Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT 221 > Pharmacology Review #1 > Flashcards

Pharmacology Review #1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q 
Another name for Ipratropium Bromide is:
A) Albuterol
B) Atrovent
C) Ativan 
D) Versed
A

B) Atrovent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What class is albuterol Sulfate?
A) Bronchodilator 
B) Bronchoconstrictor 
C) Vasodilator 
D) Vasoconstrictor
A

A) Bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
What class of drug is Etomidate?
A) Anti-anxiety 
B) Sedative hypnotic
C) Paralytic 
D) Analgesic
A

B) Sedative hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which signs and symptoms are not considered adverse reactions of Epinephrine?
A) Ventricular dyshythmias;angina
B) Nausea; vomiting 
C) Hypotension; dizziness
D) Tachycardia, anxiety
A

C) Hypotension; dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following are contraindications in use of Succinylcholine except:
A) Patients with burn injuries
B) Hypokalemia
C) History of malignant hyperthermia
D) Doubtful of successful intubation of patient

A

B) Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which statement is false regarding Etomidate?
A) Etomidate is classified as a sedative
B) Etomidate produces an analgesic effect
C) Etomidate may cause myoclonus and tremors resembling seizures
D) Etomidate is used for anesthesia for RSI

A

B) Etomidate produces an analgesic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Possible side effects of magesium sulfate include all of the following Except:
A) Respiratory depression and/or paralysis
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypotension
D) Drowsiness

A

B) Hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
All of these are indications for field use for Methlyprednisolone Sodium Succinate except:
A) Reactive airway disease
B) Acute exacerbation of emphysema
C) Chronic bronchitis 
D) Burns to the arms
A

D) Burns to the arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
This parasympatholytic agent has been shown to be safe and effective bronchodilator when used in conjuction with beta adrenergic bronchodilators:
A) Albuterol
B) Solu-medrol
C) Ipratropium bromide
D) Benadryl
A

C) Ipratropium bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
This organic nitrate is a smooth muscle relaxant acting on vascular, uterine, bronchial and intestinal smooth muscle:
A) Adenosine 
B) Aminophylline
C) Magnesium Sulfate
D) Nitroglycerin
A

D) Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Succinylcholine works to block what neurotransmitter?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin
A

C) Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Your partner administers Epinephrine(1:1000) SQ to a patient having a severe asthma attack. Which of the following statements are true?
A) Epinephrine should be avoided in all asthma attacks due to risk of cardiovascular compromise
B) Epinephrine should be utilized in severe asthma attacks as an effective treatment
C) Epinephrine should only be utilized during cardiac streets
D) Epinephrine will not assist a patient having an asthma attack

A

B) Epinephrine should be utilized in severe asthma attacks as an effective treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
This drug acts by entering target cells and causes many complex reactions that are responsible for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects; though to stabilize cellular and intracellular membranes 
A) Methylprednisolone
B) Lidocaine
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Oxygen
A

A) Methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate is classified as what type of drug?
A) Parasympatholytic
B) Sympathomimetic
C) Synthetic adrenocorticoid
D) Antiarrythmic
A

C) Synthetic adrenocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Ipratropium Bromide is carried:
A) 5mg/3mL
B) 2.5 mg/mL
C) 500 mcg/2.5 mL
D) 1 g/ 2.5 mL
A

C) 500 mcg/2.5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following drugs may not be administered down the ET Tube?
A) Epinephrine
B) Atropine
C) Lidocaine
D) Diazepam
A

D) Diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
All contraindications in the use of Succinylcholine except:
A) Patients with burn injuries 
B) Hypokalemia
C) History of malignant hyperthermia
D) Doubtful of successful intubation
A

B) Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Magnesium Sulfate is used for?
A) Hyperreactive airway 
B) Torsade de pointes
C) Pregnancy induced hypertension
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
What is an adverse reaction to giving Etomidate?
A) Transient muscle movements
B) Tachycardia 
C) Bradycardia
D) Tachypnea
A

A) Transient muscle movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
For Ipatropium Bromide what is the Arizona drug box minimum requirement?
A) 3mL
B) 4 mL
C) 5 mL
D) 6 mL
A

C) 5 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
the duration of action for muscle paralysis with the administration of Succinylcholine is?
A) 1-2 minutes
B) 4-6 minutes
C) 1-2 hours
D) 4-6 hours
A

B) 4-6 minutes

22
Q 
You need to administer Epinephrine via ET tube during cardiac arrest. Your dose is 2 mg diluted to 10 mL. You have 30mg/30mL multi-dose vial. How many mL of epinephrine will you draw up? 
A) 20 mL 
B) 10 mL
C) 2 mL
D) 1 mL
A

C) 2 mL

23
Q 
Which of the following medications can be administered via the endotracheal route?
A) Atropine 
B) Benadryl
C) Sodium Bicarbonate
D) Glucagon
A

A) Atropine

24
Q 
Reactive airway disease, bronchial asthma, anaphylaxis are indications for use of which drugs?
A) Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate
B) Dextrose
C) Amiodarone
D) Bretylium Tosylate
A

A) Dexamethasone Sodium Phosphate

25
Q 
All of the following muscle disorders are contraindications for the use of Succinylcholine except:
A) Tardive Dyskinesia
B) Guillain-Barre Syndrome 
C) Myasthenia Gravis
D) Multiple Sclerosis
A

D) Multiple Sclerosis

26
Q 
The route of administration for Succinylcholine is?
A) IV 
B) ET 
C) IM
D) PO
A

A) IV

27
Q 
In addition to Epinephrine and Diphenhydramine, the medical control physician may order corticosteriods for anaphylactic reactions. Which of the following is this class of drugs?
A) Oxytocin 
B) Midazolam 
C) Thiamine 
D) Methylprednisolone
A

D) Methylprednisolone

28
Q 
Combines with cholinergic receptors of the motor end plate to produce depolarization?
A) Diazepam 
B) Etomidate
C) Morphine 
D) Succinycholine
A

D) Succinycholine

29
Q 
This medication has no analgesic effect, but produces hypnosis rapidly causing CNS depression and anesthesia;
A) Diazepam 
B) Etomidate
C) Morphine 
D) Succnylcholine
A

B) Etomidate

30
Q 
This medication is contraindicated in patients with pulmonary congestion and may precipitate if mixed with Sodium Bicarbonate or furosemide:
A) Amiodarone
B) Lidocaine
C) Verapamil
D) Diltiazem
A

A) Amiodarone

31
Q

All statements are ture regarding administration of Dopamine except:
A) Low ranges of Dopamine elevate pulmonary artery occlusive pressure inducing pulmonary edema
B) An antidote may be given after notification of an infiltration of the IV infusion to the physician
C) You can run the infusion wide open
D) An infusion pump is required for interfacility transports before transport of the patient

A

C) You can run the infusion wide open

32
Q

Which statement regarding Phenylephrine is true?
A) Phenylepinephrine is a topical vasodilator
B) Phenylepinephrine stimulates beta receptors causing constriction and decreasing risk of nasal bleeding
C) Phenylepinephrine adverse reactions can include hypertension, palpitations and tremors
D) Phenylepinephrine adult dosage is 1-2 sprays in each nostril after tube insertion

A

C) Phenylepinephrine adverse reactions can include hypertension, palpitations and tremors

33
Q

One of the mechanisms of action on the body caused by taking Aspirin is?
A) Increase platelet aggregation
B) Decreased platelet aggregation
C) Effects sodium and potassium channels
D) Slows depolarization

A

B) Decreased platelet aggregation

34
Q 
Under the controlled substances of act 1970, Morphine is listed as:
A) Schedule I substance 
B) Schedule II substance
C) Schedule II substance
D) Schedule IV substance
A

B) Schedule II substance

35
Q

The three main indications for obtaining vascular access in the field are:
A) To administer fluids, to administer medications and to obtain specimens
B) To administer parenteral nutrition, to administer medications to provide access for inserting a transvenous pacemaker
C) To administer medications, to administer parenteral nutrition and administer fluids
D) To obtain specimens, to provide access of inserting a transvenous pacemaker and to administer medications

A

A) To administer fluids, to administer medications and to obtain specimens

36
Q 
Side effects for epinephrine include all of the following except:
A) Tachycardia
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Increased myocardial demand
D) Hypotension
A

D) Hypotension

37
Q 
You have been ordered to administer 3 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine to your patient. Using 400 mg in 200 cc of NS, what is your drip rate using a 60 gtts set for a patient that weighs 200 lbs?
A) 5.11 gtts/min
B) 10.23 gtts/min
C) 15.10 gtts/min
D) 22.5 gtts/min
A

B) 10.23 gtts/min

38
Q 
Midazolam total dose should not exceed:
A) 5 mg 
B) 10 mg
C) 15 mg
D) 20 mg
A

D) 10 mg

39
Q 
What receptor does Epinephrine have an effect on?
A) Muscarinic
B) Nicotinic 
C) Adrenergic
D) Opiod
A

C) Adrenergic

40
Q

What special precaution is to be concerned with administration of Lorazepam?
A) Extreme caution in patients with hepatic disease
B) Inadvertent intra-rterial injection may produce arteriorspasm resulting in necrosis and potential amputation
C) Observe for signs of CHF, bradycardia or bronchospasm
D) May crystallize at low temperature and may need to be warmed in boiling water

A

B) Inadvertent intra-rterial injection may produce arteriorspasm resulting in necrosis and potential amputation

41
Q 
Which of the following medications can be given for anaphylactic reactions?
A) Bumetanide
B) Amiodarone 
C) Atropine 
D) Solu-medrol
A

D) Solu-medrol

42
Q

The mechanism of action on the body caused by administration of adenosine are
A) Increased heart rate, increased conduction velocity or mydriasis
B) Slows conduction time through AV node, slows sinus rate
C) Elevated ventricular threshold, prolongs action potential
D)Ventricular automacity, blocks potassium channels

A

B) Slows conduction time through AV node, slows sinus rate

43
Q 
If a drug is all Beta 1 agonist, the following clinical actions would be true, except:
A) Chronotropy
B) Dromotropy
C) Inotropy
D) Diastole
A

D) Diastole

44
Q 
at 1-2 mcg/kg/min, Dopamine mainly affects what receptors:
A) Dopaminergic receptors
B) Alpha receptors 
C) Beta 1 receptors
D) Beta 2 receptors
A

A) Dopaminergic receptors

45
Q 
This medication is considered a buffer, as it binds with Hydrogen ions.
A) Amiodarone 
B) Calcium Chloride
C) Magnesium Sulfate
D) Sodium Bicarbonate
A

D) Sodium Bicarbonate

46
Q 
What is the preferred dose and route of Glucagon?
A) 1 mg IV
B) 2 mg IV
C) 1 mg IM
D) 1 mg SQ
A

C) 1 mg IM

47
Q 
Side affects of Diazepam includes all of the following except:
A) Respiratory arrest
B) Tachycardia
C) Phlebitis
D) Coma
A

B) Tachycardia

48
Q 
You are infusing Lidocaine at 4 mg/min after converting VT. You have 2g/250mL of Lidocaine and are using a 60 gtts set. You would set your infusion rate at:
A) 15 gtts/min
B) 30 gtts/min
C) 45 gtts/min
D) 60 gtts/min
A

B) 30 gtts/min

49
Q 
Thiamine is also known as Vitamin\_\_\_?
A) B1
B) B2
C) B3
D) B4
A

A) B1

50
Q 
All of the following indications are for the administration of Racemic Epinephrine, except:
A) Epiglottis
B) Croup 
C) COPD 
D) Asthma
A

A) Epiglottis

EMT 221 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions