Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the adverse effect of long term nitrofurantoin use and how does this present/appear on imaging?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis. Alveolar infiltrates on CXR affecting both upper and lower lobes.

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2
Q

Which antidepressant has the shortest half life?

A

Venlafaxine (SNRI) - half life of 4-7 hours. Therefore more likely to cause withdrawal symptoms, and so is weaned over months.

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3
Q

Which antidepressant has the longest half life?

A

Fluoxetine. 4-6 days. More dangerous in overdose and needs to be cross-tapered very slowly.

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4
Q

How long is citalopram’s half life?

A

Around 36 hours

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5
Q

How long is mirtazapine’s half life?

A

20-40 hours

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6
Q

How long is sertraline’s half life?

A

22-36 hours

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7
Q

What are the features of clozapine toxicity?

A

Drowsiness, hyperthermia, confusion, hypersalivation and seizures

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8
Q

Which antipsychotic carries a risk of agranulocytosis?

A

Clozapine

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9
Q

What are the indication and adverse effects of melatonin in children?

A

Only licensed for insomina in autism. Adverse effects are odd dreams, headaches, arthralgia and altered behaviour.

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10
Q

What advice do you give when switching from norethisterone to COCP?

A

7 day period of condom use required

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11
Q

What advice to give when switching from desogestrel to COCP?

A

No additional contraceptive required

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12
Q

Which contraceptive is linked to liver pathology? And which liver pathologies are associated?

A

Oestrogen containing ones. Small increased risk of cholestasis, adenoma, gallstones and HCC. They are contraindicated in those with existing HCC.

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13
Q

What is the contraindication for yellow fever vaccine?

A

Anaphylactic egg allergy

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14
Q

What is mefloquine used for and what are its adverse effects?

A

Anti-malarial. Associated with neuropsychiatric effects - abnormal dreams, insomnia, A+D, suicidal ideation and psychosis. CI in those with GAD, depression and epilepsy.

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15
Q

Which antibiotic is and antifolate and therefore should not be used with methotrexate?

A

Trimethoprim. Can cause bone marrow suppression when used together.

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16
Q

What is topiramate used for? And what are cautions to be aware of?

A

Migraine prophylaxis and epilepsy. Reduces efficacy of contraceptives and increases risk of cleft lip and palate. IUD should be used in those of child bearing age.

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17
Q

What are some dose considerations with mirtazapine?

A

At lower dose (15mg) it acts on histaminergic receptors, causing tirednesss. At higher dose this effect is lost, and it only acts on serotoninergic and noradrenergic receptors.

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18
Q

What are adverse effects of macrolide antibiotics?

A

QT prolongation, GI effects and cholestatic jaundice. They are P450 inhibitors and so statins should be held.

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19
Q

Cautions and contraindications with diclofenac?

A

MHRA warning regarding CV events with diclofenac. Absolutely contraindicated with hypertension, diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia. Iburprofen and naproxen are safer and as effective.

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20
Q

What are the adverse effects of furosemide?

A

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity (including acute interstitial nephritis)

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21
Q

Adverse effect of aspirin?

A

Ototoxicity

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22
Q

Which drugs can cause drug-induced lupus?

A

Chlorpromazine, methyldopa, hydralazine, isoniazid, D-penicillamine and minocycline.

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23
Q

Which drugs cause drug induced psoriasis?

A

Beta blockers, ACEi, lithium, HCQ, NSAIDs and amoxicillin.

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24
Q

What is bromocriptine and what are its adverse effects?

A

Ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonist. Associated with pulmonary, retroperitoneal and pericardial fibrosis. Baseline echo, ESR, Cr and CXR are recommended before commencing.

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25
Which antidepressants are contraindicated with tamoxifen and why?
Fluoxetine, paroxetine and bupropion. These are potent inhibitors of CYP26D, which is needed to metabolise tamoxifen into its active form. Sertraline is a weak inhibitor and is considered safe.
26
Which drugs can cause pancreatitis?
Mesalazine, benzafibrate, carbimazole, codeine, enalapril, isoniazid, metronidazole, statins, procainamide, sulfas, tetracyclines.
27
What are the adverse effects and contraindications with pioglitazone?
Increases risk of bladder cancer - therefore to be avoided in those who smoke, the elderly and those who have had previous pelvic irradiation. Contraindicated in those with IHD. Should monitor LFTs while taking
28
What are the adverse effects of methadone?
"Clouding", constipation, drowsiness, muscular aches
29
Tell me about the MoA and pharmacokinetics of methadone
Full opiate receptor agonist with unpredictable kinetics - can have a half life of 13 to 112 hours
30
What is the MoA of buprenorphine?
Partial opiate agonist but also with some antagonist actions
31
How do you transition from methadone to buprenorphine?
Withdraw methadone, wait for withdrawal symptoms to start and then introduce buprenorphine.
32
What is the reversal agent for salicylates?
IV bicarb/dialysis
33
What is the reversal agent for benzos?
Flumezanil
34
What is the reversal agent for TCAs?
IV bicarb
35
What is the reversal agent for lithium?
Fluids and dialysis
36
What is the reversal agent for heparin?
Protamine
37
What is the reversal agent for beta blockers?
Atropine and glucagon
38
What is the reversal agent for ethylene glycol and methanol?
Fomepizole or ethanol
39
What is the reversal agent for organophosphates?
Atropine
40
What is the reversal agent for iron?
Desferrioxamine
41
What is the reversal agent for lead?
Dimercaprol, calcium ederate
42
What is the reversal agent for cyanide?
Hydroxocobalamin
43
What are the features of organophosphate toxicity?
Think SLUD. Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defaecation/diarrhoea. CV effects of bradycardia and hypotension. Can sometimes see fasciculations.
44
What are the adverse effects of methotrexate?
Myelosuppression, mucositis, cirrhosis, pneumonitis
45
What are the adverse effects of sulfasalazine?
Rashes, oligospermia, Heinz body anaemia and ILD
46
What are the adverse effects of leflunomide?
Liver impairment, ILD, hypertension
47
What are the adverse effects of HCQ?
retinopathy/corneal deposits
48
What are the adverse effects of Gold for RA?
Proteinuria
49
What are the adverse effects of penicillamines?
Proteinuria/nephrotic syndrome, myasthenia exacerbation
50
What are the adverse effects of etanercept?
TB reactivation and demyelination
51
What are the adverse effects of adalimumab?
TB reactivation
52
Which antibiotic can cause thrombocytopaenia?
Pen V
53
What are the adverse effects of acarbose?
Flatulence and diarrhoea
54
Which drug used for TB treatment can cause optic neuritis?
Ethambutol
55
What is the MoA and adverse effect of cyclophosphamide?
MoA: Alkylating agent, causing DNA crosslinking AE: haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression and TCC
56
What is the MoA and adverse effect of bleomycin?
MoA: Antibiotic which degrades DNA AE: Lung fibrosis
57
What is the MoA and adverse effect of anthracyclines (doxorubicin)?
MoA: Stabilises DNA-topoisomerase II complex, inhibiting RNA and DNA synthesis AE: Cardiomyopathy
58
What is the MoA and adverse effect of 5-FU?
MoA: Pyrimidine analogue, cause cell cycle arrest AE: Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis
59
What is the MoA and adverse effect of 6-mercaptopurine?
MoA: Purine analogue AE: Myelosuppression
60
What is the MoA and adverse effect of cyarabine?
MoA: Pyrmidine antagonist, inhibits DNA and polymerase synthesis AE: Myelosuppression, ataxia
61
What is the MoA and adverse effect of vincristine/vinblastine?
MoA: Inhibits formation of microtubules AE: Peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, myelosuppression
62
What is the MoA and adverse effect of docetaxel?
MoA: Decreases free tubulin AE: Neutropaenia
63
What is the MoA and adverse effect of irinotecan?
MoA: Inhibits topoisomerase AE: Myelosuppression
64
What is the MoA and adverse effect of cisplatin?
MoA: Causes DNA crosslinking AE: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnasaemia
65
What antiepileptic is commonly associated with weight gain?
Valproate
66
Which antiemetic is used second line in pregnancy and why?
Ondansetron. Increases risk of cleft lip and palate, therefore consider risk vs benefit