Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBEO 2017 > Pharmacology MOA > Flashcards

Pharmacology MOA Flashcards

1
Q

acetaminophen Tylenol

A

Pain killer; Unknown MOA; NOT anti-inflammatory

SE: hepatotoxicity!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acetazolamide Diamox

A

CAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acetylcysteine Mucomyst

A

Breaks up disulfide bonds in mucous

Topical can be rxed for filamentary keratitis, dry eye, corneal burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

acyclovir Zovirax

A

Herpes medication; inhibits DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

albuterol Ventolin

A

B2 agonist

SE: increases aqueous production/glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

allopurinol Zyloprim

A

Purine analog; inhibits purine synthesis

Treatment of gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

amantadine Symmetrel

A

Adrenergic agonist; Parkinson’s drug; dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

amiodarone Cordarone

A

Anti-arrhythmic drug; K channel blocker

SE: Whorl keratopathy, NAION, anterior subcapsular lens deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

amitriptyline Elavil

A

Anti-depressant; TCA; inhibits NE and serotonin reuptake

SE: anticholinergic effects; TCA overdose is life-threatening!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

amoxicillin Principen

A

Antibiotic; inhibits transpeptidase (cell wall synthesis)
Gram + (primary) and gram -
Safe in pregnancy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

amphotericin B Amphocin

A

Anti-fungal; binds to ergosterol and forms pores

Broad spectrum; SE: nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

apraclonidine Iopidine

A

Alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

atenolol Tenormin

A

Beta-1 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

atorvastatin Lipitor

A

HTN Medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

azathioprine Imuran

A

RA Treatment; purine analog; stops DNA/RNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

azelastine Optivar

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

azithromycin Zithromax

A

Antibiotic; Macrolide; Protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 50s ribosomal subunit
Tx of chlamydia; 1 gm dose
Tx of bacterial conjunctivitis, bleph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

benazepril Lotensin

A

HTN Med; ACE inhibitor

SE: cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bepotastine Bepreve

A

Mast cell stabilizer/Antihistamine combo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

besifloxacin Besivance

A

Fluoroquinolone (Gen 4); inhibits DNA synthesis via DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram - and +
Oral: CI pregnancy/children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

betaxolol Betoptic S

A

B1 selective Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bimatoprost Lumigan

A

Prostaglandin analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

botulinum toxin Botox

A

Parasympathetic antagonist; blocks aceytlcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

brimonidine Alphagan P

A

Alpha 2 agonist

Decreases aqueous production and increases uveoscleral outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

brinzolamide Azopt

A

CAI

Decreases aqueous production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bromfenac Xibrom

A

NSAID; COX 1 and 2 inhibotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bromocriptine Parlodel

A

Parkinson’s drug; dopamine agonist

Also used to treat pituitary adenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

brompheniramine Dimetane

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Antihistamine; 1st gen H1 blocker

SE: sedation, mydriasis, dry eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

captopril Capoten

A

HTN Med; ACE Inhibitor

SE: cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

carteolol Ocupress

A

Beta blocker (sympathomimetic activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ceftriaxone Rocephin

A

Antibiotic; 3rd gen cephalosporin
Treatment of choice for gonococcal conjunctivitis and orbital cellulitis
Gram + and -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

celecoxib Celebrex

A

NSAID; Selective cox 2 inhibitor; Protects stomach lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cephalexin Keflex

A

Antibiotic; 1st gen cephalosporin; inhibits transpeptidase

Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cetirizine Zyrtec

A

2nd gen anti-histamine; H1 blocker

SE: oculogyric crisis! (abnormal EOM contractions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

chloramphenicol Chloromycetin

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 50s ribosomal subunit
Gram + and -
SE of topical: Fatal aplastic anemia, optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

chloroquine Aralen

A

Malaria treatment; results in the buildup of heme, inhibits phospholipase A
SE: Whorl keratopathy, bulls eye maculopathy
Risk increases if > 2.3 mg/kg of real body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

chlorothiazide Diuril

A

HTN Drug; Thiazide diuretic; inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
SE: acute transient myopia, angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

chlorpheniramine Chlor-Trimeton

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-histamine; 1st gen H1 blocker

SE: sedation, mydriasis, dry eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

chlorpromazine Thorazine

A

Antipsychotic; Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-psychotic; dopamine antagonist
SE: Parkinson-like effects, pigmentation effects, anticholinergic effects, oculogyric crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

chlorpropamide Diabinese

A

Diabetes med; sulfonurea; increases the secretion of insulin by beta cells
SE: hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cholestyramine Questran

A

Cholesterol medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cimetidine Tagamet

A

Anti-histamine; H2 blocker

Prevents stomach ulcers/acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ciprofloxacin Ciloxan or Cipro

A

Antibiotic; fluoroquinolone (gen 2); Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis via DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram -
Oral: CI pregnancy/children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

clarithromycin Biaxin

A

Antibiotic; macrolide; protein synthesis inhibitor; 50s ribosomal subunit inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

clindamycin Cleocin

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; binds reversibly to the 50s ribosomal subunit
Treatment of MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

clonidine Catapres

A

HTN med; Alpha 2 agonist

SE: dry mouth, sedation, impotence, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cromolyn sodium Crolom

A

Mast cell stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

cyclobenzaprine Flexeril

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Muscle relaxant

SE: anticholinergic effects ie. dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

cyclopentolate Cyclogyl

A

Muscarinic antagonist; max effect 45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

cyclosporine Neoral or

Sandimmune

A

Restasis! Immunomodulator; inhibits production of interleukin-2 and therefore inhibits T Cells
SE (oral): reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome: HA, seizures, visual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

dexamethasone Maxidex

A

Steroid

Inhibits phospholipase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

dextroamphetamine Dexedrine

A

ADHD Drug; dopamine agonist

SE: mydriasis, dry eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

diazepam Valium

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-anxiety med; opens chloride channels by bidning to GABA (inhibitory) receptors
SE: anticholinergic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

diclofenac Voltaren

A

NSAID

COX 1 and 2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

dicloxacillin Dynapen

A

Antibiotic; Cell wall synthesis/transpeptidase inhibitor
Gram +; Resistant to penicillinase
Safe in pregnancy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

difluprednate Durezol

A

Steroid

Inhibits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

digoxin Lanoxin

A

HTN Drug; Na/K pump inhibitor

SE: retrobulbar optic neuritis, B/Y color defects, entopic phenomenon (snowy, dimming vision)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

diltiazem Cardizem

A

HTN med; Calcium channel blocker; decreases smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

diphenhydramine Benadryl

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-histamine; 1st gen H1 blocker

SE: sedation, mydriasis, dry eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

dipyridamole Persantine

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

donepezil Aricept

A

Cholinergic agonist; acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
Treatment of Alzheimer’s dz
SE: reduced IOP due to indirect cholinergic agonist activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

dorzolamide Trusopt

A

CAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

echothiophate Phospholine

A

Indirect parasympathetic agonist; inhibits acetocholinesterase
Long-lasting effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

edrophonium Enlon

A

AKA Tensilon test; Indirect cholinergic agonist

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

emedastine Emadine

A

Antihistamine; H1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

enalapril Vasotec

A

HTN Med; ACE inhibitor

SE: cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

epinastine Elestat

A

H1 antagonist/Mast Cell Stablizer Combo

BEZ POP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

esomeprazole Nexium

A

Treatment of GERD; proton pump inhibitor (inhibits H/K ATPase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ethambutol Myambutol

A

TB med; inhibits arabinosyl transferase

SE: optic neuritis (bilateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

famciclovir Famvir

A

Anti-viral; Treatment of Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

famotidine Pepcid

A

Anti-histamine; H2 blocker

Prevents stomach ulcers/acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

fexofenadine Allegra

A

2nd gen anti-histamine; H`1 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

fluconazole Diflucan

A

Anti-fungal; inhibits ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

fluorometholone FML

A

Steroid (mild)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

fluoxetine Prozac

A

Anti-depressant; SSRI

SE: mydriasis, serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

flurbiprofen Ocufen

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

fluticasone Flonase or

Flovent

A

Steroid; inhibits phospholipase A2

SE: cataracts, increased IOP, dry eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

foscarnet Foscavir

A

Anti-viral; DNA polymerase inhibitor

“Safety net if gancyclovir fails”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

furosemide Lasix

A

HTN Med; loop diuretic; inhibits Na/2Cl/K co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

ganciclovir Zirgan

A

Treatment of Herpes; inhibits DNA polymerase

Tx: HSV keratitis, CMV retinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

gatifloxacin Zymar

A

Fluoroquinolone (gen 4); Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis via DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram - and +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

gemfibrozil Lopid

A

Cholesterol medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

gentamicin Garamycin

A

Antibiotic; Aminoglycoside; inhibits 30s ribosomal subunit; protein synthesis inhibitor
Gram - and +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

glipizide Glucotrol

A

DM Medication; sulfonurea; increases secretion of insulin by beta cells
SE: hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

glyburide Diabeta or

Micronase

A

DM Medication; sulfonurea; increases secretion of insulin by beta cells
SE: hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

glycerin Osmoglyn

A

Hyperosmotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

griseofulvin Grifulvin V

A

Anti-fungal; inhibits fungal mitosis, interferes with microtubule formation
“Greasy scalp, nails”

88
Q

hydralazine Apresoline

A

HTN Drug; increases cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation

89
Q

hydrochlorothiazide Hydrodiuril

A

HTN Drug; Thiazide diuretic; inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
SE: acute transient myopia, angle closure glaucoma

90
Q

hydrocortisone Cortef

A

Steroid; Inhibits phospholipase A

91
Q

hydroxychloroquine Plaquenil

A

Anti-malarial drug; inhibits phospholipase A2 and causes a buildup of heme
SE: Whorl keratopathy, bull’s eye maculopathy
Risk increased if dose >5 mg/kg/day body weight

92
Q

ibuprofen Motrin or

Advil

A

NSAID; reversibly inhibits COX 1 and 2

CI in coronary artery dz/stroke

93
Q

imipramine Tofranil

A

Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-depressant; TCA; inhibits NE and serotonin reuptake
SE: anticholinergic effects; TCA overdose is life threatening!!!

94
Q

indomethacin Indocin

A

NSAID; reversible COX-1 and 2 inhibitor
CI in coronary artery dz/stroke
SE: whorl keratopathy, retinal pigmentary changes

95
Q

ipratropium Atrovent

A

Cholinergic antagonist; muscarinic blockade/bronchodilation

SE: pupil dilation/angle closure

96
Q

isoniazid Nydrazid

A

TB drug; inhibits mycolic acid/cell wall synthesis

SE: optic neuritis, hepatotoxicity

97
Q

isoproterenol Isuprel

A

Nonselective Beta agonist

98
Q

isotretinoin Accutane

A

Acne treatment

99
Q

ketoconazole Nizoral

A

Anti-fungal; inhibits ergosterol synthesis

100
Q

ketorolac Acular or

Toradol

101
Q

ketotifen Zaditor

A

Anti-histamine

102
Q

labetalol Trandate

A

HTN Med; Non-selective beta-antagonist

103
Q

latanoprost Xalatan

A

Prostaglandin analog

104
Q

levalbuterol Xopenex

A

B2 agonist

SE: increases aqueous production/glaucoma

105
Q

levobunolol Betagan

106
Q

levofloxacin Quixin

A

Antibiotic (fluoroquinolone gen 3); inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram - and +
Oral AND topical: CI pregnancy/children

107
Q

levothyroxine Synthroid

A

Thyroid med; synthetic T4 hormone

SE: pseudotumor cerebri

108
Q

lidocaine Xylocaine

109
Q

lindane Kwell

A

Lice treatment; absorbed through the exoskeleton of insects; leads to seizures and death

110
Q

lisinopril Prinivil or

Zestril

A

HTN Med; ACE inhibitor

SE: cough

111
Q

lodoxamide Alomide

A

Mast cell stabilizer

112
Q

loratadine Claritin

A

2nd gen anti-histamine (H1 antagonist)

113
Q

losartan Cozaar

A

HTN Med; angiotensin II receptor antagonist

114
Q

loteprednol Alrex or

Lotemax

115
Q

lovastatin Mevacor

116
Q

mannitol Osmitrol

A

HTN Med; Hyperosmotic

SE: dry eye

117
Q

meperidine Demerol

A

Opiate analgesic; agonist at mu, kappa, delta opiate receptors
SE: miosis, papilledema

118
Q

metaproterenol Alupent

A

B2 agonist

SE: increases aqueous production/glaucoma

119
Q

metformin Glucophage

A

Diabetes med; biguanide; decreases gluconeogenesis

Does not cause hypoglycermia

120
Q

methazolamide Neptazane

121
Q

methotrexate Rheumatrex

A

Rheumatoid arthritis treatment; inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
SE: myelosuppression/opportunistic infections

122
Q

methylphenidate Ritalin

A

ADHD drug; dopamine agonist

SE: mydriasis, dry eyes

123
Q

metipranolol OptiPranolol

A

Beta blocker

124
Q

metoprolol Lopressor

A

HTN med; Beta-1 blocker

Spares the lungs

125
Q

metronidazole MetroGel or

MetroCream

A

Anti-fungal

126
Q

miconazole Monistat-Derm

A

Anti-fungal; inhibits ergosterol synthesis

127
Q

montelukast Singulair

A

Asthma drug; leukotriene receptor antagonist

128
Q

moxifloxacin Vigamox or

Avelox

A

Antibiotic; Fluoroquinolone (4th gen); inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram - and +
Oral: CI pregnancy/children

129
Q

naloxone Narcan

A

Opiate antagonist

130
Q

naphazoline Naphcon

A

Alpha 1 agonist

131
Q

naproxen Aleve

A

NSAID; reversibly inhibits COX-1 and 2

CI in coronary artery dz/stroke

132
Q

natamycin Natacyn

A

Anti-fungal; binds to ergosterol and forms pores

133
Q

nedocromil Tilade

134
Q

neostigmine Prostigmin

A

Indirect cholinergic agonist; acetocholinesterase inhibitor

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

135
Q

nepafenac Nevanac

136
Q

nifedipine Procardia

A

HTN med; Calcium channel blocker; decreases smooth muscle contraction

137
Q

nystatin Mycostatin

A

Antifungal; Binds to ergosterol and forms pores

Not indicated for ophthalmic use

138
Q

ofloxacin Ocuflox

A

Antibiotic; fluoroquinolone (2nd gen); inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
Gram -
Oral: CI pregnancy/children

139
Q

olopatadine Patanol

A

H1 antagonist/mast cell stabilizer

140
Q

omeprazole Prilosec

A

Anti-histamine; H2 blocker

Prevents stomach ulcers/acid reflux

141
Q

oseltamivir Tamiflu

A

Treatment of influenza; inhibits viral neuraminidase

142
Q

oxycodone Roxicodone

A

Opiate analgesic; agonist at mu, kappa, delta opiate receptors
SE: miosis, papilledema

143
Q

pegaptanib Macugen

144
Q

pemirolast Alamast

A

Mast cell stabilizer

145
Q

penicillamine Cuprimine

146
Q

phenelzine Nardil

A

Cholinergic antagonist; anti-depressant; MAOI

SE: glaucoma, nystagmus, interactions with other drugs, lethal HTN crisis

147
Q

phenobarbital Luminal

A

Anticonvulsant; reduces glutamtergic excitatory transmissions by blocking AMPA receptors
SE: mydriasis, increased IOP, cycloplegia
LDT “limits debilitating tremors”

148
Q

phenylephrine Neo-Synephrine

A

A1 agonist

149
Q

phenytoin Dilantin

A

Anticonvulsant; acts on multiple neurotransmitters
Side effect: nystagmus, EOM palsies, diplopia
“Limits debilitating tremors”

150
Q

pioglitazone Actos

A

Diabetes med; thiazolidinedione; activates PPAR-gamma to increase glucose uptake
Combats insulin resistance
SE: hypoglycemia, macular edema

151
Q

piroxicam Feldene

A

NSAID; reversible COX-1 and 2 inhibitor

CI in coronary artery dz/stroke

152
Q

pralidoxime Protopam

153
Q

prazosin Minipress

A

BPH med; Alpha-1 antagonist; relaxes smooth muscle

SE: floppy iris syndrome

154
Q

promethazine Phenergan

A

Anti-histamine; 1st gen H1 blocker

SE: sedation, mydriasis, dry eyes, corneal endothelial pigmentation, pigmentary retinopathy

155
Q

proparacaine Ophthaine

A

Topical NSAID

156
Q

propranolol Inderal

A

HTN med; Non-selective beta-blocker

157
Q

pseudoephedrine Sudafed

A

Non-selective alpha and beta agonist; treatment of cold symptoms
SE: diplopia, blurred vision, increased IOP, tachycardia

158
Q

pyridostigmine Mestinon

A

Myasthenia Gravis Treatment; Indirect cholinergic agonist; aceytlcholinesterase inhibitor

159
Q

pyrimethamine Daraprim

A

Antibiotic; DNA/folate synthesis inhibitor via dihdrofolate reductase
Treatment of toxoplasmosis
SE: Bone marrow suppression/aplastic anemia

160
Q

ranibizumab Lucentis

161
Q

ranitidine Zantac

A

Anti-histamine; H2 blocker

Prevents stomach ulcers/acid reflux

162
Q

ribavirin Copegus or

Rebetol

A

Hep C Drug; RNA polymerase inhibitor
SE: RIBAViriN
Retinal detachment, ischemia, bleeding, artery/vein occlusions, optic neuritis

163
Q

rifampin Rifadin

A

TB Drug; inhibits RNA polymerase

SE: pink tears/urine

164
Q

rimexolone Vexol

165
Q

salmeterol Serevent

A

Long-acting Beta 2 agonist

SE: increases aqueous production/glaucoma

166
Q

sildenafil Viagra

A

ED Drug; Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; Increase blood flow

Side effects: sub-conj hemes, cyanopsia, photosensitivity

167
Q

simvastatin Zocor

168
Q

sodium chloride Muro-128

A

Topical hyperosmotic

169
Q

spironolactone Aldactone

A

HTN med; potassium-sparing diuretic; blocks the action of aldosterone in the late distal convoluted tubule; increases secretion of sodium and water

170
Q

sucralfate Carafate

A

Gastric lining protector; H2 blocker

Binds to damaged stomach ulcer tissue

171
Q

sulfacetamide Sulamyd

A

Antibiotic; Sulfa drug; DNA/folate inhibitor via dihydropteroate synthase

172
Q

sulfadiazine Microsulfan

A

Antibiotic; Sulfa drug; DNA/folate synthesis inhibitor via dihydropteroate synthase
Treatment of toxoplasmosis

173
Q

sulfamethoxazole Gantanol

A

Antibiotic; Sulfa drug; DNA/Folate synthesis inhibitor via dihydropteroate synthase

174
Q

sulfisoxazole Gantrisin

A

Antibiotic; sulfa drug; DNA inhibitor; inhibits folate synthesis via dihydropteroate synthase

175
Q

sumatriptan Imitrex

A

Migraine therapy; 5-HT1B and 1D receptor agonist; causes vasoconstriction and reduces inflammation in the CNS
SE: NAION, artery occlusions, venous thromboses

176
Q

tamoxifen Nolvadex

A

Estrogen receptor competetive partial inhibitor
Breast cancer treatment
SE: crystalline retinopathy, whorl keratopathy

177
Q

tamsulosin Flomax

A

BPH drug; Alpha-1 antagonist; relaxes smooth muscle

SE: floppy iris syndrome

178
Q

terazosin Hytrin

A

BPH drug; Alpha-1 antagonist; relaxes smooth muscle

SE: floppy iris syndrome

179
Q

terbutaline Brethine

A

B2 agonist

SE: increases aqueous production/glaucoma

180
Q

tetrahydrozoline Visine

A

A2 agonist

181
Q

theophylline Theo-Dur

A

Bronchodilator; inhibits phosphodiesterase

182
Q

thioridazine Mellaril

A

Antipsychotic; Cholinergic antagonist; Anti-psychotic; dopamine antagonist
SE: Parkinson-like effects, pigmentation effects, anticholinergic effects, oculogyric crisis

183
Q

timolol Timoptic

184
Q

tobramycin Tobrex

A

Antibiotic; aminoglycoside; inhibits 30s subunit of ribosomal protein
Gram - and +

185
Q

tramadol Ultram

A

Analgesic; Mu opiate receptor agonist, inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine uptake

186
Q

travoprost Travatan

A

Glaucoma drug; Prostaglandin analog
Higher efficacy in African Americans
33% IOP reduction

187
Q

triamcinolone Aristocort or

Kenalog

A

Steroid; inhibits phospholipase A2

SE: elevated IOP, endophthalmitis

188
Q

triamterene Dyrenium

A

HTN Med; potassium-sparing diuretic; blcosk ENaCs in the late distal convoluted tubule

189
Q

trifluridine Viroptic

A

Herpes drug; Inhibits DNA polymerase

Tx of Herpes simplex keratitis

190
Q

trimethoprim Primsol

A

Antibiotic; DNA/folate synthesis inhibitor via dihydrofolate reductase
Side effect: Aplastic anemia- treats marrow poorly

191
Q

tropicamide Mydriacyl

A

Acetylcholine antagonist

192
Q

valacyclovir Valtrex

A

Herpes drug; inhibits DNA polymerase

193
Q

vardenafil Levitra

A

ED Drug; phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; increases blood flow

SE: sub-conj hemes, cyanopsia, photosensitivity

194
Q

verapamil Calan or Isoptin

A

HTN med; Calcium channel blocker; decreases smooth muscle contraction

195
Q

warfarin Coumadin

A

Anti-clotting drug; vitamin K antagonist

196
Q

zafirlukast Accolate

A

Asthma drug; leukotriene receptor antagonist

197
Q

zidovudine Retrovir

A

AIDS drug; inhibits reverse transcriptase

198
Q

Bacitracin

A

Antibiotic; inhibits transfer of peptidoglycans

Gram + bacteria

199
Q

Clavulonic Acid

A

Penicillinase inhibitor (used with amoxicillin to make Augmentin)

200
Q

Tetracycline

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 30s ribosomal subunit
CI in pregnancy; leads to blue sclera, pseudotumor cerebri, pigmented conjunctival cysts

201
Q

Doxycycline

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 30s ribosomal subunit
CI in pregnancy; leads to blue sclera, pseudotumor cerebri, pigmented conjunctival cysts
Treatment of MRSA!

202
Q

Minocycline

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 30s ribosomal subunit
CI in pregnancy; leads to blue sclera, pseudotumor cerebri, pigmented conjunctival cysts

203
Q

Lincomycin

A

Antibiotic; protein synthesis inhibitor; reversibly inhibits 50s ribosomal subunit

204
Q

Erythromycin

A

Antibiotic; Macrolide; protein synthesis inhibitor; inhibits 50s ribosomal subunit
Prophylaxis of gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum

205
Q

Bactrim

A

Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

Treatment of MRSA

206
Q

Aspirin

A

NSAID; irreversible COX-1 and 2 inhibitor

Associated with Reye’s syndrome in children

207
Q

Misoprostol

A

Synthetic prostaglandin E1; protects stomach lining

Tx: NSAID-induced stomach ulcers

208
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Direct cholinergic agonist

209
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Direct cholinergic agonist

210
Q

Bethanechol

A

Direct cholinergic agonist

211
Q

Carbachol

A

Direct cholinergic agonist

212
Q

Escitalopram Lexapro

A

Anti-depressant; SSRI

SE: mydriasis, serotonin syndrome

213
Q

Venlafaxine Effexor

A

Anti-depressant; SNRI

214
Q

Duloxetine Cymbalta

A

Anti-depressant; SNRI

215
Q

Bupropion Wellbutrin

A

Anti-depressant/Smoking cessation; SNRI

216
Q

Topiramate Topamax

A

Anti-convulsant; multiple CNS effects

SE blurred vision, myopia, diplopia, nystagmus, angle closure glaucoma

217
Q

Rosiglitazone Avandia

A

Diabetes med; thiazolidinedione; activates PPAR-gamma to increase glucose uptake
Combats insulin resistance
SE: macular edema, hypoglycemia

NBEO 2017 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions