Pharmacology Final Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half life of four days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A

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2
Q

The nurse educator is reviewing medication metabolism at an in service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? Select all that apply
A. Increased renal excretion
B. Increase medication metabolizing enzymes
C. Peripheral vascular disease
D. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes

A

C

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3
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply
A. Have the client lie on one side.
B. Tell the client to blink when the drop enters the eye.
C. Drop the medication into the client’s conjunctival sac.
D. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling.
E. Instruct the client to close the eye gently after installation.

A

B, D, E

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4
Q

A nurse is teaching a client about transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.
B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

A

C

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5
Q

A nurse reviewing the clients medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of a client’s medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
D. Administer the medication, and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

A

A

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6
Q

A nurse is preparing a client’s medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in following the legal practice guidelines? Select all that apply.
A. teach the client about the medication.
B. Determine the dosage.
C. Monitor for adverse effects.
D. Lock compartments for controlled substances.
E. Determine the client’s insurance status.

A

A, C, D

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7
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who states I don’t want to take that medication. I do not want one more pill. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. The physician prescribed it for you, so you should really take it.
B. Well, let’s just get over it quickly, then.
C. OK, I’ll just give you the other medications.
D. Tell me your concerns about taking this medication.

A

D

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8
Q

A nurse is reviewing a client’s prescribed medications. Which of the following situations represents a contraindication to medication administration?
A. The client drank grapefruit juice, which could reduce a medications’ effectiveness.
B. The medication has orthostatic hypotension as an adverse effect.
C. A medication is approved for ages 12 and older, and the client is 8 years old.
D. An antianxiety medicine that has an adverse effect of drowsiness is prescribed as a preoperative sedative.

A

C

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9
Q

A nurse is assessing a client before administering medications. Which of the following data should the nurse obtain? Select all that apply.
A. Use of herbal products
B. Daily fluid intake
C. Ability to swallow
D. Previous surgical history
E. Allergies

A

A, C, E

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10
Q

A nurse is working with a newly licensed nurse who is administering medications to clients. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication that the newly hired licensed nurse understands medication error prevention?
A. Taking all medication out of the unit dose wrappers before entering the client’s room
B. Checking the prescription when a single administration of multiple tablets
C. Administering a medication, then looking up the usual dosage range
D. relying on another nurse to clarify medication prescription

A

B

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11
Q

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? Select all that apply.
A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asked for an influenza immunization
B. A client who takes prednisone and has a possible fungal infection
C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking hydrocodone/acetaminophen
D. A client who has peptic ulcer disease, takes sucralfate has started taking l OTC aluminum hydroxide
E. A client who has a prosthetic heart valve, takes warfarin and reports a suspected pregnancy

A

B,C,E

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12
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of penicillin to a client who has a new prescription. The client states when they took penicillin three years ago, they developed a rash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer the prescribed dose.
B Withhold the medication.
C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

A

B

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13
Q

A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for timolol how to insert eye drops. The nurse should instruct the client to press on which of the following areas to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?
A. Bony orbit
B Nasolacrimal duct
C. Conjunctival sac
D. Outer canthus

A

B. Pressing on the nasolacimal duct blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents systemic absorption of the medication

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14
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. This medication can stain your contacts.
B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

A

C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contacts lens. Remove the contacts, then instill the medication and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in.

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15
Q

A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client who’s being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
C. Severe pain around the eyes
D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm HG

A

C. Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a symptom or manifestation of acute angle-closure glaucoma.

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16
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who will begin taking aluminum hydroxide. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. If Constipation develops, switch to a calcium based antacid.
B. Alternate the aluminum and acid with a magnesium based one to achieve a normal bowel pattern if Constipation occurs.
C. This medication increases the risk for pneumonia.
D. Have your magnesium level monitored while taking this medication.

A

B. Alternate the aluminum and acid with a magnesium based one to achieve a normal bowel pattern if Constipation occurs

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17
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who takes phenytoin and has a new prescription for sucralfate tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
C. Allow a two-hour interval between these medications.
D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

A

C. Allow a two-hour interval between these medications. (because this can interfere with absorption)

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18
Q

What is the normal phenytoin (dilantin level)

A

10-20

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19
Q

Latanoprost belongs in what class of drugs?

A

Prostaglandin analog

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20
Q

What condition is latanoprost used for?

A

To treat glaucoma- first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma POAG and ocular hypertension

  • closed angle glaucoma is worse than open angle because it is sudden & causes the pressure to rise in the eye quickly) the normal pressure by tonometry is 12-21 mmHg
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21
Q

What is the generic drug isotretinoin used for what condition?

A

Treatment for severe recalcitrant nodular acne-nodules are inflammatory with a diameter> 5mm

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22
Q

What are contraindications for isotretinoin?

A

Pregnancy-if taken, can cause severe birth defects, Black Box warning X, and tetracycline, vitamin A, and depressed or previous suicidal clients

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23
Q

What are nursing administration and teaching importance for isotretinoin?

A

Take with a meal and a full glass of water to avoid esophageal irritation-also, it takes 15–20 weeks to achieve prolonged remission of acne

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24
Q

What both the generic and trade name for tetracaine HCL?

A

Tetracaine HCL

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25
What is Tetracaine HCL used for?
Spinal anesthesia when procedures require two- to three hours I t is considered a local anesthesia
26
What medication class is Tetracaine HCL?
Amino-ester class
27
What are contraindications for tetracaine HCL?
Contraindicated in patients with a known allergy to tetracaine HCL and allergy to PABA, sulfonamides and hair dyes
28
What is PABA?
PABA- is Para- aminobenzoic acid is a chemical that occurs naturally in the body and is also found in grains, eggs, milk & meat
29
What drug class is carbamide peroxide?
Cerumenolytics
30
What is the expected action for carbamide peroxide?
Releases H202 and causes a foaming action to help loosen and remove earwax
31
What is the therapeutic use for carbamide peroxide?
To treat earwax buildup
32
What are complications for carbamide peroxide?
Rash, itching, swelling, severe dizziness & trouble breathing
33
What are contraindications for carbamide peroxide?
Do not use in clients with perforated eardrums
34
How are carbamide peroxide drops instilled in an adult ear?
Have the client lie on your side or till the affected ear UPWARD
35
Bacitracin is in which drug class?
Dermatological - Antibacterial Polymyxins and Derivatives · Ophthalmic Antibiotic - Dehydropeptidase Inhibitors · Polymyxins and Derivatives -
36
What are conditions for using Bacitracin?
This medication is used to prevent minor skin infections caused by small cuts, scrapes, or burns. May Treat: Minor bacterial skin infections · Staphylococcal pneumonia · Superficial ocular infection
37
What are the adverse effects of Bacitracin?
A very serious allergic reaction to this drug is rare. However, seek immediate medical attention if you notice any symptoms of a serious allergic reaction, including Rash Itching/swelling Severe dizziness Trouble breathing GI: Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, rectal itching and burning. Hematologic: Systemic use: Bone marrow depression, blood dyscrasias; eosinophilia. Body as a Whole: Hypersensitivity (erythema, anaphylaxis). Urogenital: Nephrotoxicity, dose related: Increased BUN, uremia, renal tubular and glomerular necrosis. Special Senses: Tinnitus. Other: Pain and inflammation at injection site, fever, super infection, neuromuscular blockade with respiratory depression.
38
What are contraindications and complications for bacitracin?
Contraindications Toxic reaction or renal dysfunction associated with bacitracin; impaired renal function; atopic individuals; pregnancy (category C). Cautious Use Myasthenia gravis or other neuromuscular disease. Patients allergic to neomycin may be sensitive to bacitracin.
39
What are the routes and dosage for bacitracin?
Systemic Infections Child: IM <2.5 kg up to 900 U/kg/24 h divided q8–12h; >2.5 kg up to 1000 U/kg/24h divided q8–12h Skin Infections Adult: Topical Apply thin layer of ointment b.i.d., t.i.d., as solution of 250–1000 U/mL in wet dressing Administration Intramuscular Do not use parenteral bacitracin for longer than 12 d. Reconstitute with NS containing 2% procaine hydrochloride (prescribed). Do not reconstitute with diluents containing parabens because solution may precipitate or become cloudy. Alternate injection sites since injections are painful. Dry bacitracin vials should be stored in refrigerator at 2°–8° C (36°–46° F). Store solution for a maximum of 1 wk if refrigerated. Inactivation occurs at room temperature. Topical Clean the affected area prior to application. May be covered with a sterile bandage. Store ointments in tightly closed containers at 15°–30° C (59°–86° F) unless otherwise directed.
40
What class of drugs is docusate sodium?
Surfactant laxative
41
What is the expected pharmacological action for docusate sodium?
Surfactant laxatives lower the surface tension of the stool to allow penetration of water. The action will then soften the stool, so it can be passed more easily.
42
What is the therapeutic use for docusate sodium?
Treatment of constipation and softening of a fecal impaction
43
What are the contraindications for docusate sodium?
Laxatives are contraindicated in a fecal impaction, atonic bowel bowel obstruction, also **** in an acute surgical abdomen, UC, and diverticulitis, and pregnancy & lactation
44
Why is docusate sodium not given in persons with abdominal pain or in an acute abdomen?
To prevent a perforation
45
What drug class is bisacodyl?
Stimulant laxative
46
What is the expected pharmacological action of bisacodyl?
To stimulate intestinal peristalsis and increase the volume of water and electrolytes in the intestines
47
What is the therapeutic use for bisacodyl?
Bowel prep prior to surgery or diagnostic tests- colonoscopy, & short-term use for constipation from opioid use
48
What are precautions for bisacodyl?
Use with caution in pregnancy & lactation Risk C
49
What are the adverse effect of bisacodyl?
Mild cramps, rash, nausea & diarrhea
50
What are nursing considerations for bisacodyl?
Tablets should NOT be taken with milk or antacids (because it dissolves the enteric coating which loses the cathartic action- the effects are 6-12 hours
51
What drug class is Vancomycin?
Glycopeptide anti-infective
52
What is the pharmacological action for vancomycin?
It is a bactericidal- it binds to the cell wall, which stops it synthesis
53
What are the routes of administration for vancomycin?
PO, IV or rectal
54
What is the therapeutic use for vancomycin?
To treat serious infections due to methicillin -resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and streptococcal infections, also pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile
55
What are complications or adverse effects for vancomycin?
Thrombophlebitis, Abscess formation, Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity & rare & reversible) Red Man Syndrome
56
What are **** Nursing considerations for vancomycin?
Monitor renal and hearing, poor oral absorption, administer IV : peak 5 minutes, duration 12-24 hr, administer vancomycin slowly over 60 min. monitor intake and output, kidney function tests, monitor trough levels (drawn just before the 4th dose for a new regimen, & prior to the third dose for dosing intervals-Trough levels should be obtained within 30 min before the next scheduled dose.
57
Why are trough levels important?
Peak & trough levels are drawn to assess a drug's concentration in the system
58
What is Red Man Syndrome?
Flushing of the face & neck and B/P is decreased-related to rapid infusions
59
What is the treatment for Red Man Syndrome?
Antihistamines
60
What is major toxicity for vancomycin?
Renal failure
61
What are contraindications for vancomycin?
An allergy to vancomycin?, Use cautiously for older adults with renal impairment and hearing loss
62
What are drug interactions for vancomycin?
Loop diuretics, ethacrynic acid, & aminoglycoside antibiotics.
63
What is considered an elevated trough level?
> 30 mg/L
64
What is the peak level mean?
A peak is the highest level of a medication in the blood
65
What is the trough level mean?
A trough means the lowest concentration (troughs occur after the drug has broken down and metabolized by the body.
66
What is a critical value for vancomycin? The therapeutic peak & trough?
The therapeutic peak is 20-40 mcg/mL, trough 5-20 mcg/mL, critical Peak is > 60 mcg/mL, Trough> 20
67
How would you evaluate vancomycin is working or effective?
Within 48 hours, 87% of patients or clients show a decrease in temp, abdominal pain and diarrhea
68
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing serotonin syndrome? A. Bruising B. Fever C. Tinnitus D. Rash
B
69
Amitriptyline is in which class? A. Selective serotonin inhibitor B. Serotonin -norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Tricyclic antidepressant D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
C
70
Which group of antidepressants is contraindicated in clients who have a seizure history, or who had a recent MI? A. Selective serotonin inhibitor B. Serotonin -norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Tricyclic antidepressant D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
C
71
What class is Venlafaxine? A. Selective serotonin inhibitor B. Serotonin -norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Tricyclic antidepressant D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
B
72
What are the therapeutic uses for Serotonin -norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor medication? Select all that apply A. Major depression B. GAD C. Social anxiety disorder D. Panic disorder E. Pain due to neuropathy F. Aid for smoking cessation
A, B, C, D, E
73
What class is Fluoxetine? A. Selective serotonin inhibitor B. Serotonin -norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor C. Tricyclic antidepressant D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
B
74
Angiotensin-Coverting Enzyme Inhibitors are called what?
ACE Inhibitor
75
What is the expected pharmacological action of an ACE ? A. Reduces the production of angiotensin ll by blocking the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin ll B. Blocking of calcium channels in blood vessels, which leads to vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle (peripheral arterioles) and arteries/arterioles of the heart C. These medications act within the CNS to decrease sympathetic outflow to the myocardium results in bradycardia D. In cardiac conditions, the primary effects are the result of decreased heart rate.
A
76
What class is Digoxin? A. Angiotensin-Coverting Enzyme Inhibitors B. Calcium channel blocker C. Cardiac glycosides D Organic nitrate
C
77
What is the therapeutic use for Digoxin? Select all that apply. A. A second-line treatment for heart failure B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Atrial fibrillation
A, B, D
78
What are manifestations for digoxin toxicity? Select all that Apply. A. Anorexia B. Nausea C. Yellow-green or white halos, blurred vision D. Fatigue E. Myopathy
A, B, C, D
79
A nurse in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for two clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for digoxin toxicity? A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
C- a low K level can cause a fatal dysrhythmia
80
You are caring for a client who has a new prescription for digoxin and takes multiple other medications. You should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for digoxin toxicity? A. Phenytoin B. Verapamil C. Warfarin D. Aluminum hydroxide
B- can increase dig levels
81
Amiodarone is a Potassium Channel Blocker, True or False?
True
82
Amiodarone can lead to what kind of toxicity? A. Digoxin toxicity B. Phlebitis C. Pulmonary toxicity
C
83
What education should the nurse teach about amiodarone ? Select all that apply A. Observe for dyspnea, cough and chest pain B. Monitor B/P C. Monitor for indications of heart failure to include neck vein distension and crackles, notify provider D. Teach clients to avoid sun lamps
A, B, C & D
84
Verapamil is in which drug class? A. Beta blocker B Cardiac Glycoside C.Angiotensin-Coverting Enzyme Inhibitors D. Calcium channel blocker
D
85
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone to treat atria fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a sign of amiodarone toxicity? A. Light yellow urine B. Report of tinnitus C. Productive cough D. Blue-grey skin discoloration
C
86
A nurse is caring for a client who received IV verapamil to treat SVT The client's apical pulse rate is now 98/bpm and the B/P is 74/44. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following IV medications? A. Calcium gluconate B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Potassium chloride D. Magnesium sulfate
A- the calcium counteracts the vasodilation caused by verapamil
87
What drug class is Heparin ?
Anticoagulant
88
What is the expected action of heparin? A. Prevents clotting by activating antithrombin B. Provides anticoagulation by inhibiting factor Xa C. Prevents platelets from clumping together D. Dissolves clots which are already formed
A
89
A nurse is caring for a client in AFib and is on an IV heparin infusion and begins to vomit blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered by the provider? A. Vitamin K B. Atropine C. Protamine D. Calcium gluconate
C
90
What is calcium gluconate used for? A. Digoxin toxicity B. Phenytoin toxicity C. Metformin toxicity D. Magnesium toxicity
Magnesium sulfate toxicity
91
What is the normal mg level? A. 3.5-5 mg/dl B. 125-135 mg/dl C. 10-20 mg/dl D. 1.7-2.2 mg/dl
D
92
What class of drugs is albuterol?
Beta adrenergic agonist
93
What is the action of albuterol? A. Block muscarinic receptors in the bronchi B. Relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles, resulting in bronchial dilation C. Reduces airway mucosa D. Activates beta receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle, resulting in bronchodilation
D
94
What are important client education points about albuterol? Select all that apply. A. Avoid caffeine B. MAOIs and tricyclic antidepressants can increase the risk of angina and tachycardia C. Tremors can occur and must be reported D. Shake the inhaler
A, B, C, & D
95
Lispro is what kind of insulin? A. Rapid acting B. Short-acting C. Intermediate acting D. Long acting
A Rapid
96
The duration of this kind of insulin is three to five hours, and this is the only kind of insulin that is 3- 5 hours-what is it? A. Rapid acting- Lispro B. NPH/70/30 C. Insulin glargine U-100 D. None of the above
A Rapid acting Lispro
97
What is the expected action of insulin? Select all that apply A. Converts glucose in to glycogen B. Moves potassium into cells C. Promotes cellular uptake of glucose D. Decreases glucose levels
A, B, C & D
98
Hypoglycemia is when the blood glucose level is less than when? Select all that apply. A. Less than 70 mg/mL B Less than 115 mg/mL C. Less than 50 mg/mL D. Less than 40 mg/mL
A, C & D
99
If there is an abrupt incidence of hypoglycemia, the client will experience what? Select all that apply A. Headache B. Disorientation C. Tremors D. Tachycardia
D.
100
Which insulin has a peak effect 1 to 5 hours after administration? A. Insulin glargine B. NPH insulin C. Regular insulin D. Insulin lispro
C
101
Levothyroxine is in which drug class A. Anterior pituitary hormone B Thyroid hormone C. Hyperituitarsim class D None of the above
B
102
What is the expected action for Levothyroxine? Select all that apply. A. To increase metabolism rate B Protein synthesis C. Renal perfusion and cardiac output D. Blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone E. Body temperature F. Growth processes G. Blood volume
A, B, C, E, F, G
103
What are adverse effects or complications of Levothyroxine? Select all that apply. A. Because of its cardiac stimulation effects, use is contraindicated following an MI B Pregnancy Risk A C. Pregnancy will require increased dosages D. Overtreatment and chronic use can lead to bone loss and A-FIB E. Decreases insulin and digoxin
A, B, C, D
104
What are drug interactions with Levothyroxine? Select all that apply. A. Catecholamines (epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine) can increase the risk of dysrhythmias B. Many antiseizure meds and antidepressant medications including phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital & sertraline can increase Levothyroxine metabolism C. Levothyroxine can decrease requirements for insulin and digoxin D. Binding agents, antiulcer meds, calcium and Fe supplements, magnesium salts, and food reduce levothyroxine absorption with concurrent use E. Levothyroxine can decrease the anticoagulant effects of warfarin by breaking down Vitamin K
A, B, D
105
Which blood levels are monitored when taking Levothyroxine? A. TSH levels should be monitored at least once a year B. PT/INR C. T4 D. Liver Function
A
106
What are important client education points about Levothyroxine? Select all that apply. A. Take the med on a full stomach B Take the med daily on an empty stomach 30-60 min before breakfast C. Lifelong replacement is required for this med-do not stop taking it abruptly D. Check with the provider before switching to another brand of Levothyroxine because different brands might have varied effects and dosing adjustments may need to be made. E. Blood level draws ( labs) for TSH should be done yearly
B, C, D & E
107
Acyclovir is used to treat shingles, True or False?
True
108
What are the adverse effects of Acyclovir ? Select all that apply. A. Vomiting B, Pain especially in the joints C. Diarrhea D. Dizziness E. Loss of vision F. Tiredness G. Agitation
All but E
109
Is Acyclovir an antiviral drug? Yes or No
Yes
110
What drug class is Acyclovir ? A. Narrow -spectrum antibiotic B. Broad-spectrum antibiotic C. Antistaphylococcal D. Synthetic nucleoside analogues
D
111
Amoxicillin is in what drug class? A. Anti-infective PCN B. Broad-spectrum antibiotic C. Antistaphylococcal D. Synthetic nucleoside analogues
A
112
What is the action of amoxicillin? A. Bactericidal B. Bacteriostatic
A
113
What are the indications for amoxicillin? Select all that apply. A. Lyme disease B. Syphilis C Gram -negative organisms D. Gram-positive organisms E. Moderate to severe infections
A, B, D, E
114
What are adverse effects for amoxicillin? Select all that apply. A. Glossitis B. Gastritis C. Diarrhea D. Toxoplasmosis E. Superinfections
A, B, C, D
115
What are nursing considerations for amoxicillin? Select all that apply. A. Culture and Sensitivity before treatment B. Monitor serum electrolytes and cardiac status if giving IV C. Yogurt or buttermilk if diarrhea develops D. Take with a full glass of water
A, B, C
116
A nurse is preparing to administer penicillin V to a client with a streptococcal infection. The clients report difficulty swallowing tablets and does not do well with liquid or chewable medications. The nurse should request a prescription for which of the following medications? A. Fosfomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Nafcillin D. Cefaclor
C- because it is available for IM or IV- Fosfomycin and Cefaclor are only available in oral form
117
Superinfection is a type of resistance that results when an antibiotic kills normal flora, hence favoring the emergence of a NEW infection that is difficult to eliminate? True or False
True
118
What drug class is Ceftriaxone? A. Bactericidal B. Bacteriostatic C. 1st Generation Cephalosporin D. 3rd Generation Cephalosporin E. 5th Generation Cephalosporin
D
119
Is the action of Ceftriaxone both Bactericidal and inhibits synthesis ? True or False
True
120
Which drugs has the otoxicity adverse effects? Select all that apply. A. Bacitracin ointment B. Neosporin cream C. Aminoglycosides (Gentamycin) D. Vancomycin
A, B, C, D