Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

List the types of history questions or clinical indicators a nurse or other health care provider should assess before drug administration.

A

Before giving a patient any drugs, the nurse or other provider should question the individual about their historical health status, presence of any allergies and use of medications. Clinically, basic data like age, weight, height, and body temperature should be known prior to drug administration. The skin should be examined for its elastic properties and appearance including the presence of any rashes or wounds or redness. Any swelling or other means of fluid loss such as vomiting or diarrhea should be documented. The patient should be observed for their ability to respond to sensory stimulation.

CRNI Exam Secrets Test Prep Team (2011-11-22). CRNI Exam Flashcard Study System: CRNI Test Practice Questions & Review for the Certified Registered Nurse Infusion Exam (Kindle Locations 1612-1616). Mometrix Media LLC. Kindle Edition.

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2
Q

List the types of laboratory testing that should be done when medicating patients.

A

A number of clinical chemistry and hematology tests should be performed for patients being given drugs.

· Blood tests include coagulation parameters, chemical analysis of components, and cell counts.

· A urine sample is typically taken to analyze its properties often including the pattern of drug elimination.

· Therapeutic drug monitoring may be done in which test samples are taken at intervals after administering a single drug dose and then measuring the time to maximum and minimum drug concentrations present in the blood.

· Other screening tests could include bacterial sensitivity or resistance or toxicology screens.

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3
Q

List the information that must be documented by the nurse every time a drug is administered and why.

A

For legal purposes to protect themselves, when giving drugs the nurse should either write or have a prepared form to fill out with all of the following information:

· Drug administered.

· Dose given.

· Rate administered.

· Time period given.

· Route of administration.

· Response by the patient to the medication.

Legally, each individual (in this case the nurse) is liable for their own actions and could be held accountable. Offenses could include negligence, battery or untoward bodily touching, and assault (fear of impending bodily harm). In the hospital, protocols are usually established by the Institutional Review Board. In non-hospital settings such as infusion centers, clinics, or doctors’ offices the same standards apply.

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4
Q

Explain what admixing is and the conditions under which is performed.

A

Admixing is the process by which medications are prepared or compounded. It is usually performed by the pharmacy in a clean, assigned area usually under a laminar flow hood. The hood greatly eliminates the possibility of including bacteria or other microorganisms from the air, especially if good sterile technique is used. Admixing should only be performed after considering the compatibility of the components in terms of whether untenable chemical or physical changes could occur or whether the drug effectiveness of the medication can be maintained. Parameters to consider include drug concentration, pH, buffering capacity, and the length of contact time with diluents or other components before giving the drug to the patient.

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5
Q

Indicate the major types of complications that might result when drugs are administered.

A

Some drugs or other agents are either vesicants or irritants. Vesicants can cause blisters or destroy tissue when they leak into surrounding tissue, know as extravasation. Extravasation of irritants can produce pain in the vein at the site and sometimes inflammation. Even if the agent is not a vesicant or irritant, complications can arise if it is administered accidentally into the surrounding tissue. If two drugs are given simultaneously, they could affect each other either by antagonism, synergism, or potentiation. In other words, the action of one drug could cross react and be inhibited by the other, the drugs acting together could produce either unique or enhanced reactions, or in extreme cases greatly enhanced reactions occur. A patient might be allergic to the reagent and anaphylactic shock could occur after administration. Another type of shock called speed shock can happen with rapid injection. Bacterial infections or some other type of disturbance could be introduced that inflames the walls of the vein, causing a condition called phlebitis as a result.

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6
Q

List commonly utilized anti-infective agents classified as penicillins and give their indications.

A

Penicillin is an antibiotic that was originally isolated from mold but now has many synthetic forms including the following:

· Ampicillin sodium (Omnipen-N)— Used to treat both gram-positive and negative bacteria, excluding staphylococci that produce penicillinase.

· Nafcillin sodium (Unipen)— To treat staphylococci that generate penicillinase.

· Oxacillin sodium (Bactocill)— Indicated for penicillinase-producing bacteria

· Penicillin G potassium/ sodium— For serious infections including anaerobic ones and those affecting the heart or brain.

Piperacillin sodium (Pipracil)— Used to treat organisms affecting the respiratory or urinary tracts as well as solid areas such as the bones.

· Ticarcillin disodium (Ticar)— Broad spectrum penicillin to treat bacterial infections that have become septicemic.

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7
Q

List currently available cephalosporins and their indications.

A

Currently available cephalosporins are generally given to treat gram-negative, gram-positive or occasionally anaerobic infections that do not require oxygen. Any generic drug name with a cef- prefix is probably a cephalosporin. Broad-spectrum cephalosporins include cefazolin sodium (Kefzol), cefamandole nafate (Mandol), cefotetan disodium (Cefotan), cefuroxime sodium (Kefurox) and others. Some cephalosporins are usually employed to treat bacterial infections in specific body areas, typically on the skin or bones, genitalia, urinary tract, or respiratory tract. Examples include cephapirin sodium (Cefadyl) and ceftizoxime sodium (Cefizox).

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8
Q

Explain the relationship between penicillins and cephalosporins.

A

Cephalosporin was originally isolated from a mold just like penicillin and is very similar in structure. Cephalosporins, which now include a variety of further generation derivatives, are more resistant than penicillins to the action of penicillinase. Because of their similar structure, some of the cephalosporins can cross-react in a patient with penicillin allergy and therefore be contraindicated. Cephalosporins are generally effective against gram-positive, gram-negative and often anaerobic bacteria.

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9
Q

Describe what aminoglycosides are and give their primary use.

A

Aminoglycosides are antibiotics that structurally have their amino sugars attached as glycosides. Their primary use is to treat infections caused by aerobic bacilli. Bacilli are rod-shaped, spore-forming bacteria. They include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, and Pseudomona, and Proteus species. Some aminoglycosides are effective against both gram stain-negative and gram-positive bacilli, and these include gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin), netilmicin sulfate (Netromycin), and Tobramycin sulfate (Nebcin). Some are effective against primarily gram-negative organisms, including kanamycin sulfate (Kantrex) and amikacin sulfate (Amikin).

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10
Q

Give the most common type of tetracycline antibiotic prescribed and explain it mode of action.

A

A tetracycline is a type of antibiotic whose structure contains four rings. It is effective because it inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting the binding of transfer RNA. Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum reagents that can inhibit the growth of both gram-positive as well as gram-negative bacteria as well as rickettsiae, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The most commonly used tetracycline is doxycycline hyclate (Vibramycin IV). Side effects of Vibramycin can include skin rashes and photosensitivity so the patient should be instructed to avoid sun exposure.

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11
Q

Explain when erythromycins are administered. Give the most common example.

A

Erythromycins are a type of antibiotic effective against gram-positive organisms. Originally, erythromycin was isolated from Streptomyces erythreus. Today, erythromycin lactobionate (Erythrocin) is commonly given and indicated for treatment of staphylococci, pneumococci, or streptococci. It is usually administered at a dosage of 15 to 20 mg/ kg per day. Major side effects can be hives, phlebitis, or pain along the vein.

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12
Q

List some common antifungal agents and their indications.

A

Common antifungal drugs include the following:

· Amphotericin B (Fungizone) - given to treat fungal infections that have invaded the patient’s whole body

· Fluconazole (Diflucan) - for treatment of Candida, infections with cryptococcus, or some systemic infections

· Miconazole (Monistat IV) - specifically used to combat Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans, or Aspergillus fumigatus

A special note would be that Amphotericin B, given usually at a dose of 10 mg/ 250 mL over 4 hours by slow infusion, needs to first prepared in preservative-free sterile water followed by dilution in 5% dextrose in water and then filtered and protected from the light. CRNI Exam Secrets Test Prep Team (2011-11-22). CRNI Exam Flashcard Study System: CRNI Test Practice Questions & Review for the Certified Registered Nurse Infusion Exam (Kindle Locations 1752-1761). Mometrix Media LLC. Kindle Edition.

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13
Q

A few agents are currently available with antiviral properties. List some of them and their indications.

A

Antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections. There are, however, a few agents with antiviral properties; their principal mode of action is to block or inhibit replication of viral DNA. All of these drugs are given intermittently. Current antiviral drugs include acyclovir sodium (Zovirax), which is used to treat herpes simplex infections; foscarnet sodium (Foscavir), which is useful to reduce the viral load in acyclovir-resistant herpes or cytomegalovirus infections; ganciclovir sodium (Cytovene, DHPG), indicated for eye infections with cytomegalovirus, herpes or Epstein-Barr virus; and zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir), which is the primarily drug used to treat patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

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14
Q

Explain what protozoa are and give examples of current treatment modalities.

A

Protozoa are unicellular, non-photosynthetic, flagellated organisms. They are parasites, meaning they have some sort of symbiotic relationship with their host, in this case the human body. Currently available antiprotozoals include metronidazole hydrochloride (Flagyl I.V.), usually utilized for severe skin, bone, or joint infections, and pentamidine isethionate (Pentam 300), and usually indicated for Pneumocystis carinii type of pneumonia. The latter is also used as an investigational drug for some other protozoal diseases such as sleeping sickness.

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15
Q

Explain the unique conditions under which some miscellaneous types of antibiotics might be chosen.

A

Chloramphenicol sodium succinate (Chloromycetin) is indicated for mild cases of bacterial infection in the blood and also for patients with Rocky Mountain spotted fever or cystic fibrosis. Vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin HCL Intravenous) is given to treat gram-positive cocci. Quinolones, such as levofloxacin (Levaquin) are indicated for respiratory tract infections. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim IV Infusion) is a combination of antibiotics of the sulfonamide type, and is used to treat serious urinary tract infections.

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16
Q

Explain what an analgesic is and give some examples.

A

An analgesic is a drug that is given to alleviate pain without concurrent loss of consciousness. Each has some sort of effect on the central nervous system. Some are actually narcotics and do induce drowsiness or dizziness or blurred vision. Morphine sulfate is one of the most well-known analgesics, used to treat severe pain, but it must be used cautiously because it can cause respiratory or circulatory side effects or allergic reactions. Other analgesics include dezocine (Dalgan), nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain), buprenorphine hydrochloride (Buprenex Injection), hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), meperidine (Demerol) and fentanyl citrate.

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17
Q

Describe intrathecal analgesia.

A

In intrathecal analgesia, a narcotic, is delivered directly to the spinal cord. To minimize risk, the catheter is usually inserted between the lumbar vertebrae into the cord, and the dosage and interval of administration greatly reduced relative to that of epidural procedures. Intrathecal analgesia is commonly utilized for patients with chronic pain syndrome or those undergoing simultaneous chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy or anesthesia. The same precautions required for epidural analgesia apply for intrathecal. The medication can be delivered by an implantable pump, an external pump, or a ventricular reservoir.

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18
Q

Explain what Narcan is and when it is used.

A

Narcan, or naloxone hydrochloride, is a drug that structurally resembles morphine. It is used to reverse the effects of morphine sulfate or other analgesics resembling it, like hydromorphone hydrochloride or fentanyl citrate. Narcan should always be readily available when these drugs are administered and given if necessary to treat narcotic-induced depression. Naloxone hydrochloride blocks morphine receptor cells thereby preventing the action of morphine or the other narcotics.

19
Q

List some drugs that are classified as sedatives, hypnotics or anxiolytics.

A

Some drugs affect the central nervous system (CNS) by sedating, hypnotizing, or relieving the patient’s anxiety. These would be classified as sedatives, hypnotics or anxiolytics. Examples of drugs falling into these categories include diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride (Librium), phenobarbital sodium, and bupivacaine hydrochloride (Marcaine). Each has a slightly different indication. Phenobarbital is used to induce lengthy sedation. Lorazepam is usually given before anesthesia to prevent vomiting. Marcaine is used for pain control. Valium and Librium are really anxiolytics because they are used to treat psychoneurotic or critical stress reactions, trembling, or alcohol withdrawal. Another CNS agent, fosphenytoin sodium (Cerebyx), acts to stop convulsions.

20
Q

Explain concisely what occurs during epidural anesthesia.

A

During epidural anesthesia, a physician inserts a catheter into the epidural space in the lumbar region of the spinal cord. Then either the physician or nurse administers medications, which can be of low, intermediate, or high strength and different times of action. The anesthetics diffuse through the relatively thin dura and arachnoid membranes to spread. This is useful during many surgeries because sensory and motor responses in the lower half of the body are blocked. The procedure is also used in obstetrics. In either case, heart rates, respiratory status, arterial pressure, or electrocardiogram pattern should be closely monitored.

21
Q

Explain how epidural analgesia differs from epidural anesthesia.

A

Epidural analgesia is typically performed in cases of acute pain after surgery or for chronic pain syndrome, whereas epidural anesthesia is given before some surgeries. The analgesic medication dulls the sensory response to pain without loss of consciousness. Medications do not contain preservatives and are continuously administered by an electronic diffusion device through a 0.2-micron filter devoid of surfactant. Examples include morphine, methadone, hydromorphone, and fentanyl. The more lipid-soluble the drug is, the faster it acts because it can diffuse across a lipid membrane to relieve pain. As these agents are narcotics, Narcan must be available as an antidote and the patient must be observed for systemic complications.

22
Q

List the most commonly used agents for hypotension and explain special nursing considerations for them.

A

The most commonly used drugs for hypotension are dopamine hydrochloride (Intropin) and norepinephrine bitartrate (Levophed). Both are given continuously with an electronic infusion device starting with low doses and then increasing or adjusting the dosage to maintain optimal blood pressure. Cardiac side effects and possible tissue damage if the agents leak can occur. The nurse must monitor blood pressure every few minutes. The health care provider should also be ready to administer an antidote if necessary; the antidote of choice is injection of phentolamine mesylate (Regitine) diluted into 0.9% saline. In acute emergency hypotensive situations, another drug called metaraminol bitartrate (Aramine) might be injected.

23
Q

List the drugs that might be indicated for hypertension including specialized uses.

A

Drugs available to treat hypertension include labetalol hydrochloride (Normodyne), methyldopate hydrochloride (Aldomet), nitroprusside sodium (Nipride), nitroglycerin (Tridil), and hydralazine hydrochloride (Apresoline). Nipride and Apresoline are also utilized to treat shock to the cardiac system, the latter actually being a vasodilator. Nitroglycerin is used to treat hypertension during surgery and it is also used to relieve congestive heart failure concomitant with acute myocardial infarction. If a patient is experiencing an acute hypertensive crisis, the drug of choice might be either Aldomet or Nipride. CRNI Exam Secrets Test Prep Team (2011-11-22). CRNI Exam Flashcard Study System: CRNI Test Practice Questions & Review for the Certified Registered Nurse Infusion Exam (Kindle Locations 1874-1879). Mometrix Media LLC. Kindle Edition.

24
Q

List the agents used to treat tachycardia.

A

Tachycardia, or rapid heartbeat, can be treated by a number of drugs. The drug of choice may be selected based on the type of tachycardia, and some of these agents have antiarrhythmic properties as well.

Bretylium tosylate, or Bretylate, is generally indicated for treatment of unresponsive rapid heartbeats in the ventricle.

Esmolol hydrochloride, or Brevibloc, is usually administered if a patient has supraventricular tachycardia, which is characterized as a very fast pulse above 140 beats per minute. ·

Propranolol hydrochloride, or Inderal, is normally given to treat sudden rapid beats in the atrium or sinus areas, or atrial flutter and fibrillation. ·

When lidocaine cannot be used, a drug called procainamide hydrochloride, or Pronestyl, might be administered to treat tachycardia; however, this agent can cause a drug-induced systemic lupus syndrome.

25
Q

List some of the major drugs that might be employed to treat cardiac arrhythmias.

A

Arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat or rhythm. The most common drugs utilized to treat cardiac arrhythmia include digoxin (Lanoxin), lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine), verapamil hydrochloride (Isoptin), and quinidine gluconate. Digoxin actually has a wide range of applications, including not only treatment of abnormal heartbeat patterns in the ventricle accompanying congestive heart failure, but also problems in the atrium and cardiogenic shock. Digitalis toxicity must be monitored. Irregular heartbeats originating at or near the ventricle might be treated with xylocaine or Isoptin. Adenosine (Adenocard), a vasodilator, might be given when there is an abnormal sinus rhythm.

26
Q

Explain what the heart care provider might administer if the patient’s heart stops.

A

If a patient has an atrioventricular heart block and their heart stops, they are normally given isoproterenol hydrochloride, or Isuprel Hydrochloride. This is administered either by push or continuously using an electronic infusion control device. The patient should be instructed to report any chest pain or other side effects to the health care provider. Chest pain, or angina, can be caused by lack of blood to the heart. Palpitations, sweating, facial flush and gastrointestinal problems might be further side effects.

27
Q

Explain why it is crucial to always have epinephrine hydrochloride available.

A

Epinephrine hydrochloride (Adrenalin chloride) is the drug of first defense to treat anaphylactic shock or any type of severe histamine overdose or allergic reaction. It is a hormone that relaxes the airways and constricts the blood vessels and therefore allows the individual in anaphylactic shock to resume breathing normally. Epinephrine is usually administered by push. Blood pressure should be checked by the health care professional at frequent intervals for an hour after administration. The patient’s sensory ability and anxiety level should be constantly monitored as well.

28
Q

Define congestive heart failure and list some electrolyte agents used to treat it.

A

Congestive heart failure refers to a condition where the veins become congested because the heart is not able to pump away the blood returning to it quickly enough. Some agents that equilibrate electrolytes or water currently used to treat this condition include bumetanide (Bumex) and ethacrynate sodium (Edecrin Sodium Intravenous). Serum electrolyte profiles and fluid ingestion and excretion should be monitored when giving these agents.

29
Q

List the currently available drugs to treat anemia.

A

Anemia is a condition where there are either too few red blood cells or those cells have insufficient hemoglobin. Currently, the drugs available to treat anemia are darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) and epoetin alfa (EPO, Epogen). Aranesp is usually injected weekly at a dose of 0.45 ug/ kg of body weight. EPO or Epogen is usually administered by push; the dosing regimen is dictated by the patient’s hematocrit. Both of these drugs can have cardiac side effects and blood pressure should be monitored. Patients should not drive or manage machinery when taking these drugs,

30
Q

Explain the reasons to administer heparin sodium and precautions to take.

A

Heparin sodium is an agent that prevents coagulation by stopping the transformation of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, it is usually utilized to prevent or treat thrombosis or blockage of blood vessels by blood clots. Heparin sodium can also prevent the blockage of vascular catheters. Heparin can be administered by push, intermittently, or continuously using an electronic infusion device. The important parameter to check during administration is PTT, or partial thromboplastin time, which should be stabilized at a value greater than and up to 2 times the control. Protamine sulfate negates the effects of heparin sodium and should be available to treat a heparin overdose, which might be indicated by bruises, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine.

31
Q

Explain why streptokinase might be given to a patient.

A

Streptokinase, or Streptase, is an enzyme produced by streptococci bacteria. This enzyme dissolves blood clots in humans. Therefore, it is indicated in treatment of pulmonary emboli. Streptokinase is also a plasmin activator and is thus used to treat acute myocardial infarction as well. The doses given to treat severe myocardial infarction are greater than those used to dissolve pulmonary blood clots. Allergic reactions, bleeding or fever can develop with streptokinase administration, and the patient should not use aspirin-containing medications. Another drug, alteplase (Activase), has similar applications. CRNI Exam Secrets Test Prep Team (2011-11-22).

32
Q

Explain the reasons to use aminocaproic acid or antithrombin III.

A

Aminocaproic acid, available commercially as Amicar Intravenous, is usually given when a patient is actively hemorrhaging as a result of the rapid lysis of fibrin. Cardiac or neurological side effects can occur including grand mal seizure. Antithrombin III (AT-III, Thrombate III), on the other hand, is a used to routinely treat blood clots. These clots are often pulmonary blood clots so lungs and breathing patterns should be observed. Shortness of breath can be a side effect. The patient should watch for bruises, bleeding gums, blood in the urine, and they should be instructed to avoid aspirin products.

33
Q

Explain what Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor is.

A

Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor, or G-CSF, is an antineutropenic agent. In other words, it is an agent that decreases the time a patient has a low neutrophil or white blood count, or neutropenia. This in turn decreases the likelihood of infection. G-CSF can be administered either in single doses or continuously. This agent is often given to cancer patients, and CBCs and platelet count should be checked before and after chemotherapy begins because an increase in white blood cells, an indication of infection, could occur.

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