Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HESI NCLEX-RN Exam > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

Archer Review Help - Cheat Sheet, Endings, and Needs to Know about Drugs

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NCLEX-RN® flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards
1
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-afil

A

Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor
- Sildenafil
- Avanafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-ase

A

Thrombolytic
- Alteplase
- Streptokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-asone

A

Corticosteroid
- Fluticasone
- Betamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-bital

A

Barbiturate
- Phenobarbital
- Butabarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-caine

A

local anesthesia
- Lidocaine
-Prilocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drug Class based on ending
cef-, ceph-

A

cephalosporin antibiotic
- Cefdinir
- Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-cillin

A

Penicillin antibiotic
-Amoxicillin
- Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drug Class based on ending
cort

A

corticosteroid
- Hydrocortisone
- Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-cycline

A

Tetracycline antibiotic
-Doxycycline
- Minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-dazole

A

anthelmintic, antibiotic
- Metronidazole
- Tinidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-dipine

A

Ca channel blocker
- Amlodipine
-Nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-done

A

opioid analegesic
- Hydrocodone
- Oxycodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-dronate

A

Biphosphate, bone reabsorption inhibitor
- Alendronate
- Risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-eprazole, -oprazole

A

PPI
- Esomeprazole, Omeprazole
- Lansoprazole, Pantoprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-fenac

A

NSAID
- Diclofenac
- Nepafenac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-floxacin

A

Quinolone antibiotic
- Ciprofloxacin
- Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-iramine

A

Antihistamine
- Chlorpheniramine
- Pheniramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-mide

A

diuretic
- Furosemide
- Torsemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-mycin

A

antibiotic
- Azithromycin
- Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-nacin

A

Muscarinic antagonist (anticholinergic)
- Darifenacin
- Solifenacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-nazole

A

antifungal
- Fluconazole
- Miconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-olol

A

Beta Blocker
- Metoprolol
-Timolol
- Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-olone

A

Corticosteroid
- Prednisolone
-Triamcinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-onide

A

corticosteroid
- Budesonide
- Flucinonide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-parin

A

antithrombotic, anticoagulant
-Enoxaparin
-Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-phylline

A

Bronchodilator
- Aminophylline
- Theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-pramine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant
-Clomipramine
-Imipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Drug Class based on ending
pred, pred-

A

corticosteroid
- Prednisolone
- Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-pril

A

ACE inhibitor
- Enalapril
-Lisinopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-profen

A

NSAID
- ibuprofen
- Ketoprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-ridone

A

Atypical antipsychotic
- Paliperidone
- Risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-sartan

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor antagonist
- Losartan
-Valsartan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-semide

A

Loop diuretic
- Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-statin

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
- Atorvastatin
- Simvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Drug Class based on ending
sulfa-

A

antibiotic, anti-infective, anti-inflammatory
- Sulfacetamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-terol

A

Beta agonist bronchodilator
- Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-thiazide

A

thiazide diuretic
- Hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-tidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist
- Famotidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-trel

A

female hormone - progestin
- etonogestrel
-levonorgestrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-tyline

A

tricyclic antidepressant
- Amitripyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Drug Class based on ending
vir, -vir

A

antiviral
- Ribavirin
- Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-zepam

A

benzo
- Clonazepam
-Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-zodone

A

antidepressant
- nefazodone
- Trazodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Drug Class based on ending
- zolam

A

benzo
-Alprazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drug Class based on ending
-zosin

A

Alpha blocker
-Doxazosin
-Terazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Acetaminophen antidote

A

Acetylcysteine and activated charcoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Benzo antidote

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cyanide poisoning antidote

A

Methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Digoxin toxicity antidote

A

Digoxin immune FAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ethylene poisoning antidote

A

Fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Heparin and enoxaparin antidote

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Warfarin antidote

A

Vitamin K (Phytonadione)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Iron antidote

A

Deferoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lead antidote

A

Succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mg Sulfate antidote

A

Ca gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Opioid antidote

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Drugs to avoid with
ACE inhibitors

A

Potassium-sparing meds

  • Hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Drugs to avoid with
Nitroglycerin

A

Erectile dysfunction meds

  • profound hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Drugs to avoid with Metformin

A

Contrast dye

-Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Drugs to avoid with
MAOI and St. John’s

A

Other antidepressants (2 weeks before and after)
- Serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Foods to avoid with
Ca channel blockers, statins, and anticoagulants

A

grapefruit juice

  • blocks enzyme to metabolize increases levels in the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Foods to avoid with MAOIs

A

Tyramine (Charcuterie foods)

  • Hypertensive Crisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Foods to avoid with Warfarin

A

Excessive Vitamin K foods (need consistent amount)

  • clotting and increase clot cascade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Asthma

A

Beta Blockers

  • Bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Chronic Liver Dzs

A

Warfarin

  • increase sensitivity and bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Congestive Heart Failure

A

Ca channel Blockers, NSAIDs - Na retnetion, and increase cardiac events

Steroids - Na and water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Epilepsy

A

TCAs, antimalarials, antipsychotics
- more seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
HTN

A

NSAIDs
- increase BP due to Na retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Parkinson’s

A

COX-2 Inhibitors
- worsening s/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Renal Failure

A

NSAIDs
- Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Disease to Drug Interactions
Resp Failure

A

Neuroleptics
- resp depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nifedipine toxicity

A

flushing
HA
Tachycardia
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Verapamil toxicity s/s

A

Bradycardia
AV Heart Block
Hypotension
Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Statins toxicity

A

HA
GI disturbances
liver and muscle toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Midazolam toxicity

A

increase sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

SSRI toxicity - sertraline

A

serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Prolonging QT Interval puts the pt at risk for

A

Vtach or Torsades
-EKG monitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Grapefruit juice should not be given to what drugs

A

Nifedipine
Statins
Midazolam
SSRI
Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Drugs Prolonging QT Interval

A

Amiodarone
Nicardipine
Sotalol
Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Fluconazole
Voriconazole
Amitriptyline, Protriptyline
Escitalopram, Citalopram
Fluoxetine, Sertraline
Haldol
Quetiapine
Risperidone
Ondansetron
Lithium
Pheylephrine
Pseudophydrine
Tacrolimus
Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hepatotoxic Drugs

A

Statins
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Valproic acid
antifungals (-azole)
Bupropion
TCAs
Trazodone
Amoxicillin, Penicillin
Erythromycin
Amiodarone
Labetalol
Lisinopril
Losartan
Omeprazole
Acetaminophen with alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Opioid Side effects

A

MITOSIS (pupil constriction)
OUT of it
Respiratory depression, reduced salivation
Pruritus, pneumonia
Hypotension, HA
Infrequent elimination (decrease motility)
Nausea, nervousness
Emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Methadone

A

does not cause euphoria
long half-life
- titrate slowly

(Peds on heart surgeries titrating off pain meds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Opioid Antagonist - Antagonist

A

Buprenorphine
Suboxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Buprenorphine

A

mild to mod pain and opioid addiction
low potenetial for abuse and less powerful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Narcan will cause

A

immediate withdrawal dependent on opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Non opioid that does not suppress inflammation

A

acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

NSAIDs inhibit COX 1 and 2 causing

A

gastric ulceration (bleeding)
vasoconstriction
renal impairment
reduced inflammation
analgesic
reduce fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ibuprofen side effects

A

GI BLEED
renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ASA best for what type of pain

A

joint, muscles, and head pain
arthritis
fever
stroke prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

ASA decrease what

A

platelet aggregation decrease in ischemic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

ASA NURSING

A

bleeding D/C 5-7 days before surgery
Reye’s with viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

ASA is only used in what peds diseases

A

Kawasaki <16 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Salicylism (ASA toxicity) s/s

A

Tinnitus
sweating
HA
dizzy
metabolic acidosis

92
Q

Max dose of tylenol

A

4 g
long term 3g per day

93
Q

Tylenol system effects

A

liver

94
Q

IV indomethacin given to infants to

A

induce closure of patent ductus arteriosus

95
Q

IV ketorolac is used for what type of pain

A

mod- severe

96
Q

If you want to keep the ductus arteriosus open give

A

Alprostadil

97
Q

Reye Syndrome can cause

A

brain inflammation and liver damage

98
Q

What are the major adverse effects associated with long-term NSAIDs

A

GI ulcers
bleeding
renal impairment
increased cardiac events
increase bleeding

99
Q

Antihypertensives

ABCD

A

Diuretics
ACE (-prils)
Angiotensin 2 recpetor blockers
Ca channel blockers (-ipine)
Arterial and Venous dilators
Beta blockers

100
Q

ACE not for

A

pregnancy
spironolactone
ARBs (angioedema)

101
Q

What should you report for an ACE?

A

dry cough
- airway priority with angioedema

Facial swelling

102
Q

ACE inhibitors acts on

A

RAAS no aldosterone and lowers BP

103
Q

Hold ARBs and ACE if

A

systolic BP is < 100

104
Q

ARB monitor for

A

orthostatic hypotension and increase K

105
Q

Ca channel blockers (Verapamil and Diltiazem) are not used in

A

heart failure or AV block
with Beta blockers or Digoxin

106
Q

Ca channel blockers ending in -IPINE act on

A

blood vessels
- not causing constipation

107
Q

Ca channel blockers NOT ending in -IPINE act on

A

heart and blood vessels

108
Q

Ca Channel blockers sis

A

gingival hyperplasia
- soft bristles

109
Q

Ca channel blockers (with -ipine) help with clients in

A

heart failure
AV block

110
Q

If the client has osteoporosis on a Ca channel blocker,

A

stay on Ca to keep in bones

111
Q

Arterial and Venous dilators

A

Nitrates
-stable angina - max 3 doses with 5 minutes in between, on 2nd dose call 911

112
Q

Venodilators have an increased

A

fall risk

113
Q

Antiarrhythmics

A

Atropine - low heart rate
Adenosine - SVT
Amiodarone - dysrhythmia

114
Q

Atropine

A

inhibits resta nd digest and speeds up anticholinergic
drys up not for glaucoma

115
Q

Adenosine

A

slows conduction
slam med (resets heart)
SVT
stop for asthmatics

116
Q

HOLD Dig for

A

< 60 adults
< 70 children
<90 infants

117
Q

Electrolytes on Dig

A

low K and Mg
high Ca

118
Q

Dig toxic at

A

> 2

119
Q

early digoxin toxicity

A

N/V
yellow/green halos

120
Q

Loop diuretics and digoxin can make the pt

A

toxic

121
Q

Digoxin clients should avoid

A

black licorice

122
Q

H1 Antagonist monitor for

A

drowsiness (take at night)
no other depressant
take with food avoid GI s/s)

123
Q

H1 Antagonist drug

A

Diphenhydramine
[-ine]

124
Q

Order for Inhaled glucocorticoid

A

SABA 1st 5 minutes before then glucocorticoid rinse out

125
Q

Oral steroids < ____ days

A

10

126
Q

D/C glucosrticoids slowly or get

A

adrenal crisis

127
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist [Montekulast]

A

long term 2 hours priori to exercise

128
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist toxiicty

A

ALT monitor
- clay colored poop
- dark urine
- jaundice

129
Q

-opium

A

anticholingerics

130
Q

SABA

A

ALBUTEROL

131
Q

LABA

A

SALMETEROL

132
Q

B2 Antagonist

A

rescue acute exacerbation

133
Q

Give what first if having respiratory distress

A

Albuterol
- increases energy

134
Q

Albuterol can mask

A

s/s hypoglycemia and glaucoma

135
Q

Methylxanthines Inhibitors not with

A

Ciprofloxacin (seizures and stimulation)
Caffeine

136
Q

Parsympathetic NS

A

REST AND DIGEST

137
Q

Sympathetic NS

A

FIGHT OR FLIGHT

138
Q

AntiTB drugs

A

Isoniazid
Rifampin

139
Q

HCTZ potential s/s

A

Photosensitive

140
Q

Antiparkinson drugs

A

Levodopa
Carbidopa
Dope them up!!

141
Q

Carbidopa does what to levodopa

A

Carb inhibits the breakdown of levodopa allows it to last longer

142
Q

Adverse effects of levodopa and Carbidopa

A

Psychosis
Hallucinations
Vivid dreams
Paranoid ideation

143
Q

Take levodopa and Carbidopa with

A

Low fat and low protein

144
Q

Monitor what with levodopa

A

Move slowly when changing positions
Postural hypotension

145
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitors used for

A

Alzheimer’s and dementia in mild and moderate

Increase s/s in severe

Cholinergic bronchi constriction bradycardia

146
Q

Alzheimer’s drugs cautioned with

A

Asthma
COPD
- bronchoconstriction

147
Q

Primary epileptic

A

Phenytoin

148
Q

Phenytoin therapeutic levels

A

10-20

149
Q

Phenytoin side effects

A

Gingival hyperplasia
Birth defects
Anemia
Low heart rate and BP

150
Q

Phenytoin toxicity

A

Nystagmus
Mental status change

151
Q

Nursing for Phenytoin

A

Soft bristle toothbrush
No antacids
Birth control

152
Q

What is the relief med for seizures?

A

Lorazepam

153
Q

Alpha adrenergic drugs

A

Catecholamines -
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine

154
Q

Alpha adrenergic drugs do what to the body

A

Relax respiratory muscles
Vasodilators arteries
Vasoconstrict peripheral
Increase heart rate and contractility

155
Q

Beta adrenergic Agonists

A

Increase heart rate
Bronchodilator
Uterine relaxation

156
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Vasoconstriction increase BP
Vesicant - central line or shock
Increase BG

157
Q

CNS overstimulation

A

Restless
Tremors
Anxiety
Monitor with epileptic pts

158
Q

Alpha Adrenergic Antagonist

A

Hypotension
BPH
Raynauds

159
Q

First dose effect

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Increase risk for falls
Take at bedtime
Alpha Antagonist

160
Q

No selected beta adrenergic antagonist

A

Work on the heart and lungs and stop fight or flight

161
Q

Selected beta adrenergic antagonist work on

A

Only the heart
You can give this to diabetics and asthmatic patients

162
Q

Side effects of beta adrenergic antagonist

A

Bradycardia – avoid in bradycardia and AV block patients
Rebound, cardiac excitation – never discontinue abruptly

163
Q

Side effects of only non-selected beta, adrenergic antagonist

A

Decrease cardiac output – avoid with heart failure
Bronchi construction
Hypoglycemia
Depression – caution with mental health conditions

164
Q

Cholinergic stem word

A

Stigmine

165
Q

Cholinergics do what to the body

A

Increase secretions, gut motility

REST and DISGEST

166
Q

Cholinergics crisis

A

MG pts, insecticides, pesticides, chem warfare

167
Q

Antidote for Cholinergic crisis

A

Atropine (anticholinergic)
Tx bradycardia and low CO

168
Q

Cholinergic should be taken

A

Empty stomach

169
Q

Cholinergic contraindications

A

Intestinal obstruction
Urinary obstruction
Asthma
Hyperthyroidism
Hypotension

170
Q

Cholinergic Side Effects (Dumbbells)

A

Diaphoresis and Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm
Emesis
Lacrimation
Low BP
Salvation
- increase secretions “wet”

171
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Atropine
ipratropium bromide
dicyclomine
oxybutynin
toliterodine

172
Q

Anticholinergics used for

A

bradycardia
AV block
eye exams
asthma
excess secretions
overactive bladder

173
Q

Anticholinergics does what to the body

A

blocks rest and digest
drys up everything

174
Q

Anticholinergics result in

A

increased HR
pupil dilation
bronchodilation
decreased secretions
sweating
decreased GI
urinary retention

175
Q

Anticholinergics side effects

A

Increased IOP - blurry, photophobia
- not for glaucoma
urinary retention - caution in BPH
bronchial plugging - caution with asthma
constipation - xerostomia, tachycardia, anhidrosis

176
Q

Anticholinergics toxicity

A

activated charcoal
physostigmine - cholinergic antidote

177
Q

Anticholinergics adverse effects occur due to

A

blocking the parasympathetic nervous system

178
Q

Anticholinergics effects

A

hot
Dry
Red
blind
mad

179
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist are taken

A

when you eat (-tidine = to dine)

180
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist do what

A

block stomach acid
for GERD and ulcers

181
Q

Monitor what with H2 Receptor Antagonist

A

CBC
BUN
Creatinine
liver enzymes

182
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist are not given with

A

antacids

183
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist
teach the clients to

A

increase fiber and fluids to combat constipation

184
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist side effects

A

constipation
diarrhea
nausea
abd pain
HA
blistering or peeling skin

185
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist clients with renal impairment are more likely to

A

have agitation
confusion
disorientation
lethargy
more CNS s/s

186
Q

PPI is given

A

before food (30-60 minutes)

187
Q

report what with a PPI

A

black tarry stools

188
Q

GI protectant med is

A

sucralfate

189
Q

Sucralfate is given to

A

heal the ulcer and sucks into the ulcer

190
Q

take sucralfate when

A

empty stomach 1 hour before food or
2 hours after a meal and bedtime

191
Q

don’t give sucralfate if

A

antacids

192
Q

monitor what with sucralfate

A

blood glucose

193
Q

Antiemetic

A

serotonin antagonist - ondansetron
promethazine - antipsychotic
diphenhydramine
scopolamine - patch behind the ear - eye dilation if touch eyes after

194
Q

Zofran

A

removes nausea feeling
NO SLAM (risk for ventricular tachycardia) and NO CNS depressants

195
Q

promethazine side effects

A

EPS and anticholinergic

196
Q

Zofran side effects

A

constipation
dizzy
fatigue and sleepiness
HA
nervous
muscle cramps

EPS

197
Q

TPN

A

CENTRAL LINE ONLY
- Dextrose, amino acids, electrolytes
Complications
- Hypo-, hyperglycemia, fluid overload, infection, embolism
= Change bag and tubing every 24 hours
=

198
Q

Blood glucose checks for TPN

A

Q 4-6 hours

199
Q

What is the priority electrolyte to watch in diuretics?

A

potassium and daily wts

200
Q

Diuretics get rid of

A

sodium and water from the body to prevent edema and heart/lung congestion

201
Q

Loop Diuretics act on

A

loop of Henle

202
Q

Loop Diuretics side effects

A

low K, BP, Ca
high uric acid (gout), glucose
metabolic acidosis

203
Q

What is a severe adverse effect of LOOP DIURETIC?

A

ototoxicity
SLOWLY admin

204
Q

Thiazide diuretics act on

A

distal tubule and block reabsorption of sodium

205
Q

water follows

A

sodium

206
Q

Potassium-sparing diuretics monitor for

A

K and BP

207
Q

In direct Thrombin Inhibitor

A

Heparin

208
Q

Heparin lab to check

A

PTT 45-100 seconds

209
Q

Normal PTT

A

30-40 SECONDS

210
Q

Severe side effect of Heparin

A

HITT

211
Q

HITT

A

occurs 5-14 days after heparin with drops in platelets
STOP heparin and switch to a different anticoagulant to prevent clot

212
Q

Heparin monitor for

A

bleeding anywhere
skin
output
hemorrhage VS
brain

213
Q

Which anticoagulant is only okay to give to pregnant women?

A

enoxaparin (low weight heparin)

214
Q

Oral thrombin inhibitor

A

warfarin

215
Q

Warfarin lab level

A

PT 15-36 seconds
INR 2-3

216
Q

PT normal

A

10-12

217
Q

INR normal

A

0.9-1.2

218
Q

how often do you recheck warfarin levels?

A

q 4-6 weeks
every month

219
Q

education for warfarin

A

consistent amount of vitamin K

220
Q

Pregnant women dont go to

A

war!

221
Q

Fiibrinolytics/Thrombolytics

A

-ase
Alteplase - TPA
clot busters

222
Q

Alteplase needs to be given within

A

3-4 hours of last known well

223
Q

What does the pt need before a blood transfusion?

A

consent form
type and cross
20g or bigger
2 RN check off

224
Q

PRBCs max time

A

4 hours transfusion

225
Q

Closely monitor the patient for how long during a blood transfusion

A

30 minutes

226
Q

VS on a blood admin

A

before
15 mins
after

227
Q

What solution goes with blood

A

NS

228
Q

Ibf a reaction is suspected for a blood transfusion then

A

stop, remove tubing and flush IV (Send to blood bank)
rapid
benadryl and O2
LEUKOCYTE REDUCED blood products to decrease risk for febrile

229
Q

S/S of transfusion reaction

A

Rash
Elevated Temp > 1 degree
Anxiety, apprehension
Chills - ABO mismatch
Tachypnea
Increased pulse
Oliguria and Hemoglobinuria
Nausea
- low back pain - hemolytic

HESI NCLEX-RN Exam (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions