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1016MSC > Pharmacy Practice 1 > Flashcards

Pharmacy Practice 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which government department collects data and reports on the health of the nation?

Therapeutic Goods Administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health

A

Australian institute of health and welfare

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2
Q

How are TGA-listed medicines labelled?

AUST D
AUST M
AUST L
AUST R

A

AUST L

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3
Q

Which professional organization represents community pharmacy owners?

Australian college of pharmacy
Pharmaceutical society of Australia
Pharmacy guild of Australia
Professional pharmacists Australia

A

Pharmacy guild of Australia

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4
Q

How many health professions are regulated by AHPRA?

3
9
15
21

A

15

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5
Q

Which government department oversees Medicare payments?

Therapeutic Goods administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health

A

Department of human services

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6
Q

Which government department regulates medicines, medical services and blood products?

Therapeutic Goods administration
Australian institute of health and welfare
Department of human services
Department of health

A

Therapeutic Goods Administration

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7
Q

How are TGA-regulated medicines labelled?

AUST D
AUST M
AUST R
AUST L

A

AUST R

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8
Q

Which is Australia’s ranking in life expectancy among OECD countries?

1st
3rd
6th
10th

A

6th

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9
Q

Which pregnancy category of drugs are teratogenic?

Category B1
Category C
Category D
Category X

A

Category X

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10
Q

Which medicines schedule is a pharmacist only medicine?

Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8

A

Schedule 3

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11
Q

Is earache a sign or a symptom?

A

Symptom

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12
Q

Which medicines schedule is a controlled drug?

Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8

A

Schedule 8

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13
Q

Which is an example of a symptom?

Nausea
Fever
Hypertension
Skin rash

A

Nausea

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14
Q

Which medicines schedule is a pharmacy medicine?

Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8

A

Schedule 2

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15
Q

Which is an example of a sign?

Fatigue
Cough
Nausea
Chest pain

A

Cough

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16
Q

Is pain a sign or a symptom?

A

Symptom

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17
Q

Which medicine schedule is a prescription only medicine?

Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8

A

Schedule 4

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18
Q

Which pregnancy category of drugs are the safest in pregnancy?

Category A
Category C
Category D
Category X

A

Category A

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19
Q

Are red eyes a sign or a symptom?

A

Sign

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20
Q

What is differentiating between two or more conditions that share similar signs and symptoms?

Empirical approach
Therapeutic alliance
Differential diagnosis
Patient-centred care

A

Differential diagnosis

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21
Q

Which pregnancy category is paracetamol?

Category A
Category D
Category B1
Category X

A

Category A

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22
Q

Only one oral NSAID should be used at a time for pain relief.

True or False?

A

True

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23
Q

Which is NOT a potential side effect of codeine?

Nausea
Breathing problems
Drowsiness
Diarrhea

A

Diarrhea

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24
Q

What is minimum age for an infant to be dosed with paracetamol?

From birth
1 month
3 months
12 months

A

1 month

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25
Q

Which NSAID is available only on prescription?

Ibuprofen
Celecoxib
Diclofenac
Mefenamic Acid

A

Celecoxib

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26
Q

What is minimum age for an infant to be dosed with ibuprofen?

From birth
1 month
3 months
12 months

A

3 months

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27
Q

What is the dose of sustained release paracetamol in osteoarthritis?

2 x 200mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 300mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 500mg every 4 to 6 hours
2 x 665mg every 6 to 8 hours

A

2 x 665mg every 6 to 8 hours

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28
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of excessive paracetamol?

Kidney damage
Constipation
Diarrhea
Liver damage

A

Liver damage

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29
Q

What is the action of metoclopramide when compounded with paracetamol of migraine?

Analgesic
Anti-nauseant
Antipyretic
Anti-inflammatory

A

Anti-nauseant

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30
Q

Chronic pain occurs for most days longer than what time frame?

3 days
3 months
3 weeks
3 years

A

3 months

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31
Q

What is NOT possibly caused by straining to defecate?

Haemorrhoids
Cardiac irregularities
Asthma
Worsening GORD

A

Asthma

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32
Q

What category of haemorrhoid treatment is hydrocortisone?

Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid

A

Corticosteroid

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33
Q

What type of laxative is lactulose?

Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant

A

Osmotic

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34
Q

What category of haemorrhoid treatment is cinchocaine?

Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid

A

Local anaesthetic

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35
Q

What is the role of urinary alkalinisers in cystitis?

Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial

A

Increase pH to relieve pain

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36
Q

Which categories on the Bristol stool chart indicate diarrhea?

Type 1-2
Type 3-4
Type 5-7

A

Type 5-7

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37
Q

Which categories on the Bristol stool chart indicate constipation?

Type 1-2
Type 3-4
Type 5-7

A

Type 1-2

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38
Q

What type of laxative is senna?

Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant

A

Stimulant

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39
Q

What is the role of methenamine (hexamine) hippurate in cystitis?

Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial

A

Urinary tract antibacterial

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40
Q

What category of haemorrhoid treatment is zinc oxide?

Astringent
Local anaesthetic
Corticosteroid

A

Astringent

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41
Q

What type of laxative is psyllium?

Bulk-forming
Stool softener
Osmotic
Stimulant

A

Bulk-forming

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42
Q

Which is NOT an anti-motility agent for diarrhea?

Codeine
Dihydrocodeine
Loperamide
Diphenoxylate

A

Dihydrocodeine

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43
Q

Which lifestyle factor may predispose constipation?

Regular exercise
Adequate water intake
High fiber diet
Suppressing the urge to defecate

A

Suppressing the urge to defecate

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44
Q

Which product may prevent traveller’s diarrhea?

Porcine colostrum
Equine colostrum
Canine colostrum
Bovine colostrum

A

Bovine colostrum

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45
Q

What is the role of cranberry in cystitis?

Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall
Increase pH to relieve pain
Urinary tract antibacterial

A

Reduce bacterial adhesion to bladder wall

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46
Q

What class of heartburn medicine is ranitidine?

Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor

A

H2 antagonist

47
Q

Which acupressure point may help prevent nausea?

B10
P6
L14
ST36

A

P6

48
Q

Which is NOT a symptom of GORD?

Sore throat
Increased saliva
Discomfort in the upper abdomen
Discomfort in the lower abdomen

A

Discomfort in the lower abdomen

49
Q

Once commencing threadworm treatment, should a child be excluded from school or daycare?

Yes
No

A

No

50
Q

Which medications may worsen reflux symptoms

Sedating antihistamines
NSAIDs
Metformin
All of the above

A

All of the above

51
Q

Which class of heartburn medicine is calcium carbonate?

Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor

A

Antacid

52
Q

What are strategies for preventing motion sickness?

Look forward at horizon
Avoid being near a smoker
Eat dry crackers
All of the above

A

All of the above

53
Q

Which is most suitable to prevent travel sickness during a short journey?

Pheniramine
Promethazine
Hyoscine hydrobromide
Dimenhydrinate

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide

54
Q

Which anthelmintic can be used to treat children under 2 years of age?

Mebendazole
Pyrantel

A

Pyratel

55
Q

Which class of heartburn medicine is pantoprazole?

Antacid
Alginate
H2 antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor

A

Proton pump inhibitor

56
Q

Which tinea infection is “jock itch”?

Tinea pedis
Tinea cruris
Tinea corporis
Tines capitis

A

Tinea cruris

57
Q

Which type of moisturizer prevents water loss from skin?

Emollient
Humectant
Occlusive
Hydrocortisone

A

Occlusive

58
Q

What is the first line treatment for mild dandruff?

Daily non-medicated shampoo
Ciclopirox liquid
Ketoconazole shampoo
Zinc sulfide shampoo

A

Daily non-medicated shampoo

59
Q

What type of moisturizer attracts moisture to the surface of the skin?

Emollient
Humectant
Occlusive
Hydrocortisone

A

Humectant

60
Q

What classification of dermatitis describes a condition with an obvious external cause?

Endogenous
Exogenous
Seborrhoeic
Chronic

A

Exogenous

61
Q

Which psoriasis treatment helps to remove accumulated scale so that other treatments penetrate?

Corticosteroids
Moisturizers
Salicylic acid
Coal tar

A

Salicylic acid

62
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis is an inflammatory response to which organism?

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus progenies
Candida albicans
Malassesia yeasts

A

Malassesia yeasts

63
Q

Which oral thrush treatment requires a prescription?

Miconazole gel
Nystatin drops
Amphotericin lozenges
None of the above

A

Amphotericin lozenges

64
Q

Which type of eczema is sure and exposure dependent?

Irritant contact
Allergic contact
Seborrhoeic
Atopic

A

Irritant contact

65
Q

Which skin infection presents as weeping, crusty skin lesions, often around the nose or mouth?

Boils
Folliculitis
Impetigo
Carbuncles

A

Impetigo

66
Q

Which antifungal has the more rapid response?

Terbinafine
Miconazole
Clotrimazole
Tolnaftate

A

Terbinafine

67
Q

What is first line treatment in mild acne?

Salicylic acid and sulfur
Zinc
Retinoids
Benzoyl peroxide

A

Benzoyl peroxide

68
Q

Which chickenpox treatment helps to minimize scar formation?

Antihistamines
Hydrogels
Pine tar soap substitutes
Cold compresses

A

Hydrogels

69
Q

What is the cause of shingles?

Primary infection of human papilloma virus
Secondary infection of human papilloma virus
Primary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus
Secondary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus

A

Secondary infection of herpes varicella zoster virus

70
Q

Which is NOT a treatment for head lice?

Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
Benzyl alcohol
Maldison (malathion)
Benzyl benzoate

A

Benzyl benzoate

71
Q

What is xerostomia?

Mouth ulcers
Dry mouth
Chickenpox
Cold sores

A

Dry mouth

72
Q

Which is NOT a treatment for scabies?

Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
Permethrin
Crotamiton
Benzyl benzoate

A

Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide

73
Q

Which is NOT a sign or symptom of scabies?

Nocturnal itch
Skin sores inside wrists and between fingers
Fine linear rash on skin
Visible mites

A

Visible mites

74
Q

Which virus causes common warts?

Herpes simplex
Human papilloma virus
Herpes zoster
Herpes varicella

A

Human papilloma virus

75
Q

What is the characteristic shape of receding hair in male pattern baldness?

M shaped
V shaped
O shaped
Ludwig pattern

A

M shaped

76
Q

Which virus caused cold sores (herpes labialis)?

Herpes simplex virus type 1
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Heroes zoster virus
Human papilloma virus

A

Herpes simplex virus type 1

77
Q

Which mouth ulcer treatment contains a topical corticosteroid?

Difflam gel
Bonjela mouth ulcer gel
Kenalog in orabose
SM-33 liquid

A

Kenalog in orabose

78
Q

How are head lice acquired?

Faecal-oral route
Transfer from hats
Direct head-to-head contact
Shared combs and brushes

A

Direct head-to-head contact

79
Q

Which phase of hair growth is the dormant or resting phase?

Anagen
Catagen
Telogen
None of the above

A

Telogen

80
Q

Which colour corresponds with the highest exposure risk of 11+ on the UV index?

Green
Red
Orange
Purple

A

Purple

81
Q

What is the life span of a head lice?

1 week
3 weeks
5 weeks
8 weeks

A

5 weeks

82
Q

Which sunscreens are classified as very high protection?

Broad spectrum against UVA and UVB
SPF 50+
SPF 30+
SPF 100

A

SPF 50+

83
Q

Which hay fever treatment has the strongest evidence base?

Oral antihistamines
Intranasal antihistamines
Ocular antihistamines
Intranasal corticosteroids

A

Intranasal corticosteroids

84
Q

What is the classification of allergic rhinitis that occurs <4x/week or <4 consecutive weeks?

Seasonal
Perennial
Intermittent
Persistent

A

Intermittent

85
Q

Which sore throat treatment is a NSAID?

Flurbiprofen
Cetylpyridinium
Benzocaine
Povidone-iodine

A

Flurbiprofen

86
Q

What is the most effective treatment for rhinorrhoea (runny nose)?

Levocabastine
Ipratropium
Cromoglycate
Naphazoline

A

Ipratropium

87
Q

What defines a severe, life-threatening allergy?

Anaphylaxis
Allergic rhinitis
Rhinosinusitis
Hay fever

A

Anaphylaxis

88
Q

Which type of cough treatment costs the throat and protects from irritants?

Antitussive
Mucolytic
Demulcent
Expectorant

A

Demulcent

89
Q

Which sore throat treatment is a local anaesthetic?

Benzydamine
Cetylpyridinium
Lidocaine
Povidone-iodine

A

Lidocaine

90
Q

Which cough treatment is a mucolytic?

Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine

A

Bromhexine

91
Q

Which cough treatment is an antitussive (cough suppressant)?

Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine

A

Dihydrocodeine

92
Q

Which cough treatment is an expectorant?

Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine

A

Guaiphenesin

93
Q

Which cough treatment is a demulcent?

Guaiphenesin
Bromhexine
Dihydrocodeine
Glycerine

A

Glycerine

94
Q

How many Australians are affected by asthma?

25,000
250,000
2,500,000
25,000,000

A

2,500,000

95
Q

Which stage of change defines contemplation?

Smoker is NOT thinking about quitting in the next 6 months
Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months
Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days
Person becomes non-smoker for at least 6 months

A

Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months

96
Q

What SUSMP schedule are reliever puffers?

Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 8

A

Schedule 3

97
Q

Which stage of change defines preparation?

Smoker is NOT thinking about quitting in the next 6 months
Smoker thinks seriously about quitting in the next 6 months
Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days
Person becomes non-smoker for at least 6 months

A

Quit attempt is planned within the next 30 days

98
Q

What time to first cigarette (TTFC) shows the highest level of dependence?

5 mins
30 mins
2 hours
12 hours

A

5 mins

99
Q

What is the addictive component of tabacoo smoke?

Tar
Carbon monoxide
Nicotine
Cyanide

A

Nicotine

100
Q

What are the most effective pharmacological intervention/s to quit smoking?

Single agent NRT
Combined NRT
Bupropion
Varenicline

A

Combined NRT
Varenicline

101
Q

What proportion of asthma patients are intolerant to aspirin?

None
1-2%
3-11%
20-25%

A

3-11%

102
Q

Which drug class are reliever puffers?

Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
Short-acting beta agonists (SABA)
Long-acting beta agonists (LABA)
Long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA)

A

Short-acting beta agonists (SABA)

103
Q

Which ear treatment is not a cerumenolytic for ear wax removal?

Carbamide peroxide
Docusate
Acetic acid with isopropyl alcohol
Dichlorobenzene with chlorbutol

A

Acetic acid with isopropyl alcohol

104
Q

What sort of vision loss occurs with age-related macular degeneration?

Central vision
Side vision

A

Central vision

105
Q

What is the limit on the use of vasoconstrictor eye drops?

5 days
7 days
28 days
No limit

A

5 days

106
Q

What type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and causes itchy, watery eyes?

Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant

A

Allergic

107
Q

What type of conjunctivitis typically has a purulent discharge?

Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant

A

Bacterial

108
Q

Which is NOT a preventative medicine for allergic conjunctivitis?

Normal saline
Cromoglycate drops
Ketotifen drops
Lodoxamide drops

A

Normal saline

109
Q

Which vision impairment condition is long-sightedness?

Astigmatism
Presbyopia
Myopia
Hypermetropia

A

Hypermetropia

110
Q

Which type of conjunctivitis associated with URTI may cause photophobia?

Allergic
Viral
Bacterial
Irritant

A

Viral

111
Q

Which is the most suitable non-prescription treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

Lodoxamide drops
Antazoline drops
Chloramphenicol drops
Levocabastine drops

A

Chloramphenicol drops

112
Q

Which medicines do NOT potentially cause dry eyes?

Contraceptive pills
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Anticholinergics

A

ACE inhibitors

113
Q

What sort of vision loss occurs with glaucoma?

Central vision
Side vision

A

Side vision

1016MSC (4 decks)

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