Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y2B4 - Central Nervous System πŸ“™ > Pharmacology πŸ’Š > Flashcards

Pharmacology πŸ’Š Flashcards

1
Q

what are Sedatives & hypnotics? (Minor tranquilizers)

A

These are centrally acting drugs used mainly to treat anxiety and insomnia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is Anxiety?

A
  • is a subjective phenomenon, in which the patient is restless and agitated, has tachycardia, increased sweating and often GIT disorders. It interferes with normal productive activities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is Insomnia?

A
  • Includes a wide variety of sleep disturbances such as difficulty in falling asleep, early or frequent awakening and remaining non- refreshed after sleep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clasiification of Minor Tranquilizers

A

Sedatives (Anxiolytics):
- Benzodiazepines
- Non-Benzodiazepines: Barbiturates, Buspiron

Hypnotics:
- Benzodiazepines
- Non-Benzodiazepines: Barbiturates, Zaleplon, Ramelteon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pathophysiology of anxious disorders

A

Abnormal regulation of neurobiological substrates :
* 5-HT, GABA, Glutamate
* Autonomic nervous system
* Hypothalamo- hypophysis axis
* Neuropeptides: CCK, P substance…..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why have Benzodiazepines replaced barbiturates?

A

Benzodiazepines are the most widely used anxiolytic and hypnotic drugs. They have largely replaced barbiturates since they have:
1) Wide safety margin.
2) Fewer side effects.
3) Less interactions.
4) More tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines

A
  • They depress the limbic system (Thought and mental function) and reticular activating system (Wakefulness).
  • Benzodiazepine receptor stimulation enhance the affinity of GABA to their receptors resulting in hyperpolarisation through Cl-channel opening.
  • They produce calming effect and cause anterograde amnesia during the duration of the drug.
  • At high dose can produce hypnosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classification of Benzodiazepines

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pharmacological effects of Benzodiazepines

A
  • Anxiolytic
  • Sedation & hypnosis
  • M. relaxation
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Amnesia in large dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Absorbtion of Benzodiazepines

A
  • Well absorption ( Clorazepate is a prodrug ) hydrolysed in the stomach.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Metabolism of Benzodiazepines

A
  • Hepatic metabolism by oxidation into active metabolites of the long acting. By conjugation into inactive metabolites of the short acting.
  • Lorazepam and oxazepam are metabolized extrahepatically (utilized in hepatic patients)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Plasma protein binding of Benzodiazepines

A

10 % pl. pr. Binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Uses of Benzodiazepines

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side effects of Benzodiazepines

A
  • Sedation
  • Dysarthria
  • Paradoxical excitement
  • Rebound insomnia
  • Tolerance
  • Amnesia
  • Diplopia
  • Hang over
  • Dependence
  • Apnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Precautions of Benzodiazepines

A

1- Driving
2- Pregnancy&Lactation
3- Hepaticencephalopathy
4- + CNS depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Contraindications of Benzodiazepines

A

1- Myasthenia gravis.

2- Severe respiratory impairment e.g sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are short acting benzodiazepines more of a problem with addiction than the long acting ones?

A
  • Drugs with short half-lives are cleared from the blood stream fairly quickly and may induce withdrawal effects such as rebound excitement and insomnia.
  • Those with longer half-lives are cleared less quickly resulting in a decrease in withdrawal effects.
  • The resulting slow drop in blood levels allows the body to adjust to the lack of drug more effectively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Withdrawal from Benzodiazepines

A
  • Abrupt cessation: > seizures
  • Withdrawal symptoms may occur between doses during continuous use (inter- dose withdrawal). Patients may think these symptoms are due to the original problem.
  • Withdrawal symptoms: increased anxiety, sleep disorder, aching limbs, nervousness & nausea.
  • Withdrawal experienced by 45% of patients discontinuing low dose benzodiazepines & 100% patients on high doses.
  • Short half-life benzodiazepines are associated with more acute & intense withdrawal symptoms.
  • Long half-life benzodiazepines - milder, more delayed withdrawal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Overdose Benzodiazepines

A
  • Generally safe in overdose unless mixed with alcohol/CNS depressants.
  • Symptoms of overdose: hypotension, respiratory depression & coma.
  • Treatment: Supportive
  • Flumazenil rarely indicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Physical dependence of benzodiazepines

A

Occurs in about 1 in 3 patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what increases risk dependence on benzodiazepines?

A

History substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what potentiates the adverse effects of benzodiazepines?

A

Alcohol & CNS depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the antidote of Benzodiazepines?

A
  • Flumazenil is the antidote of Benzodiazepines (competitive inhibitor).
  • Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine Antagonist = Blocker
  • Flumazenil binds to GABA receptor displacing benzodiazepine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when is flumazenil Dangerous to use?

A
  • if mixed overdose (e.g benzodiazepine + tricyclics, amphetamines, other pro-convulsants)
  • Result in uncontrolled seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what happens when flumazenil is used in dependent individuals?

A

severe withdrawal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dosage of Flumazenil

A
  • Flumazenil has a shorter half life ( one hour) than all benzodiazepines
  • Therefore, repeat doses of flumazenil may be required to prevent recurrent symptoms of overdosage once the initial dose of flumazenil wears off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Buspiron?

A

Anxioselective 5 HT-1A agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Half life of Buspiron

A

has a t1⁄2 of 7 hr, a long delay (2 or more weeks).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Uses of Buspiron

A

anti-depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Side effects of Buspiron

A

Safer:
- Minimal residual effect,

  • No tolerance,
  • No rebound insomnia,
  • Suitable for elderly
  • No withdrawal effect,
  • No abuse potential (only in large dose)
  • no dependence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Zaleplon?

A

Benzodiazepine-like hypnotic: (not chemically but binds to the same receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Uses of Zaleplon

A

hypnotic: used for a short term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Side effects of Zaleplon

A

Safer:
- Minimal residual effect
- No rebound insomnia
- Suitable for elderly
- No hangover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Rameteon?

A
  • Selective melatonin agonist (MT1 & MT2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Uses of Rameteon

A

hypnotic: for difficulty in falling asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Side effects of Rameteon

A

Induces dizziness and fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Anxiety

A
  • Buspiron, Oxazepam, Alprazepam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Old age anxiety

A

Buspiron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Insomnia

A

Lorazepam and oxazepam, Zaleplon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Old age insomnia

A

Zaleplon, Rameteon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Hepatic patient anxiety or insomnia

A

Lorazepam and oxazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Difficulty in falling asleep

A

Zaleplon, Rameteon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Preanesthetic medication & Endoscopy

A

Midazolam, Triazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Anesthesia

A

Diazepam, Thiobarbitone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Anticonvulsant

A

Diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the drug of choice in cases of:
- Antiepileptic

A

Clonazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the Ideal anxiolytic drug?

A

1- Should calm the patient without causing too much day-time sedation and drowsiness and without producing physical or psychological dependence.

2- Has very low toxicity.

3- Should not interact with other medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the Ideal hypnotic drug?

A
  • Should allow the patient to fall asleep quickly.
  • Should maintain sleep of sufficient quality and duration.
  • The patient awakes refreshed without a drug hangover.
  • Has very low toxicity.
  • Should not interact with other medications.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Benzodiazepines key points

A
  • Should not be used in patients with liver disease, history of substance abuse, severe respiratory distress, performing hazardous tasks
  • Avoid during pregnancy/lactation if possible
  • Assess for over sedation
  • Cease slowly
  • Monitor elderly (cognition, falls)
  • Be aware they raise seizure threshold, and
  • Potentiate CNS depressants (alcohol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypnotic key points

A
  • Advise rebound insomnia when medications ceased
  • Should not be used in sleep apnoea
  • Avoid alcohol
  • Hangover effect (impairing performance)
  • Monitor in elderly (falls, double dosing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Classification of analgesics

A
  • Opioid analgesics
  • NSAIDs
  • Analgesics antipyretics (Acetaminophen)
  • For specific painful conditions e.g. ergotamine for migraine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are Types of Pain?

A

Severe, Low intensity pain, Itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the main peripheral sense organs that respond to noxious stimuli?

A

Polymodal nociceptors (PMN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Example of Visceral pain

A

myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is Neuropathic pain?

A

damage to nerves (trigeminal neuralgia, postherpetic pain, diabetic neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Opoid receptors

A
  • Mu (ΞΌ)
  • Kappa (Κ)
  • Sigma (Οƒ)
  • Delta (Ξ΄)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Actions of Mu (ΞΌ) receptors

A

(ΞΌ1): supraspinal analgesia, euphoria

(ΞΌ2): Respiratory depression, conistipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Actions of Kappa (Κ)

A

Spinal analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Actions of Sigma (Οƒ. receptors

A

Dysphoria, hallucination, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Actions of Delta (Ξ΄) receptors

A

Modulation of Mu activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mechanism of action of opiods

A

Analgesia:

  • By acting presynaptically to inhibit substance P release at the dorsal horn of spinal cord, causing analgesia (k receptors)
  • Activation of the descending inhibitory mesospinal tract (ΞΌ)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what do the psychic effect of opiods result from?

A
  • results from diminution of the release of noradrenaline by the neurons of the locus ceruleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Classification of opioid drugs

A
  • Natural
  • Semisynthetic
  • Synthetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are natural opioids?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are Semisynthetic opioids?

A

1-Heroin
2-Hydromorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are synthetic opioids?

A

Agonists:
1.Meperidines
2-Methadones
3-Tramadole

Agonist-Antagonist:
1-Nalorphine
2-Nalbuphine
3-Pentazocin
4-Butorphanol
5-Bupernorphine

Antagonists:
1-Naloxone
2-Naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Source of Morphine

A
  • Papaver somniferum, commonly known as the opium poppy
  • It is the species of plant from which opium and poppy seeds are derived
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pharmacokinetics of Morphine

A

Routes of administration:
- Oral: latency to onset (15 – 60 minutes)
- it is also sniffed and injected.

β€”β€”β€”

  • t1⁄2: 4 – 5 hours)

β€”β€”β€”

  • First-pass metabolism results in poor availability (25 %) from oral dosing, (glucuronide conjugation)

β€”β€”β€”
- 30% is plasma protein bound

β€”β€”β€”
- 90 % renal elimination & 10 % by hepatic conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

receptors of Morphine

A

AGONIST for mu, kappa, and delta receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pharmacological effects of Morphine

A
  • CNS effects
  • Autonomic effects
  • Cardiovascular effects
  • Iching
  • Spasmogenic effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

CNS effects of Morphine

A

1- Analgesia (dose dependent), (sensory &emotional)
2- Euphoria
3- Miosis
4- Respiratory c. depression
5- Cough c. suppression
6- Vagal stimulation
7- Nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Autonomic effects of Morphine

A

1- Stimulation of Edinger Westphal nucleus producing miosis.

2- Stimulation of vagal nucleus producing hypotension and bronchoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CVS effects of Morphine

A
  • Hypotension due to depression of vasomotor center and histamine release.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Iching by Morphine

A

due to histamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Spasmogenic effects by Morphine

A

1- Spasmodic nonpropulsive contractions of GIT producing conistipation.

2- Of sphincter of Oddi (increasing biliary pressure)

3- Of detrusor muscle tone in the urinary bladder producing a feeling of urinary urgency.

4- Of vesical sphincter tone making voiding difficult

5- Of bronchi due to histamine release and vagal stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Preparations of Morphine

A

Morphine sulphate and hydrochloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Dosage of Morphine

A
  • S.C., I.M, I.V. and epidural
  • 10 mg S.C. or I.M. for adult, 5mg I.V.
  • 0.1-0.2 mg/day SC or IM for infants and children.
  • The dose frequency / 4-5 hours
  • Sustained release oral preparation 1-2 mg /12 hours & transdermal patches.
78
Q

Adverse effects & Contraindications of Morphine

79
Q

Uses of Morphine

A
  • Analgesia of moderate to severe pain
  • Acute pulmonary edema
  • In anesthesia
  • Colic : + atropine
80
Q

Why is Morphine used in Acute pulmonary edema?

A
  • peripheral VD
  • relieve of anxiety
  • decrease of tachypnea
81
Q

How is Morphine used in anethesia?

A
  • as preanaethetic medication
  • as adjuvant to anesthetic agents (iv morphine)
  • as regional anesthesia; epidural injection of morphine. It produces long lasting analgesia with minimal side effects.
82
Q

Symotoms and signs of acute toxicity of Morphine

A
  • coma with depressed respiration, pin point pupils, hypotension , pulmonary edema and shock may occur.
83
Q

Treatment of acute Morphine toxicity

A
  • Gastric lavage with pot. Permanganate
  • Artificial ventilation by positive pressure if pulmonary edema is present
  • Opioid antagonist
84
Q

Symptoms and signs of Chronic toxicity of morphine (addiction)

A
  • The patient is emaciated, conistipated with frequent flushes and itching.
  • The intellectual functions are also depressed.
  • Withdrawal results in what is called abstinence S.
85
Q

Opioid withdrawal - abstinence syndrome

A

Severity depends on dose used and rate of elimination:

  • Rhinorrhea
  • Lacrimation
  • Chills
  • Goose flesh
  • Muscle aches
  • Diarrhea
  • Yawning
  • Anxiety
  • Hyperalgesia

(Precipitated withdrawal by a partial agonist or antagonist administration)

86
Q

What is drug addiction?

A
  • Prolonged use of prescribed medications for pain, anxiety produce tolerance and physical dependence.
87
Q

What are examples of Commonly Abused Prescription Opiates?

A

Buprenorphine, Codeine, Fentanyl, Hydrocodone, Hydromorphone,Meperidine, Methadone, Morphine, Oxycodone, Propoxyphene

88
Q

Compare between codeine & Morphine in terms of:
- Source
- Pharmacokinetics
- Pharmacodynamics
- Uses
- Sedation & resp. depression
- Addiction

89
Q

what are examples of Semisynthetic opioid?

A

1- Heroin (diacetyl morphine)
2- Hydromorphine

90
Q

Characters of Hydromorphine

A
  • More rapid onset & shorter duration
  • High risk of respiratory depression & addiction
91
Q

what are synthetic agonist opiods?

A

Agonists:
1.Meperidines
2-Methadones
3-Tramadole

Agonist-Antagonist:
1-Nalorphine
2-Nalbuphine
3-Pentazocin
4-Butorphanol
5-Bupernorphine

Antagonists:
1-Naloxone
2-Naltrexone

92
Q

what are examples of Meperidines?

A
  • Meperidne (Pethedine)
  • Diphenoxylate
  • Fentanyl and alfentail
93
Q

Compare between Morphine, Fentanyls & Meperidine (pethidine) in terms of:

  • Source
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Uses
  • S.E
94
Q

what are Methadones?

A

1- Methadone
2- Propoxyphene

95
Q

Route of adminstration of Methadones

96
Q

Half life of Methadones, and what does it result in?

A
  • Longer t1/2 (24h)
  • Can result in cumulative toxicity
97
Q

Metabolism of Methadones

A
  • Metabolized extensively in the liver
98
Q

Uses of Methadones

A
  • Used as analgesic & in the suppression of withdrawal S. Of opiates.
99
Q

Side effects of Methadones

A

Like morphine

100
Q

Propoxyphene

A
  • codeine as analgesic & as addict
  • 1/3 depression of respiration as codeine
  • Antitussive
101
Q

what is Tramadole?

A
  • A metabolite of the antidepressant trazodone
102
Q

Pharmacodynamics of Tramadole

A

Weak agonist at ΞΌ- opioid receptor + weak inhibitor of noradrenaline reuptake

103
Q

Uses of Tramadole

A
  • Widely used as an analgesic for postoperative pain
104
Q

Side effects of Tramadole

A
  • Better side-effect profile than most opioids
105
Q

Does Tramadole depress the RC?

A
  • Does not depress the respiratory C.
106
Q

Is Tramadole addictive?

107
Q

Does Tramadole induce seizures?

A
  • Induce seizures in epileptics
108
Q

Characters of Nalorphine

A
  • analgesic
  • less resp. depression
  • withdrawal S. in addict
109
Q

Characters of Nalbuphine

A
  • analgesic
  • less resp. depression
  • withdrawal S. in addict
110
Q

Characters of Pentazocine

A
  • analgesic
  • less respiratory C. depression
  • does not cause withdrawal S. in addict.
  • I.V. elevates systemic & pulmonary artery pressure (so contraindicated in coronary ischemia)
111
Q

Characters of Butorphanol

A
  • analgesic
  • less respiratory C. depression
  • elevates pulmonary artery pressure (so contraindicated in coronary ischemia)
  • does not cause withdrawal S. in addict
112
Q

Characters of Bupernorphine

A
  • analgesic
  • respiratory C. depression as morphine
  • not antagonised by naloxone
113
Q

Drugs & Mu and Kappa Receptors

114
Q

what are opioid antagonists?

A

1-Naloxone
2-Naltrexone

115
Q

Compare between naltrexone & Naloxone in terms of:

  • Potency
  • Latency to onset
  • Duration of action
  • Peak effect
  • SE
116
Q

Compare between opiates & non-opiates in terms of:

  • Type of pain
  • Site of action
  • Addiction
  • Analgesia accompanied by
117
Q

Summary of opiods

118
Q

Classification of epilepsies

119
Q

Types of partial (Focal) epilepsies

120
Q

DOC in cases of partial (Focal) epilepsies

121
Q

Types of generalized epilepsies

122
Q

Manifestations of Tonic-clonic (Grand-mal) epilepsy

123
Q

DOC in Tonic-clonic (Grand-mal) epilepsy

124
Q

Manifestations of Absence (Petit-Mal) Epilepsy

125
Q

DOC in cases of Absence (Petit-Mal) Epilepsy

126
Q

Manifestations in myoclonic epilepsy

127
Q

DOC in cases of myoclonic epilepsy

128
Q

Manifestations of Atonic epilepsy

129
Q

DOC in cases of Atonic epilepsy

130
Q

Definition of epilepsy

131
Q

Definition of seizures

132
Q

Clinical presentation of epilepsy

133
Q

EEG of epilepsy

134
Q

what causes failure of therapy of anti-epileptic drugs?

135
Q

Precautions while using anti-epileptic drugs

136
Q

what are types of antiepeleptic drugs (AED)?

137
Q

MOA ofDiphenylhydantoin (Phenytoin)

138
Q

Effects of Diphenylhydantoin (Phenytoin)

139
Q

Uses of Diphenylhydantoin (Phenytoin)

140
Q

what is fosphenytoin?

141
Q

SE of Diphenylhydantoin (Phenytoin)

142
Q

MOA of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

143
Q

Effect of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

144
Q

Uses of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

145
Q

what is oxcarbazepine?

146
Q

SE of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

147
Q

when is Carbamazepine (Tegretol) contraindicated?

148
Q

MOA of Valproic acid (Depakene)

149
Q

Effects of Valproic acid (Depakene)

150
Q

Uses of Valproic acid (Depakene)

151
Q

SE of Valproic acid (Depakene)

152
Q

MOA of Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

153
Q

Uses of Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

154
Q

AE of Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

155
Q

MOA of Benzodiazepines (Bzds)

156
Q

When are Benzodiazepines (Bzds) indicated in epilepsy?

157
Q

Notes about valproic acid

158
Q

Example of Barbiturates

159
Q

MOA of Barbiturates

160
Q

Uses of Barbiturates

161
Q

when are Barbiturates contraindicated?

162
Q

what are newer AEDs?

163
Q

MOA of Felbamate

164
Q

Uses of Felbamate

165
Q

AE of Felbamate

166
Q

MOA of Lamotrigine

167
Q

Uses of Lamotrigine

168
Q

AE of Lamotrigine

169
Q

MOA of Gabapentin & pregabalin

170
Q

Uses of Gabapentin & pregabalin

171
Q

AE of Gabapentin & pregabalin

172
Q

MOA of Tiagabine

173
Q

MOA of Levetiracetam

174
Q

Uses of Levetiracetam

175
Q

AE of Levetiracetam

176
Q

Advantages of Levetiracetam

177
Q

MOA of Topiramate

178
Q

Why isn’t Vigabatrine used anymore?

179
Q

Guidelines for AED

180
Q

what is Status Epilepticus?

181
Q

Treatment of Status Epilepticus

182
Q

why shoudn’t phenytoin be given IM?

183
Q

Precautions during antiepileptic therapy

184
Q

First line in trearment of focal epilepsy

185
Q

First line in trearment of generalized epilepsy

186
Q

First line in trearment of absence epilepsy

187
Q

Chances of teratogenecity by AEDs

188
Q

Precautions during taking AEDs during pregnancy

189
Q

What is the best AED during pregnancy?

190
Q

Is Breast feeding acceptable with nearly All anti-epileptic drugs?

Y2B4 - Central Nervous System πŸ“™ (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions