Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MODA > Pharmicokinetics > Flashcards

Pharmicokinetics Flashcards

0
Q

What are the disadvantages of IV injection?

A 
Irreversible
Skill require to administer
Infusion require apparatus
Inconvenient for the patient
Risk of infection/embolism
High initial conc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the advantages of IV injection?

A

Speed
Control
Accuracy (helpful for drugs with a narrow therapeutic window)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What determines the rate of absorption of intramuscular and subcutaneous injections?

A

Local concentration and blood flow

Also if the drug precipitates then the local conc remains constant as long as solid remains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the advantages of subcutaneous injection?

A

Slow prolonged, constant absorption (in effect an infusion)
Long term administration
Certainty that drug is taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the disadvantages of subcutaneous injection?

A

Rate of entry into general circulation can be inconsistent and unpredictable

Can be painful

If precipitates can be slowly absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the rate of transdermal absorption determined by?

A

The lipid/water partition coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the advantages of transdermal administration?

A

Avoids first pass metabolism in the liver

Can give steady state absorption for long periods of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

The term used to describe the fact that many drugs absorbed by the stomach will pass through the liver and eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of administration sublingually/buccally?

A

Adv
Rapid onset
Avoids first pass metabolism

Dis
Taste
Accumulation of saliva
Small surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of oral administration of a drug?

A

Adv
Self administration
Cheap
Effects can be spread over a long period of time

Dis
Slow
Variable
Digestion
Vomitting/diarrhoea
First pass effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What affects the rate of absorption of drugs across gut epithelium?

A

Low degree of ionisation
High lipid/water partition coefficient (of non ionised form)
Small atomic or molecular radius of water soluble substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What determines the degree of ionisation of a drug?

A

The pH of the environment and the pKa value of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of drugs are absorbed well in the stomach?

A

Acids, whereas weak bases can trapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of drugs are absorbed well in the small intestine?

A

Bases are absorbed well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can cause low bioavailability of a drug?

A

High degree of ionisation
Digestion
Metabolism
First-pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can cause variability in bioavailability?

A

Vomiting and diarrhoea

Food in gut can slow transit time to the intestine and can impair absorption

High fat meals can increase the rate of absorption with poor water solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the main areas a drug can distribute within?

A 
Blood
ECF
ICF
Fat
Other (CSF, peritoneum, sivonial fluid and fetus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the equation that gives total plasma concentration?

A

C = C(free) + C (bound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What protein do most neutral and weakly acidic drugs bind to in the blood? Why?

A

Albumin

Each drug has multiple binding site and makes up 50% of total plasma conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which protein do most weak bases bind to?

A

α2-acid-glycoprotein

Each molecule has a single high affinity site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the important consequences of drug binding to plasma protein?

A

Increases the amount of drug that can be transported in the blood

Only free drug can cross capillary walls so binding to plasma protein affects the rate at which drug enters interstitial fluid

Binding affects rate at which drug is eliminated

Percentage bound can change in presence of other drugs (could result in toxic levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the volumes of different bodily compartments?

A

Total - 42L
/ \
Extracellular - 14L Intracellular - 28L
/ \
Plasma - 3L Interstitial - 11L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the formula for the volume of distribution?

A

Vd = Total amount of drug in the body / plasma conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does binding affect the apparent volume of distribution?

A

High degree of protein bound = Vd is lower than actual volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does sequestration of drug in fat deposits affect the apparent volume of distribution?

A

Binding/sequestration can reduce plasma conc = High Vd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the was in which drugs can pass through capillary walls?

A

Tight junctions form pores = drugs of less the 30 angstrums can cross rapidly

Large drugs can move by transcytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can drugs bypass the BBB if they aren’t lipid soluble? When is this used?

A

Intrathecal administration, directly into the CSF allows administration of drugs to the meningeal surfaces of the brain?

Used to treat infectious meningitis and CNS leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do P-glycoproteins do? What is their role?

A

Actively transport drugs out of cells

Play an important role in excreting toxic substances from cells in order to prevent build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How are drugs removed from their site of action?

A

Metabolism
Excretion
Storage (in fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What enzymes are involved in the inactivation of drugs? Which is the most common?

A

CYP enzymes in hepatocytes and in the wall of the intestines

Cytochrome P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the common features of CYP enzymes?

A

Low substrate specificity

High solubility in lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What kind of reactions does cytochrome P450 catalyse?

A

Phase 1 reactions:

  • Oxidation
  • Hydrolysis
  • Hydroxylation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the Phase II reactions involved in drug metabolism? What is the role of these reactions?

A

The attachment of a chemical group

These chemical groups make the molecule more polar and this more excretable via the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What class of enzyme catalyse Phase II reactions in drug metabolism?

A

Transferases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the process of aspirin metabolism in the liver?

A

Aspirin -> Salicyclic acid -> Excreted

Pro-drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the metabolic pathway of diazepam?

A

Diazepam (active)
N-demethylation
Desmethyldiazepam (active)
Aliphatic hydroxylation
Oxazepam (active)
Glucuronide conjugation
Oxazepam glucuronide (inactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are phase II conjugations often followed by?

A

Secretion of modified drug into bile by relatively non-specific transporters (including P-glycoprotein)

37
Q

What are examples of drugs that can enter the enterohepatic circulation?

A

Digitoxin and diethylstiboestrol

38
Q

What is the single most important source of variability in drug response? What can cause this?

A

Drug metabolism

Can be...
Poorly developed in neonates
Reduced in age
Sex dependent
Depressed by chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis
Cause by genetic variation
Altered by drug interactions
39
Q

What are inducers of drug metabolism?

A

Drugs that on repeated administration induce CYPs either by enhancing synthesis or inhibiting degradation

40
Q

Give some examples of drug inducers.

A

Phenobarbitone
Phenytoin
Ethanol and smoking

41
Q

What can inducers cause? When can this cause complications?

A

Can cause tolerance

Can cause complication in multi-drug therapy

42
Q

Which drugs can inhibit CYP enzymes? How is inhibition achieved?

A

Erythromycin and imidazole containing drugs

Inhibition involves complexing the cytochrome heme-iron

43
Q

Why are drugs that inhibit CYP enzymes helpful?

A

They can dramatically slow down the elimination of a second drug

44
Q

What are the two ways by which reabsorption can be reduced?

A

By making the drug more polar

Changing the pH of the urine (eg bicarbonate can be administered)

45
Q

What are the two transport mechanisms used by drugs? What are the features of both of these?

A

Anion transport
Cation transport

Saturable and substrates will compete with one another if they utilise the same mechanism

46
Q

Why might drug excretion via a route that is quantitatively small be clinically significant?

A

May be useful for assessing drug exposure

Eg hair and drugs of abuse

47
Q

What is zero order elimination?

A

When the rate of elimination is constant and independent of plasma conc of drug (enzyme are saturated)

48
Q

What is first order elimination?

A

When the rate of elimination varies proportionally with the plasma conc of a drug

49
Q

What is equation used to quantify a saturable process? When can this equation be simplified?

A

The Michaelis-Menton equation

u = V(max)xS / S+K(m)

When S«Km

u=V(max)xS / K(m)

50
Q

What is clearance? How can it be calculated from a graph?

A

The rate of elimination / Plasma conc

Clearance = Dose (iv) / AUC

51
Q

How can F be calculated?

A

F = AUC(oral)/AUC(iv) x D(iv)/D(oral)

52
Q

What is Vd equal to?

A

Clearance / ke

53
Q

How can clearance be calculated in a constant infusion model?

A

Clearance = dose rate / C(ss)

54
Q

What equation give the rate of approach to steady state?

A

Cp = Cp(ss) (1 - e^-ke.t)

55
Q

How can Vd be calculated from the terminal section of a constant infusion graph?

A

V(d) = ( Clearance x AUC(end) ) / C(ss)

56
Q

What rate of elimination will give the faster approach to steady state?

A

A fast one

57
Q

What is the criteria needed for the use of oral drugs in order to give a prolonged effective Cp?

A

t(1/2) > 4 hrs

58
Q

What are the two equations used to give C(max) and C(min)?

A

C(min) = C(max) x e^-k(e).τ

D x F = Vd( C(max) - C(min) )

59
Q

How is C(av.ss) calculated?

A

AUC = C(av.ss) x τ

DF/T = CL x C(av.ss)

60
Q

When can multiple oral dosing be taken to the same as IV infusion?

A

When 3τ < t(1/2)

61
Q

When should a loading dose be uses?

A

If the rate of elimination is very slow

62
Q

Name two examples of drugs that show zero order elimination

A

Alcohol

Phenytoin

63
Q

What is the role of general anaesthetics?

A

Used to render patients unaware of, and unresponsive to, painful stimulation during surgical procedures

64
Q

What are the three kinds of general anaesthetics?

A

IV
Volatile inhalants
Inorganic gases

65
Q

What is a factor that affects the potency of general anaesthetics?

A

Lipid solubility (oil:gas partition coefficient)

66
Q

What are the effects of general anaesthetics?

A 
Loss of conscious experience
Loss of memory
Loss of motor reflexes
Loss of response to painful stimulation
Changes in CV and respiratory performance
67
Q

What are the well defined stages of general anaesthetic action?

A

Conscious but drowsy
Surgical anaesthesion
Medullary paralysis and death

68
Q

What are the two stages of general anaesthetic excretion and what causes this?

A

Initial fast phase
Slower phase

This is due to initial high conc in high flow tissues (eg the brain) which then drops as it redistributes (not due to elimination)

69
Q

What are the phases during/after general anaesthetic action?

A

During injection - high arterial conc/high blood flow tissues

Fast redistribution phase - drug moves out of high flow tissues and into low flow tissues

Intermediate phase - Drug diffuses out of all lean tissues but is still diffusing into fat

Terminal phase - accumulated in fat and is being eliminated slowly

70
Q

What can occur if a large dose or repeated doses of general anaesthetic are given?

A

Cp after fast distribution may exceed level needed for anaesthesia (recovery is greatly delayed)

71
Q

Propofol?

A

General anaesthetic used IV as it is metabolised more rapidly than older GAs

Primary target is GABA(A) receptor - produces prolongation of GABAergic IPSPs

72
Q

Etomidate?

A

General anaesthetic used IV as it is metabolised more rapidly than older GAs

Primary target is GABA(A) receptor - produces prolongation of GABAergic IPSPs

73
Q

How are inhalation anaesthetics eliminated?

A

Via the lungs

74
Q

What is the determining factor for how long it will take an inhalation anaesthetic will take to reach equilibrium?

A

If it is more soluble then it will take longer to reach equilibrium

75
Q

Nitrous oxide?

A

Inhalant anaesthetic used as a GA

Had a low C(blood):C(gas) and fast induction/recovery

76
Q

Why do GA redistribute so well in the fat?

A

~20% body vol

Many GAs are 100x more soluble in fat than water

77
Q

What was the first theory of general anaesthetic action? Who proposed it?

A

Lipid theory - narcosis commences when any chemically indifferent substance has attained a certain conc in the lipids of the cells

Overton and Meyer (1937)

78
Q

What is the evidence in support of lipid theory?

A

Anaesthetic potency correlates well with lipid solubility

79
Q

What is the evidence against lipid theory? Who showed this?

A

Firefly luciferase is inhibited by a variety of anaesthetics at clinically relevant concentrations and order of potencies

Was shown by Frank and Lieb (1984)

80
Q

What the two proposed actions of general anaesthetics used to explain lipid theory? What is the evidence for each?

A

Membrane expansion - Pressure reversal demonstrated in tadpoles. This is proposed to prevent channels functioning

Increased membrane fluidity - Temp changes of 1-2*C cause similar changes in fluidity

81
Q

What is the cut off effect? What is this theory consistent with?

A

The fact that increasing chain length will increase potency up until a limit.

The theory that GAs work through binding to a hydrophobic pocket

82
Q

What are the most likely protein targets for general anaesthetics?

A

GABA(A) and glycine receptors which are potentiated by anaesthetics

K+ Channels

NMDA receptors

83
Q

What is the proposed model of the protein theory of GA action?

A

GAs bind to preformed cavities causing little change in structure

They stabilise conformations that contain the binding site

84
Q

What is the primary target of propofol and etomidate? Which part is thought to play a crucial role?

A

GABA(A) receptor

β-subunit plays a crucial role (etomidate is more effective on β2 or 3)

86
Q

What is the β3 N265M knock out?

A

Mutation found in transmembrane 2 of the GABA(A) receptor that shows reduced effectiveness of Propofol

Also the channel showed reduced IPSPs in the presence of propofol

86
Q

Halothane

A

Inhalation anaesthetic

Medium induction/ recovery

87
Q

Where are inhalation general anaesthetics thought to act? Why is this?

A

Upon the α subunit of the GABA(A) receptor
-Effects of halothane and isoflurane are blocked by S270W

Two pore domain K+ channels
-Potentiation is blocked by M159A

89
Q

Thiopental

A

General anaesthetic barbiturate

High lipid solubility

90
Q

TREK1 KO mouse

A

Mice lacking the TREK1 K+ channel

Show reduced responsiveness to Halothane - suggests halothane acts at TREK1 K+ channels

91
Q

Mutations in TM3/4 of the NMDA receptor

A

Caused a reduction in alcohols ability to inhibit these channels

MODA (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions