Pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

What form is only used to prescribe controlled substances?

A

DD 1289

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What form is the poly-prescription?

A

NAVMED 6710/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required to be written on the prescription?

A

a. Pt’s Full Name
b. Date Prescription Written
c. Pt’s age or DOB
d. Full name of drug
e. Form of drug
f. Dosage size or strength written in metric system
g. Directions for Pt
h. Legible signature
i. Refill authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Activities of the drug after it enters the body. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are factors that alter bioavailability?

A

a. Drug form
b. Route of administration
c. Changes in the liver metabolism caused by dysfunction
d. GI mucosa and motility
e. Food and drugs
f. Solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does liver disease influence drug response?

A

A Pt with liver disease may require a LOWER DOSE of medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

Primary or desired effect. Drugs action and effects within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an accumulative drug effect?

A

A drug effect that occurs when the body has not fully metabolized a dose of a drug before next dose is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is psychological dependence?

A

A compulsion to use a substance to obtain a pleasurable experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is physical dependence?

A

A compulsion to use a substance repeatedly to avoid mild to severe withdrawal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an additive drug reaction?

A

A reaction that occurs when two drugs is equal to the sum of each drug given alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is synergism?

A

A drug interaction that occurs when drugs produce an effect that is greater than the sum of their separate actions. i.e. alcohol and narcotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are factors that influence drug response?

A

a. Age
b. Weight
c. Gender
d. Disease
e. Rout of administration
f. Drug use and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1 kilogram equals how many grams?

A

1000 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1 gram equals how many milligrams?

A

1000 milligrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1 milligram equals how many micrograms?

A

1000 micrograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a subcutaneous route?

A

Injection places the drug into the tissues between the skin and the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an intramuscular route?

A

Injection places the medication directly into the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an intravenous route?

A

Drug given directly into the blood via a needle or catheter inserted into the vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an intradermal route?

A

Medication/agent placed between the first and second layer of the skin. Used to administer sensitivity tests. Inserted at 15 degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which drugs have an almost immediate direct path to drug receptors?

A

Intravenous (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which drugs have a systemic effect?

A

Transdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which drugs primarily have a local effect on the lungs?

A

Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drugs have anticonvulsant properties, depress the sensory cortex, decrease motor activity, and cause drowsiness?

A

Barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Should alcohol be used with barbiturates?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What antianxiety drug is used for short term use only?

A

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are examples of antianxiety medications?

A

a. Alprazolam
b. Diazepam
c. Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do antidepressants work?

A

Prevent the reuptake of the neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are contraindications for people with certain diseases where you don’t want to prescribe antidepressants?

A

People with CHF, hypertension, cardiovascular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do antipsychotics work?

A

By blocking the dopamine receptors in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are contraindications for taking antipsychotics?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are examples of antipsychotics

A

Haloperidol: Haldol (only thing we carry?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do we use CNS Stimulants to treat?

A

a. Narcolepsy

b. ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the actions of anticonvulsants?

A

Reduce the excitability of the neurons of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are examples of anticonvulsants?

A

PAMS

a. Diazepam
b. Lorazepam
c. Midazolam
d. Clonazepam
e. Phenytoin – only mention because Mancia mentioned it multiple times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are anti-emetics/anti-nauseants used for?

A

Phenothiazines act to inhibit nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Examples of anti-emetics?

A

a. Promethazine

b. Odansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Examples of antivertigo?

A

a. Meclizine

b. Diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A

Produce a local anesthesia by inhibiting transport of ions across neural membranes, thereby preventing initiation and conduction of normal nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the uses of non-salicylate?

A

a. Relieve mild to moderate pain
b. Reduce body temperature (antipyretic)
c. Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Examples of non-salicylate?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are contraindications for NSAIDS?

A

a. Peptic ulcer
b. GI Bleed
c. Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How will you educate your Pt regarding the use of NSAIDS?

A

a. Stop if prolonged bleeding or dark stools
b. Long term use may lead to GI bleed
c. Take with food or milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the action of narcotic analgesics?

A

Opiods bind to opiate receptors CNS, where they act as agonists of endogenously occurring opiod peptides. The result is the alteration to the perception of and response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a commonly used opiod antagonist?

A

Naloxone

46
Q

What is the action of bronchodilators beta2 agonists?

A

Release stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines

47
Q

Pts you would take caution in prescribing bronchodilators?

A

Pts with Cardiac arrhythmias and narrow angle glaucoma

48
Q

How do antitussives work?

A

a. Central acting: Depresses cough center

b. Peripheral acting: Anesthetize stretch receptors

49
Q

What is the action of mucolytics?

A

Loosens and mobilize thick mucus from respiratory systems

50
Q

What is the action of expectorants?

A

Decreases viscosity of tenacious excretions by increasing respiratory tract fluids

51
Q

What is an example of expectorants?

A

Guaifenesin

52
Q

What is a class 2 anti arrhythmic?

A

Beta blockers block stimulation of the beta receptors of the heart

53
Q

What blocks potassium channels in the heart?

A

Class 3 antiarrythmics (amiodorone)

54
Q

What are uses of antiarrhytmics?

A

Decrease symptoms and increase stability!!!!

a. Premature ventricular contractions
b. Tachycardia
c. Premature atrial contractions
d. Ventricular dysrhythmias
e. Atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter

55
Q

Ace inhibitor medications end in what?

A

“Pril”

56
Q

Beta blocker medications end in what?

A

“OLOL”

57
Q

Actions of loop diuretics?

A

Increase excretion of sodium and chloride by inhibiting the reabsorption of these ions in the distal proximal tubules and the loop of henle

58
Q

What is an example of loop diuretics?

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

59
Q

What is Furosemide (Lasix) used in the treatment of?

A

a. Edema due to CHF
b. Cirrhosis of the liver
c. Acute pulmonary edema

60
Q

What is the first line indications in the management of hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretics

a. Hydrochlorathiazide (HCTZ)

61
Q

What do hyperlipidemias end in?

A

“Statins”

62
Q

What is the action of antacids?

A

Neutralize or reduce the acidity of the stomach and duodenal contents

63
Q

What are examples of antacid medications?

A

a. Calcium carbonate (Tums)
b. Aluminum hydroxide gel
c. Calcium carbonate/magnesium hydroxide

64
Q

What is the action of Histamine H2 Agonist?

A

Inhibit the actions of histamine at histamine H2 receptor cells of the stomach which reduces the secretion of gastric acids

65
Q

What are the key REMINDERS for Antacids, H2 antagonist, PPIs

A

a. Antacids - reduce the acidity of the stomach
b. H2 antagonist- reduces the secretion of gastric acid
c. PPIs – suppress gastric acid secretions

66
Q

What are PPIs used for?

A

a. Treatment of gastric of duodenal ulcers
b. GERD
c. Ulcers with H. Pylori

67
Q

What is the action of antidiarrheal medications?

A

Decrease intestinal peristalsis

68
Q

What is an example of antidiarrheal?

A

Loperamide (Imodium)

69
Q

Long term use of laxatives can result in what?

A

Laxative habit dependency

70
Q

What are contraindications of laxatives?

A

Persistent abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting of unknown causes

71
Q

What are some irritants/stimulants?

A

Bisacodyl (dulcolax)

72
Q

What is used to treat inflamed hemorrhoids?

A

Hemorrhoid agents

73
Q

What are adverse effects of hemorrhoid agents?

A

Excessive or prolonged use may lead to atrophy of the effected tissue

74
Q

What are some factors that effect insulin dosing?

A

a. Pt eats too little food may result in hypoglycemia
b. Dose is incorrectly measured and is greater than prescribed
c. Pt drastically increase physical activity may result in hypoglycemia
d. INFECTION may change dose requirement

75
Q

What are oral antidiabetics used for?

A

Used to treat patients with Type 2 diabetes not controlled with diet and exercise

76
Q

What hormone influences every organ and tissue in the body?

A

Thyroid

77
Q

What is the action of contraceptives?

A

Inhibits ovulation

78
Q

Adverse reactions to contraceptives?

A

If pt has a history of migraines or headaches be mindful of types of estrogen containing contraceptives

a. Breakthrough bleeding
b. Headaches
c. Mental depression
d. Venous thromboembolism

79
Q

Bactericidal drugs do what?

A

Kill the bacteria

80
Q

Bacterielstatic drugs do what?

A

Slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria

81
Q

The effectiveness of individual antibiotics depends on these factors?

A

a. Location of the infection
b. Ability of the antibiotic to reach the site of infection
c. Ability of the bacteria to resist or inactivate the antibiotics

82
Q

What inhibits viral replication?

A

Antivirals

83
Q

Examples of antivirals?

A

“Vir”

a. Acyclovir
b. Vancyclovir
c. Penicyclovir
d. Osetamivir

84
Q

Antivirals used in what?

A

a. Herpes Simplex
b. Hiv
c. Influenza A & B
d. Chronic Hepatitis C treatment

85
Q

Examples of antifungals?

A

a. Clotrimazole
b. Ketoconazole
c. Metronidazole is NOT an antifungal

86
Q

What are muscle relaxers used for?

A

Various acute painful MSK conditions, such as back pain, neck pain, muscle spasms

87
Q

What happens if corticosteroids are stopped abruptly?

A

A potentially life-threatening adrenal insufficiency can occur

88
Q

What is the action of antimigraine meds?

A

Acts on intracranial blood vessels and sensory nerves causing vasoconstriction and reduces neurogenic inflammation

89
Q

Antimigraine uses for?

A

a. Treatment of migraines

b. Cluster headaches

90
Q

What medications used to treat migraines?

A

Triptans; sumatriptan (imitrex)

91
Q

What medication causes paralysis and death of a pest?

A

Scabicides

92
Q

What is an example of scabicide?

A

Permethrin (elimite or nix)

93
Q

What temporarily inhibits the induction impulses of the sensory nerve fibers?

A

Local anesthetics

94
Q

Examples of smoking sensation medications?

A

NOT ORAL PILLS

a. Transdermal patch
b. Gum
c. Inhaler
d. Nasal spray
e. Lozenge

95
Q

Who is responsible for controlled substances onboard ship?

A

Command Officer

96
Q

Who maintains custody of controlled substances onboard ship (CUSTODIAN)?

A

SMDR

97
Q

How long are records maintained for?

A

3 years

98
Q

Who is allowed to be the bulk stock custodian?

A

Commissioned officer or anyone that is not the SUPPO or involved in the procurement of medications

99
Q

How many safes are required?

A

Two with the exception of DDG 1000, LCS, MCM, PCs which only get (One)

100
Q

How often are the safe combinations changed?

A

a. Immediately upon turnover
b. Suspicion of compromise
c. Every six months

101
Q

How many people are needed for a CSIB?

A

Minimum of three but smaller platforms with crew less than 100 only need 2 (One officer, one chief)

102
Q

Only form used to prescribe controlled meds?

A

DD 1289

103
Q

Who is required to countersign prescriptions?

A

Commanding Officer

104
Q

How often are inventories conducted

A

a. Quarterly (every 90 days)
b. Within one month of a transaction
c. At the time of relief of the CO or MDR
d. At the request of the CO

105
Q

What form is used to document theft of controlled substances?

A

DEA 106

106
Q

Lost of controlled substances?

A

DD 200

107
Q

How many people present when destroying meds?

A

Minimum of the 3 CSIB members to include the Senior CSIB member

108
Q

What supplement overuse is associated with stroke?

A

Creatine

109
Q

What is protein used for?

A

Muscle repair/rebuilding and meal replacement

110
Q

What does nitric oxide enhance?

A

Oxygen and nutrient delivery to muscles