Pharmacology Flashcards
MOA of warfarin
Inhibits Vitamin K reductase enzyme (VKORC1) that reactivates oxidised Vitamin K -> Vitamin K remains oxidised leading to depletion of functional Vit K stores (reduced Vit K) leading to inability to further activate coagulation factors (factor II, VII, IX, X) hence prevents formation of new clots and extension of exisiting clots
What’s the reversal agent for Warfarin?
Vit K
State all the factors/proteins affected by Warfarin
Factors II, VII, IX, X
Protein C and S
ADRs of Warfarin (6)
1) GI (dyspepsia, N/V/D)
2) Hirsuitism
3) Thromboembolism (underwarfarinisation; DVT, PE, MI, Stroke)
4) Bleeding (ovewafarinisation; range from gum bleed, nose bleed to melena, hemoptysis)
5) Hepatitis (rare; risk factors: drugs, EtOH, fat)
6) Cutaneous necrosis (rare; as a result of other ADRs such as Calciphylaxis and Chloesterol microemboli; CKD is risk factor for Calciphylaxis)
Which clotting factor plunges the fastest with use of Warfarin? State the t1/2
Factor VII (t1/2 ~4-6h)
Explain why there may be an initial hypercoagulable state when a patient is first started on warfarin
Protein C and S (natural anticoagulants) are also reduced by warfarin -> might cause hypercoagulable state lasting 4-5 days
What are the absolute contraindications to Warfarin use? (Drug Pts; 8)
1) Hypersensitivity
2) Active bleeding
3) Recent traumatic surgery on enclosed places (e.g eye, CNS, heart)
4) Severe or malignant hypertension
5) Preeclampsia or Eclampsia
6) Severe renal or hepatic disease
7) Subacute bacterial endocarditis, pericarditis, or pericardial effusion
8) Inability to monitor treatment
Which Warfarin isomer is more potent?
S-isomer
Which antibiotics when used with Warfarin does not require pre-emptive dose adjustment?
Macrolides, Augmentin, Doxycycline
Which drugs when used with warfarin require pre-emptive dose adjustment? (state which are inducers/inhibitor also) (7)
Drugs that affect CYP2C9
Inducers:
1) Rifampicin (consider alt if possible)
2) Barbiturates
Inhibitors:
1) Bactrim
2) Ciprofloxacin
3) Amiodarone
4) Metronidazole (avoid use where possible)
5) Fluconazole
MOA of Dabigatran
Dabigatran and its acyl glucuronide metabolites are specific, reversible, competitive, non-peptide, direct thrombin inhibitor (factor IIa).
Dabigatran Etexilate (prodrug form)
What’s the reversal agent for Dabigatran and whats its MOA?
Idarucizumab. Binds dabigatran and its acyl glucuronide metabolites with higher affinity than the binding affinity of dabigatran to thrombin.
MOA of Rivaroxaban
Selectively, competitively, directly and reversibly inhibits factor Xa.
Also indirectly inhibits conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Reversal agent for Rivaroxaban
Andexanet Alfa (factor Xa decoy protein)
MOA of Heparin and explain the difference in activity between UFH and LMWH
- Potentiates the action of antithrombin III (AT III) and thereby inactivates thrombin.
- The active heparin molecules bind tightly to AT III and cause a conformational change, which exposes AT III’s active site for more rapid interaction with proteases.
- Heparin-ATIII complex inactivates a number of coagulation factors:
o Inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) and factors IXa, Xa, and XIa, XIIa.
o Thrombin is needed for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
o Without fibrin, clot formation is impeded.
LMWH has less effect on thrombin as it requires formation of a ternary heparin–antithrombin–thrombin complex which can be formed only by chains at least 18 saccharide units long.
ADR of Heparin (3)
1) Bleeding
o Anticoagulant effect disappears within hours of discontinuation
2) Increased risk of epidural or spinal haematoma and paralysis in patients receiving epidural or spinal anaesthesia or spinal puncture
3) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (low platelet count)
o Binds to platelet factor 4 (PF4) on activated platelet surface -> development of IgG antibody against the heparin-PF4 complex
o Lower risk with LMWHs
MOA of Dipyridamole
1) Inhibits platelet activation and aggregation by ↑cAMP within platelets by 2 ways:
o Inhibits adenosine reuptake into platelets and RBC -> ↑ plasma adenosine activation of A2 receptors on platelets -> inhibits platelet aggregation and activation
o Inhibits Phosphodiesterase 3 (PDE3) -> reducing cAMP degradation within platelets -> ↑cAMP leads to further inhibition of platelet aggregation and activation
2) Vasodilator effect as it also inhibits adenosine reuptake and PDEs in vascular smooth muscle (biggest concern if used as antiplatelet)
o Results in dose-limiting adverse effects that limit clinical antiplatelet efficacy -> hence normally used as adjunct antiplatelet in combination with other antiplatelets (e.g., aspirin) and/or anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
ADRs of Dipyridamole (2)
1) Vasodilator side effects (dizziness, flushing, headache, hypotension)
2) GI side effects (N/V/D)
