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Levelup RN > Pharmacology Review > Flashcards

Pharmacology Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Metformin complication

A

Lactic Acidosis

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2
Q

Signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis

A

Muscle pain, hypotension, bradycardia, dizziness, and weakness.

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3
Q

Midazolam

A

Flumenazil (Midazolam is a benzo that’s why)

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4
Q

Oseltamivir

A

Antivirals for influenza (e.g., oseltamivir) are only effective when administered within 48 hours of symptom onset.

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a finding of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Respiratory depression

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6
Q

NMS causes

A

high fever, dysrhythmias, muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

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7
Q

The nurse educates a patient to remain upright following administration of alendronate to avoid which possible complication?

A

Esophagitis

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8
Q

doxorubicin

A

normal finding
Red discoloration of sweat, tears, and urine

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 6 years old. Which of the following medication orders should the nurse question?

A

Doxycycline

Explanation:
Tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline) are contraindicated for patients less than 8 years old due to the risk for permanent tooth discoloration.

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for a burn patient. Which topical bacteriostatic medication can be applied to penetrate eschar?

A

Mafenide acetate

Explanation:
Mafenide acetate is a topical medication used for burns. It is a bacteriostatic medication able to penetrate eschar.

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11
Q

Atropine

A

Symptomatic Bradycardia

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12
Q

A patient taking digoxin has an apical heart rate of 65 bpm. What should the nurse do when the next dose is due?

Double the dose,
Administer the medication,
Call the provider,
Recheck the heart rate

A

Administer the med

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13
Q

levothyroxine toxicity

A

tachycardia and insomnia

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14
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with an overactive bladder. This patient is prescribed oxybutynin. Which of the following side effects may this medication cause?

A

Dry mouth, oxybutynin is anticholinergic

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15
Q

Following IV therapy the patient develops erythema, warmth, pain, and red streak along the skin with a “cordlike” vein. Which complication should the nurse expect?

A

Phlebitis is an IV complication which may cause erythema, warmth, pain, cordlike veins, and/or a red streak along the skin.

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16
Q

Selegiline contraindications

A

Foods rich in tyramine, such as chocolate, pepperoni, and avocado, must be avoided by patients taking MAOIs such as selegiline

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17
Q

A patient arrives at the emergency room in preterm labor. Which medication does the nurse give to the patient to delay labor?

A

Terbutaline

Terbutaline may be administered prior to 37 weeks gestation to delay preterm labor.

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18
Q

A patient beginning a regimen of which medication may be expected to have their sweat and urine become darker in color?

A

Carbidopa/levodopa

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19
Q

Sertaline side effects

A

Patients taking SSRIs (e.g., sertraline) are at risk for serotonin syndrome. A major finding associated with serotonin syndrome is extreme diaphoresis.

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20
Q

Asthma is a contraindication for which medication used to treat postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Carboprost
Carboprost is contraindicated for patients who have asthma.

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21
Q

Which phase of pharmacokinetics may be affected by protein-binding?

A

Distribution

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22
Q

Furosemide side effect

A

Ototoxicity

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of levothyroxine toxicity?

Heat intolerance

Weight loss

Tachycardia

Drowsiness

A

Drowsiness

Common findings of levothyroxine toxicity include anxiety, GI upset, sweating, weight loss, heat intolerance, insomnia, and tachycardia.

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24
Q

famotidine treats

A

GERD

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25
Q

During the initial assessment, a patient states they are allergic to penicillin. Which other medication should this patient not be given?

Ciprofloxacin

Metronidazole

Sulfamethoxazole

Cephalosporin

A

Cephalosporin

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26
Q

Which of the following is the primary GI side effect associated with calcium channel blockers?

Constipation

Diarrhea

Abdominal cramping
Vomiting

A

Constipation

Calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil, nifedipine) may cause constipation due to relaxation of smooth muscle.

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27
Q

Alcohol aversion and side effect caused by

A

Disulfiram

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28
Q

A patient experiencing severe sepsis has a blood pressure of 88/40. Which action should the nurse take first?

Begin norepinephrine administration

Administer push-dose phenylephrine

Draw blood cultures from two different sites

Administer a crystalloid fluid bolus

A

Ans. Crystalloid fluid bolus.

A patient experiencing shock (e.g., severe sepsis) should be given IV fluids to correct hypovolemia prior to administering vasopressors.

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29
Q

Amitriptyline side effects

A

Amitriptyline is an anticholinergic medication which may cause urinary retention, dry mouth, blurry vision, photophobia, and constipation.

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30
Q

The nurse should educate a patient taking paroxetine to avoid which of the following herbal supplements?

St. John’s wort

Saw palmetto

Ginko biloba

Ginger

A

St. John’s wort should be avoided by any patient taking an SSRI (e.g., paroxetine) due to the risk for serotonin syndrome.

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31
Q

A patient with known peptic ulcer disease reports having a headache rated 4/10 on the pain scale. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer?

Oxycodone

Acetaminophen

Naproxen

Ibuprofen

A

Acetaminophen

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32
Q

Zolpidem use

A

Short-term treatment of insomnia

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33
Q

methylphenidate
CNS stimulant, used to treat ADHD

A
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34
Q

The nurse should educate a patient beginning a methylphenidate regimen to take their medication at which time?

A

In the morning to avoid insomnia

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35
Q

The nurse educates a patient with Graves’ disease that which medication regimen will be initiated?

A

Propylthiouracil

A patient with hyperthyroidism/Graves’ disease may be treated with propylthiouracil. The other listed medications may be administered for hypothyroidism.

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36
Q

Sumatriptan treats

A

Headaches

Sumatriptan is indicated for the treatment of vascular headaches such as migraines and cluster headaches.

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37
Q

Which neurotransmitter does donepezil aim to increase?

Acetylcholine ach

A

Alzheimer’s medications such as donepezil seek to increase a patient’s acetylcholine.

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38
Q

Which medication functions by stimulating bone marrow to increase production of neutrophils?

A

Fligrastim

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39
Q

therapeutic range of phenytoin is

A

10 - 20 mcg/mL.

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40
Q

Vancomycin flushing syndrome

A

possible side effect of vancomycin, which causes red flushing of the face, neck, and trunk.

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41
Q

Sucralfate administration

A

Sucralfate should be taken one hour before meals and at bedtime, a total of 4 times per day.

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42
Q

Clozapine minitor for what in CBC

A

Neturophils due to the risk of agranulocytosis

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43
Q

Pancrealipase administration

A

Pancrelipase should be administered immediately before or with meals and snacks to help break down food.

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44
Q

Somatropin is

A

a growth hormone. Growth rate and bone age should be monitored often, and the medication should be discontinued prior to epiphyseal closure.

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45
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a patient and their parents on somatropin. The parents ask how long this medication will be given to their child. What response should the nurse provide?

A

The medication will be stopped prior to epiphyseal closure.

46
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer an antitussive to a patient. The patient asks how the medication works. How should the nurse reply?

A

This medication works to suppress your need to cough

47
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient on a diuretic. The nurse teaches the patient to avoid salt substitutes. Which diuretic is this patient taking?

A

Spironolactone

Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic. Therefore, patients should avoid salt substitutes due to their high concentration of potassium, while taking spironolactone.

48
Q

Simethicone is

A

antiflatulent that can relieve painful gas in the GI tract.

49
Q

Bethanechol is

A

a cholinergic medication and can cause symptoms such as diaphoresis, diarrhea, increased urinary output, nausea, vomiting, and increased salivation.

50
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with urinary retention. The patient is prescribed bethanechol. Which of the following side effects may this medication cause?

A

Diaphoresis

51
Q

The nurse educates a patient taking which of the following medications to monitor for signs and symptoms of tendon rupture?

Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin
Ceftriaxone
Imipenem

A

Ciprofloxacin

Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, carry a black box warning for achilles tendon rupture.

52
Q

After initiation of blood products, the nurse must remain with the patient till

A

The nurse should remain with the patient for at least 15 minutes following the initiation of blood products to monitor for adverse events.

53
Q

Which of the following is most likely to result in a patient experiencing an Addisonian crisis?

A

Abrupt discontinuation of fludrocortisone

54
Q

Which neurotransmitter do Parkinson’s medications aim to increase?

A

Dopamine

55
Q

What condition is a contraindication to administering methylergonovine?

A

Hypertension

Methylergonovine, a medication used to treat postpartum hemorrhage, is contraindicated in patients with hypertension.

56
Q

Valproic acid what to monitor

A

Liver Function Test.

If you value your liver….vaproic acid is hepatotoxic

57
Q

Adenosine tx for

A

SVT

58
Q

Conjugated estrogen therapy is contraindicated for patients with

A

hypertension, high risk for embolic events, current nicotine use, estrogen-dependent cancer.

59
Q

Doxorubicin is

A

Antineoplastic medication, can cause red discoloration of bodily fluids.

60
Q

A patient receiving general anesthesia has a temperature of 105*F. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication?

A

Dantrolene

Dantrolene is a medication used to treat the rare, but potentially fatal complication of general anesthesia known as malignant hyperthermia.

61
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of digoxin toxicity?

A

tachypnea
Digoxin toxicity may cause nausea, vomiting, fatigue/weakness, vision changes, bradycardia, and confusion.

62
Q

The nurse educates a patient beginning levofloxacin treatment to monitor for which of the following potential adverse effects?

A

Tendon rupture

Fluoroquinolones, such as levofloxaci, carry a black box warning for achilles tendon rupture.

63
Q

After a blood transfusion begins, the patient begins wheezing, reports dyspnea, and experiences hypotension with a decreased oxygen saturation. What does the nurse know to be the likely cause?

A

Anaphylactic tranfusion reaction

64
Q

Which term describes how a medication gets from the site of administration into the bloodstream?

A

Absorption

65
Q

A patient is being given oxytocin for labor inducement. The patients contractions have become too strong and too quick. The nurse prepares to give the patient which medication to relax the uterus?

A

Magnesium sulfate

66
Q

Nitro administration contraindicated with

A

Erectile Dysfunction Meds

Administration of nitroglycerin must be avoided in patients who have taken erectile dysfunction medications such as sildenafil within the past 24 hours.

67
Q

When should somatropin treatment of growth hormone deficiency be stopped?

A

Upon closure of the epiphyseal plate

68
Q

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes Hypokalemia, so the pt. is taught to eat hig potassium foods like

A

bananas, potatoes, avocadoes, and dark leafy greens.

69
Q

The nurse educates a patient taking pantoprazole to supplement which vitamin in their diet?

A

Vitamin D

Long term use of proton pump inhibitors can lead to bone fractures, so this patient should increase their intake of Vitamin D and calcium.

70
Q

For which side effect should the nurse monitor a patient who is taking apixaban?

A

Bleeding

The nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding in a patient taking the anticoagulant apixaban.

71
Q

Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic given for urinary burning, pain, frequency, or urgency. It may cause urine to become

A

Orange/Red

72
Q

The nurse educates a patient taking raloxifene to monitor for signs and symptoms which of the following potential complications?

A

Thromboembolic events

73
Q

Raloxifene is used to treat

A

osteoporosis and may decrease breast cancer risk. However, it can increase a patient’s risk for thromboembolic events such as DVT and PE.

74
Q

Which of the following types of analgesics should be avoided by a patient taking prednisone?

A

NSAIDS

75
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea. Which medication is this patient likely to be given?

A

Alosetron

*A patient with IBS diarrhea will be given alosetron. A patient with IBS constipation would be given lubiprostone.

76
Q

Which of the following medications is safe for a patient to take for the long-term maintenance of anxiety?

Lorazepam
Midazolam
Buspirone
Alprazolam

A

Buspirone

Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, alprazolam, midazolam) are indicated only in the short-term management of anxiety. Buspirone is safe to take for longer courses with little risk for dependence.

77
Q

Which B vitamin causes flusing of face?

A

Vit B3
Vitamin B3 (niacin) may cause transient flushing of the face.

78
Q

therapeutic serum level of theophylline is between

A

10 - 20 mcg/mL

79
Q

If a patient taking an MAOI eats food rich in tyramines, which complication is possible?

A

Hypertensive Crisis

80
Q

Which of the following medications is contraindicated for administration to a patient with asthma?

Metoprolol
Esmolol
Atenolol
Propranolol

A

Propranolol

*Cardioselective beta blockers (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol, esmolol) are safe for administration to patients with asthma. Nonselective betablockers such as propranolol are contraindicated.

81
Q

Patients taking lithium are at risk for developing

A

Hypothyroidism

82
Q

Which lab panel is the priority for a nurse to monitor when caring for a patient taking carbamazepine?

A

CBC

Carbamazepine can cause blood dycrasia.

83
Q

Atorvastatin should be administered with the

A

evening meal

84
Q

Tamoxifen is a medication which can be used to both prevent and treat which condition?

A

Breast Cancer

85
Q

he nurse is caring for a patient experiencing gastroparesis as a result of diabetes mellitus. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

A

Metoclopramide

Metoclopramide can be used to increase GI tract motility in patients experiencing gastroparesis.

86
Q

The nurse expects a patient taking allopurinol experiences which type of condition?

Acute gout
Muscular dystrophy
Multiple sclerosis
Chronic gout

A

Chronic Gout

87
Q

Amiodarone for

A

Vtach and Vfib

88
Q

Bile acid sequestrant (e.g., cholestyramine) may interfere with the absorption of fat-solube vitamins

A

vitamins A, D, E, and K

89
Q

Gentamicin is known to be

A

ototoxic and nephrotoxic.

The nurse should report the patient’s symptom of tinnitis, as this may indicate ototoxicity. The other findings are within normal limits.

90
Q

Which medication is used to soften and remove scales for patients with psoriasis?

A

Salicylic acid

91
Q

The nurse educates a patient to avoid long term use of phenylephrine nasal spray due to the risk for which complication?

A

Rebound congestion

92
Q

Which of the following is a consideration for patients taking isotretinoin?

A

Patients should take monthly pregnancy tests

*Isotretinoin is a highly teratogenic medication which requires a negative pregnancy test prior to starting therapy as well as monthly pregnancy tests.

93
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Muscle rigidity
Unstable blood pressure
Cardiac arrhythmias
Hypothermia

A

Hypothermia

94
Q

Cyanide toxicity is a possibel complication of treatment with

A

nitroprusside

95
Q

Atropine is indicated as an antidote to cholinergic medications such as

A

bethanechol, acetylcholine, pilocarpine, and carbachol.

96
Q

Which medication is most likely to be used in the treatment of an acute gout episode?

Allopurinol
Colchicine
Probenecid
Febuxostat

A

Colchicine

97
Q

Which of the following medications may be used both to treat depression and as a smoking deterrent?

A

Buproprion

98
Q

Epoiten alfa is used to stimulate

A

the bone marrow to increase production of red blood cells.

99
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are marked by

A

low back pain, fever/chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, and/or hypotension. Seizure is not typically associated.

100
Q

Which of the following shampoos is indicated for the treatment of lice?

A

1% permethrin

101
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

102
Q

Heparin monitor

A

aPTT

103
Q

A patient who receives which of the following medications is at risk for developing systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Procainamide

104
Q

Finasteride, a medication for

A

BPH and baldness

105
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient is prescribed finasteride. The nurse knows this medication comes with which warning?

A

Do not handle this medication if pregnant

106
Q

A nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient?

A

Increase your intake of calcium and vitamin D

107
Q

Which medication used to treat gastric ulcers is category X for pregnancy due to the risk of miscarriage?

A

Misoprostol

108
Q

The nurse administers nitroglycerin to a patient experiencing chest pain. Which of the following is not a common side effect of this medication?

Tachycardia
Hypotension
Headache
Bradycardia

A

Bradycardia

109
Q

stimulative vs non-stimulative laxatives

A

Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative. Psyllium, docusate sodium, and lactulose are classified as non-stimulant laxatives.

110
Q

The nurse is aware that unused portions of propofol must be discarded how soon after the bottle was first opened?

A

within 6 hours

*longer time open propofol - risk of bacterial contamination

Levelup RN (2 decks)

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