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Pharmacology II Final > Pharmacology II Final > Flashcards

Pharmacology II Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which cell types in the body are the most common innocent by-standers affected by chemotherapy? Two most common side effects?

A

Rapidly-Dividing Cells

  1. Gastrointestinal disturbances (V/D)
  2. Bone marrow suppression
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2
Q

How do we monitor the negative side effects of chemotherapy usage on bone marrow? Which cells do we decrease and in what order generally?

A

Rechecking CBC’s

Neutropenia > Thrombocytopenia > Anemia

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3
Q

Term for the important number we are monitoring for when rechecking CBC’s on chemotherapy patients?

A

Nadir

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4
Q

Which alkylating chemotherapeutic agent can cause sterile hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide
Admin: IV or PO
Requires hepatic bioactivation

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5
Q

Which alkylating chemotherapeutic agent is commonly used as an immunosuppressant?

A

Chlorambucil
Admin: PO
Requires hepatic bioactivation

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6
Q

Which alkylating chemotherapeutic agent is the treatment of choice for multiple myeloma?

A

Melphalan
Admin: PO
Does NOT require hepatic activation

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7
Q

What are your four alkylating (nitrogen mustard and nitrosurea) chemotherapeutic agents?

A

Cyclophosphamide
Chlorambucil
Melphalan
Lomustine

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8
Q

Which alkylating chemotherapeutic agent has major side effects of thrombocytopenia and irreversible chronic hepatotoxicity? Mainly used for?

A

Lomustine
Admin: PO
CNS disease due to wide distribution

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9
Q

T/F: Alkylating chemotherapeutic drugs are considered cell-cycle specific.

A

FALSE; they are cell-cycle NON-specific

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10
Q

T/F: Platinum containing chemotherapeutic drugs are considered cell-cycle non-specific.

A

True; MOA similar to alkylating agents

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11
Q

Which “big gun” chemotherapeutic agent is absolutely contraindicated for use in CATS? Other side effects?

A

Cisplatin
“Splats Cats”
Nephrotoxicity
Myelosuppression

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12
Q

Which platinum containing chemotherapeutic agent does NOT require saline diuresis and CAN be used in cats? Drawback?

A

Carboplatin; may not be as effective in some cancers but is considered “less toxic”

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13
Q

What is the most commonly used cytotoxic antibiotic? Major risk?

A

Doxorubicin

Potent vesicant!

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14
Q

Breeds predisposed to cardiotoxicity associated with doxorubicin administration?

A

Dobies, Rotties, other giant breeds

POSSIBLY MDR1 mutants

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15
Q

Which category of chemotherapeutics is S-phase specific? Outcome?

A

Anti-metabolites

Interferes w/DNA synthesis

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16
Q

Main difference between anti-metabolite chemotherapeutic drugs methotrexate and cytosine arabinoside?

A

Methotrexate DOES NOT enter CNS while cytosine arabinoside does

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17
Q

Which category of chemotherapeutics is M-phase specific? Outcome?

A

Microtubule inhibitors

Prevents mitosis

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18
Q

What are two commonly used chemotherapeutics that are potent vesicants?

A

Doxorubicin (anti-metabolite)

Vincristine (microtubule inhibitor)

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19
Q

Name the two commonly used microtubule inhibitors of chemotherapeutic drugs.

A

Vincristine
VESICANT
Vinblastine

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20
Q

Which category of chemotherapeutics is mainly G-phase specific? Outcome? Common use?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Inhibits transcellular membrane protein
MAST CELL TUMORS!

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21
Q

Pros and cons of the melanoma vaccine?

A

Highly effective
VERY expensive
Available only through veterinary oncologist

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22
Q

Three commonly used non-chemo, anti-cancer drugs commonly used?

A

Peroxicam
Bisphosphonates
Prednisone/Prednisolone

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23
Q

Peroxicam commonly used as adjunct or sole treatment for what condition?

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma of the bladder!

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24
Q

Many cancers express COX-2. In which one specifically is it most common to see?

A

Carcinomas

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25
Q

Main neoplasia pathology that calls for the use of bisphosphonates?

A

Neoplasias with osteoclastic activity

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26
Q

Which group of animals generally should not receive oral penicillins? Antibiotic of choice?

A

Guinea pigs; enrofloxacin!

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27
Q

If you cannot do a full culture, what other helpful diagnostic can you perform?

A

Gram stain

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28
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotic that induces microsomal enzymes and to which resistance develops rapidly? Which pharmacologic agent used as an adjunct to chemotherapy also induces rapid resistance?

A

Rimfampin

Prednisone/Prednisolone

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29
Q

Macrolide antibiotic that is also used as a GI prokinetic?

A

Erythromycin

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30
Q

Carbapenem antibiotic that is used SQ?

A

Meropenem

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31
Q

Fluoroquinolones inhibit function of what enzyme?

A

DNA gyrase

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32
Q

Acts on the 30S ribosomal subunit and can cause yellow discoloration of teeth in young animals?

A

Tetracycline

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33
Q

Antibiotics that act as cationic detergents to disrupt cell membranes?

A

Polymyxin

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34
Q

Antimicrobial resistance due to mutation within the microbe?

A

Chromosomal

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35
Q

The two major toxicities seen with aminoglycosides?

A

NEPHROTOXICITY

Ototoxicity

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36
Q

Resistance that is due to normal lack of the antimicrobial target in the bacteria?

A

Intrinsic

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37
Q

Class of antibiotics that are good against gram (-) as well as mycoplasma?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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38
Q

Pus is so rich in this that it can overcome the action of sulfonamides.

A

PABA; it takes thousands of molecules of sulfa to compete with one molecule of PABA

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39
Q

Which natural penicillin should not be given IV?

A

Pen-G

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40
Q

What pharmacologic is banned in food animal due to risk of aplastic anemia in humans?

A

Chloramphenicol

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41
Q

One of the most common adverse effects seen with sulfonamide use in dogs. Which breed is particularly sensitive?

A

KCS; Dobies!

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42
Q

What is a major consideration with the use of oral sulfonamides in large animal?

A

Alteration of GI flora!

Major caution with oral use

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43
Q

Which class is synergistic with penicillins IN VIVO but incompatible IN VITRO?

A

Aminoglycosides

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44
Q

Streptogramins work on what subunit of the ribosome?

A

50s

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45
Q

Clindamycin is a member of what subclass of antibiotics that has good anaerobic activity?

A

Lincosamides

46
Q

Specific treatment for tritrichomonas n felines?

A

Ronidazole

47
Q

What is the last resort antibiotic for MRSA in humans that prevents attachment of the ribosome to mRNA?

A

Linezolid

48
Q

What is the cell wall disrupting antibiotic that is often used topically to avoid toxicity?

A

Bacitracin

49
Q

Azithromycin and some other macrolides have extended effects due to accumulation in what?

A

phagocytes

50
Q

Trimethoprim is an example of a drug that inhibits what?

A

Dihydrofolatereductase
(DHFR)
Pyrimethamine also

51
Q

What other specific diagnostic test do sulfa’s interfere with in felines?

A

Thyroid testing!

52
Q

Which antibiotic is often used with other antibiotics for anaerobic infections and which also has imunomodulatory effects?

A

Metronidazole

53
Q

Term for the lowest antimicrobial concentration at which point bacterial replication is halted.

A

MIC

54
Q

What is a beta-lactamase inhibitor commonly combined with amoxicillin?

A

Clavulanic acid

55
Q

What is the first-gen cephalosporin that is used intra-mammary to treat mastitis in cattle?

A

cephapirin

56
Q

What is the 3rd generation cephalosporin that is a pro-drug ester converted to the active ingredient after absorption?

A

Cefpodoxime

57
Q

T/F: For a time-dependent antibiotic, you would administer the medication once daily.

A

FALSE; time-dependent antibiotics require MORE frequent dosing schedules

58
Q

What tetracycline is used orally but can cause esophageal irritation?

A

doxycycline

59
Q

Which macrolide is particularly prone to causing cardiac issues (cardiotoxicity) if given IV?

A

Tilmcosin!

Doxorubicin is the chemotherapeutic agent that also causes cardiotoxicity in large breed dogs

60
Q

Commensal bacteria can act as what for resistance genes?

A

Reservoir

61
Q

The kidney, liver, nervous system, bone marrow and GI tract are common sites for what with regard to antimicrobials?

A

Toxicity

62
Q

A nonselective toxic chemical applied topically to kill microorganisms is called what?

A

Antiseptic

63
Q

Activated charcoal products may or may not contain what cathartic?

A

Sorbitol

64
Q

What is a cathartic?

A

Product that encourages defecation.

65
Q

Name for substances secreted by microorganisms to inhibit other microorganisms?

A

Antibiotics

66
Q

Stimulation of H2 receptors in the stomach increases production of what?

A

Acid

67
Q

Transferable drug resistance involves what three mechanisms?

A

Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation

68
Q

Pepto bismol (bismuth subsalicylate) often turns feces what color?

A

Black

69
Q

Stimulation of H1 receptors often causes lungs to do what?

A

constrict

70
Q

Term for when a group of susceptible animals are treated with antibiotics after exposure to a pathogen to prevent disease.

A

Metaphylaxis

71
Q

Which opioid anti-diarrheal agent is kept out of the CNS by the P-glycoprotein efflux pump?

A

Loperamide

Immodium

72
Q

The minimum antibiotic concentration to induce death of bacterium is termed what?

A

Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC)

73
Q

Nephrotoxicity of some drugs can be potentiated by concurrent use of what other drugs?

A

Diuretics

74
Q

What is the H2 blocker used to treat equine melanoma?

A

Cimetidine

75
Q

T/F: Antibiotics that target cell membranes tend to be less toxic.

A

FALSE; they tend to be MORE toxic

76
Q

Name the two H2-blockers that exhibit pro-kinetic actions in the dog.

A

Ranitidine

Nizatidine

77
Q

What dopamine antagonist has less CNS penetration than metoclopromaide and is used more often in equines? Clinical use?

A

Domperidone; PPID

78
Q

Chromosomal mutation and transferable drug resistance represent what type of resistance?

A

Acquired

79
Q

Antibiotics that work best when a high level of drug is reached are called what? Good example?

A

Concentration-dependent
These drugs often exhibit a Post-Antibiotic Effect (PAE)
Aminoglycosides

80
Q

Antibiotics that work best by inhibiting protein synthesis commonly fall into what category?

A

Bacteriostatic

81
Q

Term for the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that will stop a microorganism from reproducing is termed what?

A

MIC

82
Q

Metamucil, wheat bran and prunes are all examples of what kind of laxative?

A

Bulk

83
Q

What anti-histamine is used to treat old dog vestibular disease?

A

Meclizine

84
Q

Which dopamine antagonist improves gastric emptying and improves intestinal transit time?

A

Metoclopromide; blocks dopamine receptors

85
Q

Sorbitol, polyethylene glycol and lactulose are all examples of what type of cathartic?

A

Osmotic

86
Q

What drug demonstrates more prokinetic activity in the colon and is sometimes used to treat megacolon in cats?

A

Cisapride

87
Q

T/F: Concentration-dependent antibiotics often work best with multiple daily dosings.

A

FALSE; they work best as SID

88
Q

In which animals do you avoid cephalosporins?

A

Guinea pigs
Hamsters
Gerbils
Rabbits

89
Q

Which antibiotic is given as a slow, IV infusion only?

A

Vancomycin; MRSA!

90
Q

Alternative use for Neomycin?

A

Gut sterility in hepatic encephalopathy cases

91
Q

Stimulation of dopamine receptors causes what two main things to occur?

A
  1. Emesis

2. Stimulates appetite

92
Q

Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in cats?

A

Fluconazole

93
Q

Of the 3 -azole antifungals, which one has the most side effects?

A

1 KETOCONAZOLE

  1. Fluconazole
  2. Itraconazole
94
Q

Possible complication of newer broad-spectrum terbinafine?

A

May elevated ALT in cats

95
Q

Difference in production of ergosterol that makes a product fungicidal?

A

Fungicidal: prevents conversion of squalene to squalene epoxide ==> accumulation and DEATH
Main product = terbinafine (NEW)

96
Q

Why are polyenes (i.e. amphotericin B) preferred over the azoles in immunocompromised individuals?

A

Polyenes are fungiCIDAL

97
Q

Amphotericin B is ineffective against what?

A

many Aspergillus

98
Q

Main toxicity concern with large doses of ketoconazole?

A

Hepatotoxicity

99
Q

Drug that is highly effective against systemic blasto, histo, aspergillosis and sporotrichosis?

A

Itraconazole

PREFERRED for basto/histo

100
Q

Medication used for treatment of ocular keratitis 2ndry (equine) and nasal (K9) aspergillosis?

A

Clotrimazole

101
Q

Only time when epinephrine is the drug of choice for use as a bronchodilator?

A

ACUTE anaphylactic shock

102
Q

What are the main two indications for use of terbutaline? Admin how?

A

Preventing an asthma attack or DURING
SA: injection or oral
Eq: injection ONLY

103
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonist that is prohibited for use in food animals? Why?

A

Clenbuterol (ventipulmin)

Anabolic steroid!

104
Q

Albuterol is administered how and to which two species?

A

Via inhalation

Cats and horses

105
Q

Unique property of methylxanthine derivatives? Ex?

A

Stimulate skeletal muscle which improves breathing
EX: aminophylline
theophylline

106
Q

Drug used in the reversal of respiratory depression 2ndry to inhalation/barbiturate anesthesia? Good ex for use?

A

Doxapram

C-section, use on puppies!

107
Q

Medication used in the treatment of insulinomas when diet and steroids are no longer effective?

A

Diazoxide

108
Q

Selective chemotherapeutic drug for the treatment of insulinomas?

A

Streptozocin

NARROW therapeutic index

109
Q

Medication of choice used to stimulate insulin secretion?

A

Glipizide
REQUIRES functioning hepatic cells
Opposite of diazoxide!

110
Q

Insulin of choice for cats tpically?

A

Glargine

It is the longest acting

111
Q

Most insulins have similar potency. What is the exception?

A

Detemir!

4X more potent in K9s

112
Q

What is an alternative to glucose monitoring for diabetes patients? Advantage?

A

Fructosamine levels

Gives an idea of the last few weeks of tx

Pharmacology II Final (1 decks)

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