Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which TCA is selective for Norepinephrine Transporters?

A

Desipramine

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2
Q

State the MOA of MAOi

A

MAO inhibitors (MAOIs) increase biological availability of monoamines (Dopamine, Serotonin and Norepinephrine) by preventing their degradation.

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3
Q

State the 2 major forms of MAO and what neurotransmitters they break down

A

MAO-A: Serotonin (mainly broken down by MAO-A), Dopamine, Norepinephrine

MAO-B: Dopamine

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4
Q

ADRs of MAOi

A

1) Postural hypotension
2) Restlessness and insomnia (due to CNS stimulation)
3) Serotonin Syndrome (hyperexcitability, myoclonus, inc muscle tone, loss of consciousness)

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5
Q

State the MOA of Cheese Reaction

A

Tyramine competes with norepinephrine for vesicular storage leading to increased NE release into the synapses causing sympathomimetic effect

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6
Q

ADRs of TCAs (3 classes of ADR)

A

1) Sedation (from H1 antagonism)
2) Postural hypotension (from α adrenoceptor sympathetic block) and reflex tachycardia (not listed)
3) Constipation, dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision (from muscarinic receptor antagonism)

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7
Q

What 2 receptors do most atypical antipsychotics block?

A

D2 and 5HT-2A

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8
Q

MOA of most antipsychotics involve

A

Blocking of Dopamine receptors in the mesolimbic tract

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9
Q

The extrapyrimidal pathway involves which parts of the brain?

A

Basal ganglia, Substantia nigra and Striatum

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10
Q

Between D1,2,3,4, which one is the most culpable in causing EPSE?

A

D1

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11
Q

State the 4 potential reasons why atypical antipsychotics produce less EPSE

A

o Potent 5-HT2A receptor antagonism vs. weak D2 antagonism -> lower EPS and higher efficacy against negative symptoms
 Clozapine, olanzapine

o High D3 to D2 antagonism ratio favours actions on the nucleus accumbens over the striatum (mostly D1, D2 present).
 Amisulpride

o High D4 to D2 antagonism ratio favours actions in the prefrontal cortex over the striatum.
 Clozapine

o High D2 to D1 antagonism ratio reduces impact of antagonism in the striatum (D1 is the worst in causing EPS)
 Amisulpride, risperidone
 A higher D2 to D1 antagonism ratio should confer less complete blockade of dopaminergic function in the striatum as D2 antagonism will increase dopamine release.

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12
Q

State the MOA of TCAs

A

Inhibit the reuptake of Monoamines (Dopamine, NE, Serotonin), causing build up in the synaptic cleft

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13
Q

State the monoamine theory of depression

A

Deficits in monoamine neurotransmitters
(noradrenaline, dopamine and 5 HT) cause depression.

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14
Q

What are the general side effects of SSRI (7)

A

1) GI
2) Sexual dysfunction
3) Insomnia
4) Sedation
5) Bleeding risk
6) SIADH (and or hyponatremia) (esp for elderly)
7) Serotonin syndrome (hyperthermia, tremor, CV collapse)

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15
Q

State the Schizo symptoms that Antipsychotics do not have much effect on

A

Negative symptoms (affective flattening aka no emotion, avolition aka no interest)

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16
Q

State the receptor affinity of Amisulpride

A

selective D2/D3 antagonist (but recently also reported to have 5-HT7 antagonism)

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17
Q

State the potential MOAs of treatment of neurodegenerative diseases (6)

A

1) Increase synthesis of neurotransmitter (NT) (e.g by inc amt of precursor)

2) Destroy enzymes that degrade NT

3) Inc release of NT from terminal button

4) Bind to autoreceptor and block their effect on inhibiting NT release

5) Block reuptake of NT

6) Bind to postsynaptic receptor and inc effect of NT

18
Q

Pathophysiology of Parkinsons

A
  • Impaired clearing of abnormal/damaged intracellular proteins by ubiquitin-proteasomal system.
  • Failure to clear toxic proteins lead to aggregation of aggresomes -> induce oxidative stress and molecular abnormalities -> Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons (more metabolically active -> more vulnerable) with Lewy body (a type of aggresome) inclusions in substantia nigra -> dysfunction of nigrostriatal pathway -> No release of inhibition that allows motor system to become active -> hypokinetic state
19
Q

State how the loss of dopaminergic input leads to motor symptoms for direct and indirect pathway

A

Direct pathway:
- Loss of dopaminergic input lead to hypoactivation of excitatory D1 receptor that weaken strialtal inhibition of GPi (Globus pallidus internal) -> Hypokinesia

Indirect pathway:
- Loss of dopaminergic input lead to hypoactivation of inhibitory D2 receptor that strengthens striatal inhibition of GPe (Globus pallidus external) -> Hypokinesia

20
Q

State MOA of COMT inhibitors

A

o Blocks COMT conversion of dopamine/ L-DOPA into an inactive form leading to:
- More levodopa being available to enter the brain (reduces required dose)
- Increases duration of each dose of Levodopa -> beneficial in treating “wearing off” responses

21
Q

List the names of COMT inhibitors

A

Entacapone, Tolcapone

22
Q

State ADR specific to both Pramipexole and Ropinirole (3)

A

Sedation, somnolence, daytime sleepiness

23
Q

State ADR specific to Pergolide (2)

A

Peritoneal fibrosis, cardiac valve regurgitation

24
Q

State the MOA of Amantadine (4)

A

o Enhance release of stored dopamine
o Inhibit presynaptic uptake of catecholamine
o Dopamine receptor agonist (Upregulates D2 receptors, ↑ sensitivity of D2 receptors)
o NMDA receptor antagonist (anti-glutamate)

25
Q

ADRs of Amantadine (7)

A

o Nausea
o light headed
o Cognitive impairment (inability to concentrate, confusion),
o hallucination,
o insomnia,
o nightmares
o Livedo reticularis (serious; Venule swelling due to thromboses leading to limb discolouration)

26
Q

State when Amantadine may be indicated in PD

A

o Given as adjunct to levodopa (may help to alleviate tardive dyskinesia of Levodopa by a little bit and reduce dose of Levodopa required)

27
Q

State the indication of anticholinergics in PD

A

o Anticholinergic agents have limited use. Typically used as adjunct to levodopa to treat tremors and stiffness in Parkinson’s disease

28
Q

State where the primary cholinergic pathway is

A

Nucleus Basalis

29
Q

State what is the secondary cholinergic pathway

A

Dorsal tegmental pathway

30
Q

State how the cholinergic synapse differs from the dopaminergic synapse

A

Cholinergic synapse differs from Monoaminergic synapse where breakdown of ACh occurs in the synaptic cleft whereas the breakdown of Dopamine via enzymes occurs inside the presynaptic neuron

31
Q

State the ADRs of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChEIs) (5)

A

1) N/V/D, Loss of appetite (most common)
2) Muscle cramp
3) Bradycardia
4) Increased gastric juice secretion

32
Q

State the ADR of Memantine (5)

A

Constipation, headaches (most common)

Hallucination, confusion, dizziness

33
Q

State MOA of Memantine

A

Non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist

34
Q

MOA of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

Inhibits Acetylcholinesterase from breaking down ACh in the synaptic cleft

35
Q

List the peripheral DOPA-decarboxylase inhibitors

A

Carbidopa, Benserazide

36
Q

Does Dopamine pass through the BBB?

A

No

37
Q

State what dopamine is broken down into and what enzymes break it down

A

Homovanilic acid

Broken down by COMT and MAOB in non-sequential manner

38
Q

State some non-pharmacological ways to manage PD (4)

A

1) Physiotherapy
- Stretching, transfers, posture,
- Walking (e.g Draw lines at home to guide them to walk)
- Includes mitigating strategies for freezing (E.g using light to trigger patient and allow them to walk again after freezing)

2) Occupational Therapy
- Mobility aids, home and
- Workplace safety

3) Speech & swallowing
4) Surgery

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs?

A

Selective inhibition of serotonin reuptake transporters (SERT)

40
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SNRIs?

A

Dual inhibition of serotonin (SERT) and norepinephrine (NET) reuptake transporters

41
Q

Dopamine blockade of which part of the brain causes hyperprolactinemia?

A

Anterior pituitary gland