldehye dehydrogenase
NADPH quinone oxioreductase (NQO)

61
Q

What is this

~57 genes, 18 families, 43 subfamilies

A

CYPs

62
Q

Which CYP families are responsible for drug metabolism? are the rates of metabolism fast or slow?

A

1 2 3

slow

63
Q

Competition among drugs for CYPs leads to (blank)

A

adverse drug reaction and Drug/drug interacions

64
Q

polymorphisms (SNP) and differing expression levels explain individual differences in (blank)

A

drug clearance

65
Q

What do the numbers and letters after CYP stand for?

A
ex. CYP2D6
2=family
D= sub-family
6= specific gene
\+++++note++++
nomenclature is genetically based NOT FUNCTIONALLY
66
Q

Which CYP has the most SNPs? Does this metabolize a large number of drugs?

A

CYP2D6

yes

67
Q

Which CYP can metabolize the most drugs? How many clinically relavent SNPs of this have been found?

A

CYP3A4

46

68
Q

When you have 2 copies f the CYP2D gene are you going to be a slow or fast metabolizer?

A

super fast

69
Q

WHy is it important to understand SNPS and CYPs

A

because different SNPs make different CYPs fast or slow metabolizers which means some drugs wil be excreted quickly without ever reaching a therapeutic level and some drugs may just stay in your body and be slowly excreted reaching dangerous levels

70
Q

Why dont you absorb a lot of drug in the stomach?

A

because the surface area is small

71
Q

WHere do you absorb most of the drug?

A

small intestine

72
Q

What is first pass?

A

its when you swallow a drug and then it goes to your GI tract where you excrete 80% and absorb only 20% that is first pass;
Ex. you swallow a 1000mg tablet, then you en up with 200 mg at first pass

73
Q

Clearance is the same thing as (blank)

A

elimination

74
Q

Most drugs are eliminated in a (blank) order elimination process. Why is this important

A

first

the amount of drug eliminated per unit time is directionally proportional to the drug concentration

75
Q

What do you want to reach in chronic therapy?

A

steady state

the amount going in is replacing the exact amount that is being excreted (Css)

76
Q

Drugs are cleared primarily by the (blank) and (Blank)

A

liver and kidneys

77
Q

Excretion into the (blank) is a major route of elimination for metabolites as well as unchanged drug.

A

urine

78
Q

with (blank) elimination, the amount of drug eliminated is directly proportional to the serum drug concentration

A

first order

79
Q

In first order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated changes but the fraction of a drug eliminated remains (blank)!!

A

constant!!!!

80
Q

What does Kel represent?

A

fraction of drug eliminated per unit of time (remember this stays constant)

81
Q

What is zero order elimination?

A

elimination of a constant quantity per unit time (rather than constant fraction like first order)

82
Q

Most drugs are eliminated by first order elimination because the (blank) for elimination is not reached. In this case, the rate of elimination is directly proprotional to the concentrion of drug in the blood stream.

A

Km (substrate level at half the max rate of metabolism)

83
Q

Some drugs such as alcohol exhibit (blank) elimination because the amout of drug exceeds the elimination rate constant

A

zero order

84
Q

For a first order reaction what will a serum level curve look like?
For a first order reaction, what will a log scale of a serum level curve look like?

A

non linear

linear

85
Q

What is the eqn for clearance?

A

Cl=Dose/AUC

Cl=(Rate of elimination)/ (Cp)

86
Q

Do clearance rates change in a given patient?

A

no because elimination is not saturated in drugs used clinically

87
Q

When we talk about clearance what are we talking about?

When we talk about overall clearance what are we talking about?

A

clearance from plasma

clearance rates of drugs from each tissue combined

88
Q

What is the equation for elimination rate?

A

Cl X Cp

89
Q

If you have a graph of concentration and time and you make a clearance curve out of it, it is not linear, how do you make it linear? What does this give you?

A

you measure the slow of the curve at by dividing concentration by time and plot that and you get a straight line
elimination rate constant

90
Q

What wil Kel X Cp tell us?

A

how much drug is left

91
Q

What eqn do you use to figure out the relationship between blood level and Kel?

A

slope= (ln Cp (2) - ln CP (1) )/ (t2-t1)

92
Q

What eqn can you use to predict the time it takes to reach a specific serum level for our patient?

A

slope= (ln Cp (2) - ln CP (1) )/ (t2-t1)

just rearrange it for time

93
Q

WHy would you want to know the time it takes to reach a specific serum level in a patient

A

so you can predict tau which is the ideal dosing interval.

tau=ln (Peak/trough)/ Kel

94
Q

A critical parameter that relates to the rate of drug elimination is (blank). This is the time it taks for the concentration of drug in the plasma to fall by half.

A

half-life (T 1/2)

95
Q

(blank) and (blank) reflect the same process, how quickly a drug is removed, and therefore, how often a dose has to be administered

A

T1/2 and Kel

96
Q

What is the relationship between T1/2 and Kel?

A

T1/2=0.693/ Kel

97
Q

Can you know the Vd or Cl of a drug base soley on its halflife?

A

nope you need both to find the Kel which will help you find the half life
(Kel= Cl/Vd)

98
Q

(blank) are mathematical schemes that represent complex physiological spaces or process (important for determination of Kel)

A

pharmacokinetics

99
Q

What are the 2 most commonly used pharmacokinetic models?

A

comparment 1

compartment 2

100
Q

What is the one compartmental model?

A

Drug goes to central compartmetn before going to peripheral. Drug equilibrituates quickly within tissues and you use Vd to determine drug distribution

101
Q

What is the two comparment model?

A

when you have slow equilibration within peripheral tissues-> have biphasic line (first slope is distribution to peripheral tissues, second slope is first order elimination)

102
Q

Which is more unpredicatble, one compartment or 2?

A

2 because it doesnt obey linear kinetics

103
Q

If you are looking at a drug concentration vs time graph, what is presented linearly a zero order or first order elimination?

A

zero order, first order is nonlinear

104
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

to enhance the pnts chance of max benefit from a prescribed drug while minimizing the risks of toxicity

105
Q
Characteristics of drugs associated with a need for therapeutic drug monitoring are:
Digoxin.. why?
Phenytoin... WHy?
Warfarin...why?
Lithium.... why?
A

narrow therapeutic range
unpredicatble dose/response relationship
signif consequences from toxicity
correlation between CSS and efficacy or toxicity

106
Q

What is this:
As successive doses are administered, drug begins to accumulate in the body. With first order elimination, at a certain point in therapy, the amount of drug administered during a dosing interval exactly replaces the amount of drug excreted (rate in = rate out).

A

steady state

107
Q

When this equilibrium occurs, the peak and trough drug concentrations are the same for each additional dose given. When peak and trough concentrations are the same with (blank) or more successive doses, steady-state is reached.

A

two or more

108
Q

The time required to reach steady-state is approximately (blank) to (blank) half-lives.

A

4 to 5

109
Q

The length of IV infusion will have a signif effect upon the (blank)

A

peak serum level

110
Q

T or F, if we administer the same dose to the same patient at different rates, the peak levels will differ

A

T

111
Q

If you infuse longer what will happen to your peak level?

A

it will decrease weirdly

112
Q

How can you get a change in your half life?

A

rapid metabolization or liver damage, age

113
Q

Impairment of (blank) will have a significant impact on the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs excreted renally.

A

kidney function

114
Q

if you have excess creatine in your SERUM what does this tell us?

A

that you have renal function problems

115
Q

In kidney disease, what all is impaired?

A

filtration, secretion, and reabsorption

116
Q

(blank) is primarily filtered, NOT secreted or reabsorbed from the kidney. THerefore it can readily be used as an estimate of gomerular filtration rate.

A

creatinine

117
Q

(blank) can be used as an overal estimate of renal function (since if filtration is impaired, then you know secretion and absorption will be equally impaired)

A

creatinine clearance

118
Q

What is the y intercept (Knr) of Kel and CLcr graph?

A

it is the non-renal elimination rate i.e elimination rate when you have no renal function

119
Q

What is the relationship between Ke and Clcr (creatinine clearance)?

A

linear

120
Q

What is the calculated Kel for a particular drug and patient?

A

Kel=Knr + (B x CLcr)

121
Q

If you have liver disfunction what can happen to your CLcr?

A

you CLcr can be OVerpridicted (so dont use equation with people with liver disease)

122
Q

If you have a patient who is emaciated what can happen to your CLcr?

A

low serum creatinine secondary to decreased muscles mass, resulting in a signif over prediction of CLcr

123
Q

If you have a patient who is elderly, what can happen to your CLcr?

A

They may have low serum creatinine concentrations secondary to decreased muscle mass, leading to a possible over predicition of CLcr

124
Q

If you have a patient with unstable renal function, what can happen to your CLcr?

A

PK consult correcting for rising serum creatinine, may be more accurate in these patients

125
Q

How do you estimate CLcr for males?

A

Wt(140-age) / (SCr X 72)
SCr= most recent serum creatinine
Wt=weight

126
Q

How do you estimate CLcr for females?

A

85% of male value

127
Q

What method for calculating CLcr is more accurate for patients with unstable renal function?

A

Jelliffe method:

128
Q

What is an MIC?

A

the minimum concentration of drug that inhibits the growth of a microorganism

129
Q

What happens when you are above the MIC?

A

you have time-dependent killing and minimal to moderate persistent effects

130
Q

Even if you fall below tht MIC can you still have effects of the drug?

A

yes, this is called time-dependent killing

131
Q

What if you have peak effects above MIC what kind of killing will you get?

A

concentration-dependent killing and prolonged or persistent effects

132
Q

B-lactams have a kill rate that is (blank) as long as the concentration is above the MIC. WHat does this mean?

A

concentration-independent

This means these agent have no signif post-antibiotic effects.

133
Q

What is Post antibiotic effect (PAE)?

A

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth following antibiotic exposure

134
Q

So how should you use beta-lactams?

A

you should give small doses frequently OR give continuous IV infusion of Beta lactams

135
Q

What is vancomysin and why do you use it?

A

it is an antibiotic used against methicillin-resistant staph or for penicillin allergic patients OR patients who have failed to respond to penicillin or cephalosporin.

136
Q

What four drugs have a kill rate that is concentration-independent as long as the concentration is above the MIC?

A

vancomycin, carbapenems, macrolides, and clindamycin

137
Q

vancomycin, carbapenems, macrolides, and clindamycin have an (blank) post-antibiotic effect, therefore serum levels may be allowed to drop below the MIC for a short period of time.

A

intermediate

138
Q

How should you deal with vancomycin, carbapenems, macrolides, and clindamycin

A

maximize exposure time durin which the plasma concentration exceeds MIC. THis may be achieved by givng smaller doses more frequently.