Pharmacology of Antibiotics Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the general antimicrobial spectra.

A

Aerobic gram positive (enterococci, staph and strep)
Aerobic gram negative (enterobacter, salmonella)
Anaerobic (Bacteroides, Clostridium)
Atypical bacteria (Chlamydia, Mycoplasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antibiotics have the best activity against atypical bacteria and why?

A

Tetracyclines, quinolones and macrolides have the best activity against atypical bacteria because they penetrate into host cells. These bacteria are intracellular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define bacteriostatic. When are bacteriostatic antibiotics most effective?

A

Bacteriostatic drugs stop the growth of bacteria. They are more efficacious if given early when infectious burden is lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe bactericidal drugs.

A

Kill bacteria. May be concentration dependent (a single, very large dose may eliminate infection) or be time-dependent (killing rate does not depend on concentration. Time within the therapeutic range is important).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give 3 examples of concentration dependent bactericidal antibiotics.

A

Aminoglycosides, quinolones and bacitracin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 5 examples of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics.

A

Beta lactams, vancomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin and metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give 5 examples of bacteriostatic antibiotics.

A

Chloramphenicol, clindamycin, macrolides, sulfonamides, tetracyclines and trimethoprim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three types of antibiotics that target the cell envelope?

A

Betalactams, glycopeptides and daptomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the adverse effects of beta lactams?

A

Most common are hypersensitivity (urticarial drug rash and fever) and anaphylaxis.
Less common effects include C difficile colitis and seizures (occur at high doses of IV penicillin, imipenem and meropenem).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is clavulanic acid? What is it’s mechanism of action?

A

Clavulanic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor that is often administered with amoxycillin. It has a beta lactam ring which is preferentially degraded by beta lactamases, thus increasing the plasma concentration of amoxycillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the indications for use of penicillins?

A

Drug of choice for many infections, Eg bacterial meningitis, infections of bone, joints, skin, soft tissue, throat, bronchi and urinary tract.
Gonnorhea and syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with penicillins?

A

Generally have very low toxicity, but may cause hypersensitivity or anaphylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the activity of narrow-spectrum penicillins.

A

Narrow spectrum penicillins are mainly active against gram positive organisms, but inactivated by beta lactamases.
Active against some gram negative, some anaerobes and some spirochetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is benzylpenicillin and benzathine penicillin.?

A

Penicillin G. Administered parenterally and is treatment of choice for susceptible infections if parenteral treatment is warranted. benzathine penicillin is the salt form of penicillin G, and Slowly releases penicillin G to provide low but long-lasting levels after a single dose. effective against bacteria with low MICs but requiring long exposure (e.g. syphylis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is procaine penicillin?

A

IM preparation designed to extend the half life of benzyl penicillin. Provides blood levels for up to 24 hours, but this is only adequate for highly susceptible organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is phenoxymethylpenicillin?

A

Penicillin V. Can be given orally due to acid stability, although food impairs absorption. Intrinsically less active than benzylpenicillin. Used for treating skin infections caused by strep pyrogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which narrow-spectrum penicillins have anti staphylococcal activity? Why do they have this activity?

A

flucloxacillin and dicloxacillin. They have anti staphylococcal activity because they are penicillase (beta lactamase) resistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Flucloxacillin and its rare side effect. Compare with dicloxacillin.

A

Flucloxacillin is rarely associated with cholestatic jaundice, particularly in older patients on prolonged therapy. May occur after oral or IV administration and up to 6 weeks after treatment. it may last for months, can be irreversible and sometimes fatal.
Dicloxacillin appears to cause less irreversible hepatotoxicity but results in more infusion phlebitis, and may be preferable for oral therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How should oral dicloxacillin or flucloxacillin be taken?

A

Half to one hour before food. Food reduces the absorption.

20
Q

Describe aminopenicillins, including spectrum, combination therapy and its side effects.

A

Moderate to broad spectrum: amino group increases hydrophilicity and allows entry into bacterial cells through porins of some enteric gram negative rods (E coli, S enteric) and are drugs of choice for enterococcal infections (anaerobic).
Vulnerable to betalactamases. Spectrum dramatically broadened by combining amoxycillin with clavulanic acid.
Amoxycillin and clavulanate can cause diarrhoea and hepatotoxicity, which occur more frequently than with amoxicillin alone.

21
Q

Compare oral and parenteral ampicillin with amoxicillin.

A

Amoxicillin is better absorbed orally than ampicillin, and is not significantly affected by food, and also requires fewer oral doses per day.
When administered parenterally, they are equivalent.

22
Q

Which penicillins have broad spectrum and antipseudomonal activity? How can their spectra be extended?

A

Piperacillin and ticarcillin are the only penicillins with activity against P aeruginosa. This is because their polar side chain increases their ability to pass through porins. High doses are required because passage through porins is slow.
They are also active against most aerobic G+ and G-, and nearly all anaerobes (not C difficile).
Spectra can be extended by combining ticarcillin with clavulanate, and piperacillin with tazobactam.

23
Q

Which has the broadest activity: piperacillin or ticarcillin?

A

Piperacillin.

24
Q

What is tazobactam and how does it work?

A

Tazobactam is combined with piperacillin to extend its spectrum of action. this combination is one of the most powerful antibiotics available. Tazobactam is a beta-lactamase inhibitor.

25
Q

Discuss the structure of cephalosporins.

A

Have a betalactam ring. Side chains determine antibacterial, pharmacological and pharmacokinetic properties.

26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins and penicillins?

A

affect cell wall synthesis of bacteria by inhibiting cross linking between peptidoglycan layers.

27
Q

What are the indications for use of cephalosporins? How may their action be prolonged?

A

Meningitis, pneumonia and septicaemia. Action may be prolonged by probenecid, which reduces the tubular secretion of cephalosporins.

28
Q

What is a precaution for the use of cephalosporins? What are common adverse effects of their use?

A

Cross-sensitivity may occur between penicillins and cephalosporins. Adverse effects include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and C difficile-assosciated disease, and superinfection with Candida and Enterococcus especially with broad spectrum and prolonged treatment.

29
Q

What are the moderate spectrum cephalosporins? What bacteria are they effective against?

A

Cephalexin, cephalothin and cephazolin. Active against strep and staph (including those that produce beta lactamase).
Inactive against MRSA, enterococci and Listeria.
Gram negative spectra includes E coli and Klebsiella.

30
Q

What are the moderate spectrum cephalosporins with anti-haemophilus activity? Compare to general cephalosporins.

A

Cefuroxime and cefaclor. More stable than standard mod-spec cephalosporins to some G- beta-lactamases. More active against H influenzae.

31
Q

What are the moderate spectrum cephalosporins with anti anaerobic activity? Describe them. Which drug has superior activity against anaerobes compared to these cephalosporins?

A

Cefoxitin has significant anaerobic activity with 60% to 70% of Bacteroides fragilis being susceptible. It has a limited role for prophylaxis in bowel and gynaecological surgery, and for treatment of severe pelvic inflammatory disease.
Metronidazole provides superior cover against most anaerobes.

32
Q

Describe the broad spectrum cephalosporins.

A

Cefotaxime and ceftriaxone cover the majority of CA enteric G- rods.
Ceftriaxone has a long half life. The activity of these drugs against Bacteroides fragilis varies, but neither is as active as cefoxitin.
Less active against staph, and not useful against enterococci or MRSA.

33
Q

Describe the broad spectrum cephalosporins with antipsuedomonal activity.
How are they inactivated?

A

Ceftazidime and cefepime are effective against the majority of G- rods, including P aeruginosa.
Both are inactivated by the extended-spectrum beta lactamases, and ceftazidime may be inactivated by the chromosomal cephalosporinases.
Ceftazidime is less active, and cefepime is more active against G+ organisms. selection of one of these drugs for use in hospital will depend on cost.

34
Q

What are the three carbapenems? How are they inactivated?

What is their spectrum?

A

Imipenem, meropenem and ertapenem. Inactivated by metallo-beta-lactamases.
Carbapenems are important broad-spectrum drugs and their use should be reserved.

35
Q

What is cilistatin used for?

A

Cilistatin is combined with imipenem to prevent the inactivation of the antibiotic by a renal dipeptidase.
Cilistatin is a dipeptidase inhibitor/

36
Q

What has been the consequence of wide-spread use of carbapenems?

A

Increasing prevalence of infections due to MRSA, vancomycin-resistant enterococci, multi resistant G- organisms and C difficile.

37
Q

Describe the spectrum and use of monobactams and give examples.

A

Aztreonam: bactericidal. Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding protein 3 of G- bacteria. May be given to people with severe penicillin hypersensitivity because of its lack of cross-reactivity with other beta-lactams.
Highly active against the majority of aerobic G- bact, including H influenza and Pseudomonas species.

38
Q

Describe vancomycin.

A

Glycopeptide designed to be given orally to kill bacteria in the gut. The molecule is too large to be absorbed. Gram negative bacteria are not susceptible.

39
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of glycopeptides, their spectrum.

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan formation.
Active against a wide range of G+ organisms (nearly all staph and strep). Some enterococci have developed resistance.
Not active against G- bacteria.

40
Q

Describe the use of glycopeptides.

A

Important in the treatment/prophylaxis of infection with MRSA or MR coagulase-negative staph.
Treatment of severe infection in patients with penicillin hypersensitivity, and in meningitis due to penicillin-resistant Strep pneumoniae.

41
Q

Why should vancomycin use be reserved?

A

Vancomycin has been given orally to treat antimicrobial-assosciated diarrhoea, but emergence of resistance in enterococci makes it essential to reserve it for use in severe cases that are unresponsive to metronidazole.

42
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of vancomycin?

A

Poorly absorbed (give by IV infusion or injection). Oral vancomycin is only used to treat C difficile-related colitis.

43
Q

Why must vancomycin be given by slow IV infusion? How can the effect be reduced?

A

To avoid anaphylactoid reaction “red man syndrome”.

Can treat with antihistamines, or using teicoplanin instead of vancomycin.

44
Q

What is a major adverse effect of vancomycin?

A

May cause hearing loss, especially when administered with an amino glycoside.

45
Q

What are the categories of Abx that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-lactams: Penicillins, carbapenems, monobactams, cephalosporins, glycopeptides