Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADME process stand for?

A

A: Absorption, how does the drug get into the blood?
D: Distribution, where does it go?
M: Metabolism, what happens to it?
E: Excretion, how does the drug get out?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is absorption?

A

Movement of drug from the site of administration into the blood; passive diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What influences drug absorption?

A

Concentration gradient
Drug size
Lipid solubility/ionization/pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Henderson Hasselbach equation

A

pH-pKa = log ([A-]/[HA])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which form of the drug can passively diffuse across lipid membranes?

A

Uncharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What factors influence drug distribution?

A

Concentration gradient
Drug size
Lipid solubility/ionization/pH
(same as absorption)
ALSO
Tissue perfusion (>blood flow = first and most amount of drug)
Protein binding (large plasma pr- trap drugs in blood stream)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define volume of distribution (Vd)

A

Amount of drug in the body : [drug] in the blood

[drug] in blood = dose given/Vd

Vd = dose given/[drug] in blood

Each drug has a unique Vd identified during clinical development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Large Vd (>42L)

A

Tells us the drug distributes outside blood and body fluids into tissues/fats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Small Vd (</=42L)

A

Tells us the drug has limited distribution, typically restricted to blood or other physiological fluid compartments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is responsible for Phase 1 metabolism of a drug?

A

P450 enzymes.
P450 activity can be induced or inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is metabolism of a drug?

A

Irreversible drug biotransformation.
Increases polarity to promote renal excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is responsible for Phase 2 metabolism of a drug?

A

Conjugative enzymes.
These are rarely able to be induced or inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is excretion of a drug?

A

The irreversible loss of drug from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what ways are small and large or ionized drugs excreted in the kidney?

A

Small drugs = passive diffusion.
Large/ionized drugs = active transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can happen to non-ionized drugs and what can be used to manipulate this?

A

Non-ionized drugs can be passively reabsorped.
Urine pH can be manipulated to determine if a drug is reabsorbed or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MEC

A

Minimal effective concentration.
The concentration below which there is not therapeutic effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MTC

A

Minimum toxic concentration.
The concentration above which significant side effects can be observed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the objective of drug dosing?

A

To obtain the therapeutic range between the MTC and MEC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cmax

A

The peak drug concentration achieved at time, tmax, following a single dose.

For IV administration, Cmax and tmax occur at time 0.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

C vs T equation for a single IV dose

A

Ct = C0e^(-kt)
Ct = drug concentration at a given time (t)

C0 = drug concentration at time 0
e = base natural log (2.718)
k = first order elimination rate constant (fraction of drug eliminated per time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Relationship of k (1st order elimination rate) : CL (clearance) : Vd

A

The hypothetical volume of blood from which drug is completely removed per unit of time (mL/min).

CL = Vd k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What routes of elimination are represented by CL?

A

ALL routes; hepatic, renal, biliary, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a high CL value indicate?
Low CL value?

A

High CL value = drug is rapidly removed from the body.
Low CL value = drug is removed slowly from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is CL used?

A

To calculate maintenance doses and infusion rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the relationship between the elimination rate (k) and half-life (t1/2)?

A

t1/2 = ln2/k = 0.693/k
Inversely proportional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe using t1/2 to estimate the drug washout period and when this would be used.

A

Used to estimate clearance of a drug prior to surgery or when switching meds.
Washout period = 5 half-lives

eg. acetaminophen t1/2 is 3 hours, so the complete washout would be 5 half-lives x 3 hours = 15 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe using t1/2 to maintain therapeutic levels of a drug in the body.

A

If the time period is a factor of the half-life, can do mental math to determine the concentration left in the body. T1x1/2 = 1/2 dose, T2x1/2 = 1/4 dose, etc.

If time period is not a factor of the half-life then need to use full equation:
Ct = C0 e^(-kt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Steady State (Css)?

A

Plateau that is reached when the rate of administration = rate of elimination.
Takes about 5 x t1/2 to reach steady state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What must you keep in consideration for Css?

A

Css can occur at ANY concentration (toxic, therapeutic, or sub-therapeutic)
Large doses or frequent small dosing results in higher concentration ~ toxic.
Small doses or doses spaced too far apart result in lower concentration ~ sub-therapeutic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 2 approaches used to achieve Css?

A
  1. Passively - give repeated doses over 5 x t1/2.
  2. Actively - give a loading dose.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the simplest way to achieve Css?

A

Give repeated doses at intervals close to the drug’s t1/2.
5 x t1/2 = Css

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When would you use a loading dose to get to Css?

A

If the t1/2 is very long or the situation is very urgent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Loading Dose (LD) equation

A

LD = (Ctarget x Vd)/F
Ctarget = desired Css
F = bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maintenance Dose (MD) equation

A

MD = (Ctarget x CL x T)/F
T = dosing frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How are LD and MD calculated?

A

Same as LD and MD equations, except that F=1 because bioavailability is not a consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is Css achieved for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index where the peaks and trough fluctuations are not tolerable?

A

Continuous IV infusion.
Steady state is still achieved after 5 x t1/2.
Concentration that is attained is determined by the infusion rate where faster rate = [higher] and slower rate = [lower]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Infusion rate equation

A

R0 = CL x Css = Vd x k x Css

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are two important concepts for drugs eliminated via first order kinetics?

A
  1. A constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time (ie 50%/hr = gives us a t1/2). F=F First order = fraction.
  2. Double dose = double plasma concentration.
39
Q

What drugs are eliminated via Zero order kinetics?

A

PEA
Phenytoin (anti-seizure)
Ethanol
Aspirin

40
Q

How are zero order kinetic elimination processes different?

A

They become saturated and are unable to increase when concentrations rise.
A constant amount of drug is excreted/unit of time - no t1/2.
Dose:concentration is not proportional, increases risk for toxicity/overdose.

41
Q

What are the benefits of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Provides patient specific dosing information.
Measures the patient’s actual plasma concentration.
Useful for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index and for special pops (geriatric, pregnancy, pediatrics).

42
Q

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring equation

A

Dose new/Dose previous = Css target/Css measured

43
Q

What are some ways to reduce ADRs?

A

Decrease drug burden.
Report suspected ADRs.

44
Q

Which enzymes are most likely to be involved in drug interactions when their expression and activity changes?

A
  1. Cip 3A4 then,
  2. Cip 2D6 then,
  3. both Cip 2C9/19
45
Q

What is primary compliance?

A

The act of filling a prescription.
>95% for acute problems.
60-70% for chronic.
Cost can be a barrier as well.

46
Q

What is secondary compliance?

A

Not taking medication as directed.
Convenience contributes: more frequent dosing = less compliance.
Side effects also affect compliance.

47
Q

How does appearance of a drug affect compliance?

A

Colour associations
Size, diameter >8mm
Changes in colour or shape of a drug can decrease compliance.

48
Q

How does the stomach acid content differ in infant and geriatric pops compareed to adults?

A

Infants & geriatric pH = 4
Adult pH = 2
Therefore acid labile drugs will have a higher plasma concentration in infants and geriatric pops.
This will also affect the way that drugs are absorbed in the stomach.

49
Q

How does body composition affect drug distribution and plasma concentration?

A

Total body water higher in peds, lower in geriatrics; affects hydrophilic drug concentrations.

Fat lower in peds, higher in geriatrics; affects lipophilic drug concentrations.

Plasma proteins lower in both peds and geriatrics; leads to increased fraction of free drug.

50
Q

How does metabolism affect drug distribution/availability?

A

Both peds and geriatrics have decreased Phase 1 enzymes - longer t1/2, need lower dose or increased dosing interval.

Peds take several months for Phase 2 enzymes to be expressed.

Both peds and geriatrics have decreased liver mass and blood flow.

51
Q

How does the decreased kidney function in peds/geriatrics affect drug excretion?

A

Increases t1/2; must lower dose or increase dosing frequency.

52
Q

Summarize the factors affecting drug response.

A
  1. Compliance
  2. Drug interactions
  3. Disease
  4. Genetics
  5. Age (young & old)
53
Q

Local anesthetics

A

Drugs that block the generation and propagation of action potentials along nerve fibres.

54
Q

What types of tissues do local anesthetics work on?

A

All types excitable tissues.

55
Q

What are the two chemical groups of clinically used local anesthetics?

A

Aminoesters.
Aminoamides.
Weak bases with an aromatic head and a amine tail with either ester or amide linkage/

56
Q

What is the principal action of local anesthetics?

A

Blockade of voltage gated Na+ channels.

57
Q

What are the 4 common local anesthetics?

A

Lidocaine (zylocaine)
Bupivacaine
Mepivacaine
Ropivacaine
All are aminoamides.

58
Q

What is the polarity of local anesthetics?

A

Amphoteric.
Dissociate to form equilibrium between base and cation.

59
Q

What form of the LA can penetrate through lipid membranes and what form is responsible for the blocking action at the voltage gated Na+ channel?

A

Penetrates: base
Blocking action: cation

60
Q

Which LA only exists as a base and blocks the channel via a lipophilic pathway?

A

Benzocaine.

61
Q

What is the consequence of the higher pKa of Bupivacaine and Procaine?

A

Low percentage of total drug in base form.
Slower onset of effects.

62
Q

What are the 3 functional states of Na+ channels and which one so LA’s stabilize?

A

Resting
Activated (open)
Inactivated

LA’s stabilize the inactivated state which means the channel must have been active for the drug to be effective.

63
Q

Discuss the differential sensitivity of nerve fibres to LAs.

A

LAs block small diameter fibres first.
Three consecutive nodes of Ranvier need to be blocked.

64
Q

Define differential block

A

Preferential blockade of sympathetic & pain fibres while minimizing impairment of motor function (eg walking epidural).

65
Q

Routes of administration for LAs

A

Topical
Infiltration
Peripheral nerve blockade
Central blockade
IV regional anesthesia
Systemic (IV)

66
Q

Which LA is particularly good for differential blocks?

A

Bupivacaine
Rpoivacaine (even more motor-sparing thean Bupivacaine)

67
Q

Which of the 4 LAs discussed has the longest duration of action?
Shortest?

A

Longest = Bupivicaine (180-600 minutes)
Shortest = Lidocaine (90-200 minutes)

68
Q

What helps determine the potency of an LA?

A

Lipid solubility - positive correlation

69
Q

What determines the onset of action of an LA?

A

pKa: lower = faster

70
Q

What influences duration of action of an LA?

A

Increases with lipid solubility and protein binding.

71
Q

How are aminoesters metabolized?
Aminoamides?

A

Aminoesters = plasma cholinesterases
Aminoamines = hydrolysis in the liver

72
Q

How are LA’s excreted?

A

Mainly in urine.

73
Q

What effects do added vasoconstrictors have on LAs?

A

Delay absorption
Prolong effect
Reduce system toxicity

74
Q

What is the contraindication for vasoconstrictors with LAs?

A

Do not inject into peripheral body parts - can cause tissue necrosis and gangrene.
No toes, fingers, ears, nose, penis!!

75
Q

Discuss local tissue toxicity of LAs

A

Both neurotoxicity and myotoxicity.
Neurotoxicity - concentration dependent. Most severe can lead to paraplegia or cauda equina syndrome.

76
Q

Discuss systemic toxicity of LAs

A

Dose and concentration dependent continuum.
CNS vs CV effects.
Increased by rapid injection, hypoxia, increase PaCO2, decreased pH, decreased K+, pregnancy.

Must be individualized, observed, monitored and frequent aspiration.

77
Q

Discuss the presentation of systemic CNS LA toxicity

A

Initially - Inhibition; sedation, numbness, tinnitus, blurred vision.
Then - Excitation; tremor, tonic-clonic seizures.
Then - Generalized Depression; coma, cardiorespiratory arrest, death.

78
Q

Discuss the toxicity of Bupivacaine.

A

High propensity to accumulate in the heart causing ventricular arrhythmias and severe myocardial depression.
Lipid rescue can help reverse.

79
Q

Discuss the toxicity of Benzocaine.

80
Q

Discuss the toxicity of Cocaine.

A

Inhibits Norepi and epi reuptake leading to euphoria, agitation, seizures, vasoconstriction, HTN, MI, tachycardia, death.

81
Q

MOA of Alteplase

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA).
converts plasminogen to plasmin.

82
Q

Most common indication for Alteplase (TPA)

A

Ischemic stroke

83
Q

Dosing/route of administration for Alteplase (TPA)

A

0.9 mg/Kg (max 90 mg)
10% bolus over 1 minute, then 90% infusion over 1 hour.

84
Q

Risks of Alteplase (TPA)

A

6% risk of intracranial hemorrhage
<1% risk of systemic hemorrhage
2-5% risk of angioedema (increases w/ACEi)

85
Q

MOA of Tenecteplase (TNK)

A

Thrombolysis with greater fibrin selectivity than TPA.

86
Q

Most common indication of Tenecteplase (TNK)

A

Ischemic stroke

87
Q

Benefit of Tenecteplase (TNK) vs TPA

A

Can be given as a bolus.
Makes it easier for transport.

88
Q

MOA of Apixaban (Eliquis)

A

Direct oral anti-coagulant.
Inhibits Factor X - preventing prothrombin to thrombin.

89
Q

Most common indication of Apixaban (Eliquis)

A

Prevention of stroke with Afib.
Tx and prevention of DVT/PE.
Prevention of DVT/PE after surgery.

90
Q

Dosing/route of administration for Apixaban (Eliquis)

A

5 mg BID
Oral

91
Q

MOA of ASA (Aspirin)

A

Inhibits COX enzyme.
Antiplatelet action d/t irreversible acetylation of COX-1 in platelets.

92
Q

Most common indication of ASA (Aspirin)

A

Ischemic heart disease:
Acute MI
MI prevention
Angina

CV disease:
Acute stroke
Stroke prevention

General:
Analgesic
Anti-pyretic
Anti-inflammatory

93
Q

Dosing/route of administration for ASA (Aspirin)

A

Oral

80 mg daily for prophylaxis

Pain:
325-650 mg q 4-6 hours, max 4g/day