Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Trilostane

A
  • Steroid analogue
  • competitive inhibitor of 3 β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase enzyme system and thus interferes with adrenal steroid biosynthesis
  • Following oral administration in dogs, peak trilostane concentrations are seen in 1.5 hours and decrease to baseline values in about 18 hours
  • Dose: 2–5 mg/kg daily per os
    • dosage can be adjusted according to response. Treatment should be monitored using the ACTH stimulation test trying to get the post stimulation cortisol down to below 120 nmol/l starting 2 to 4 hours after oral administration.
    • In some individuals trilostane may need to be given twice daily.
  • Trilostane should be used with caution in dogs with impaired renal function and may cause reversible hypoadrenocorticism in some dogs. Hypoadrenocorticism does occur with over-dosage, but should resolve on withdrawal of the drug.
  • The prevalence of side effects with trilostane is generally considered to be lower than with mitotane.
  • If failure to respond is regarded as an adverse effect then it is probably the most common adverse effect of trilostane administration
  • Another common side effect is an increase in the size of the adrenal glands and a change in the echotexture
    • The most serious side effect of trilostane that has been identified to date is acute adrenal necrosis
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2
Q

Mitotane

A
  • Mitotane is the treatment of choice for pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism.
  • During its evaluation as an insecticide, mitotane was discovered to have adrenocorticolytic effects.
  • It selectively destroys the zona fasciculata (glucocorticoids) and zona reticularis (sex hormones - androgens) while tending to preserve the zona glomerulosa (mineralocorticoids).
  • Mitotane therapy should only be considered once the diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism has been confirmed. Because of its powerful effects, it should never be used empirically.
  • Maintenance therapy: Mitotane is given at a dose of 50 mg/kg/week with food
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3
Q

Mitotane and Trilostane Therapy

A
  • effective and relatively safe in dogs with adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism.
  • Dogs with adrenal tumours however, tend to be more resistant to mitotane and trilostane than dogs with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism.
  • Generally dogs with adrenal-dependent hyperadrenocorticism require higher daily induction doses of mitotane (50–75 mg/kg/day) and a longer period of induction (> 14 days) than dogs with pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism.
  • Frequent monitoring of treatment by ACTH stimulation testing is important to ensure adequate control of the hyperadrenocorticism
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4
Q

Florinef

(fludrocortisone acetate)

A

Tx for Hypoadrenocorticism (Addisons)

  • mineralocorticoid used to treat adrenal gland insufficiency or hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease). It may also be used with other medications to treat hyperkalemia.
  • Florinef is given usually twice a day at a dose determined by the patient’s sodium and potassium blood tests.
    • At first, these electrolytes are monitored weekly.
    • When levels seem stable, these blood tests are repeated two to four times per year.
    • Often with time, it will be found that the Florinef dose needed will increase.
    • This increase is unfortunate as the medication is relatively expensive.
  • Since Florinef has glucocorticoid activity as well as mineralocorticoid activity, it is usually not necessary to use additional medications for treatment.
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5
Q

DOCP injection

(Desoxycorticosterone pivalate)

A
  • an injectable medication approved by the FDA for treatment of Addison’s disease in dogs.
  • It is injected every 3–4 weeks, depending on the patient, and replaces the missing mineralocorticoid aldosterone.
  • Electrolytes are measured prior to injections at first but testing can usually eventually be tapered to once or twice a year. There is some feeling among experts that DOCP produces better regulation of electrolytes than does oral Florinef.
  • Dogs on DOCP, however, do require glucocorticoid supplementation (such as a low dose of prednisone)
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6
Q

Metronidazole

A
  • Metronidazole (also known by the brand names Flagyl, Metizol, Protostat, Metrogel) is a strong antibiotic primarily used as an antidiarrheal to treat inflammation of the large intestine.
  • It’s also used for other illnesses and conditions in dogs, cats, and horses, as well as to treat bacterial infections in humans.
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7
Q

Albuterol

A
  • Used primarily as a bronchodilator; available in oral and inhaled dosage forms
  • Use with caution in patients with cardiac dysrhythmias or dysfunction, seizure disorders, hypertension, or hyperthyroidism

DOG:

  • 0.02 – 0.05 mg/kg (20 – 50 µg/kg) PO every 8 to 12 hours

CAT: (feline asthma)

  • 1 puff (90 µg) may be repeated up to 3 times every 5 to 15 minutes
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8
Q

Fluticasone

(Flovent HFA)

A
  • Glucocorticoid used most commonly in veterinary medicine as an inhaled aerosol as local treatment of a condition while minimizing systemic adverse effects.
  • Has shown efficacy in the treatment of feline asthma, as well as chronic inflammatory airway disease in dogs and horses
  • Must be used with a species-appropriate delivery device
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9
Q

Milbemycin Oxime

(Sentinel®, Sentinel Spectrum®, Trifexis®, Interceptor Plus, Interceptor)

A
  • Milbemycin tablets for dogs are labeled as a once-a-month heartworm preventative (Dirofilaria immitis) and for hookworm control (Ancylostoma caninum). It is also labeled for control and removal of adult roundworms (Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina) and whipworms (Trichuris vulpis). - 6 WEEKS OR OLDER
  • Heartworm and Tapeworm Coverage
  • Milbemycin tablets for cats are labeled as a once-a-month heartworm preventative (D. immitis) and as removal for hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme). It is also used for removal of adult roundworms (Toxocara cati).
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10
Q

Pyrantel

A
  • Pyrantel is FDA approved for removal of ascarids (eg, Toxocara canis, Toxascaris leonina) and hookworms
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11
Q

Nexgard

(Afoxolaner)

A
  • Chewable oral tablet for use in dogs and puppies 8 weeks of age and older and weighing at least 1.8 kg (4 lb)
  • flea and tick prevention
  • puppy friendly
  • Labeled for monthly treatment and prevention of flea infestations and for monthly treatment and control of American dog tick, black-legged tick, lone star tick, and brown dog tick infestations
  • Indicated for the prevention of Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease) infections as a direct result of killing Ixodes scapularis vector ticks before disease transmission occurs
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12
Q

Simbadol or Buprenex

A

Buprenorphine

  • Partial μ-opioid agonist used primarily as an injectable and buccal (ie, oral transmucosal [OTM]) analgesic, especially cats
  • Often used as a component of short-term immobilization drug combinations
  • Buccal/OTM administration well-tolerated and can be effective
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13
Q

Proin

(phenylpropanolamine hydrochloride)

A

Sympathomimetic

Sympathomimetic used primarily to treat acquired urethral sphincter hypotonus in spayed dogs

Should be used with caution in animals with glaucoma, prostatic hypertrophy, hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disorders, and/or hypertension

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14
Q

Cerenia

A

Maropitant

FDA approved for use in dogs and cats as an antiemetic

Because maropitant acts at the emetic center, it is effective for the treatment of emesis mediated via either peripheral or central mechanisms.

The SC injection is FDA-approved for the prevention and treatment of acute vomiting (dogs) and treatment of vomiting (cats). SC injections may cause pain and swelling at injection site. Refrigerating the injection may reduce pain

1mg/kg SQ

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15
Q

Balance It Canine

A

Vitamin, mineral, and amino acid powder to create homemade dog food. Just mix with fresh foods you like to feed and your dog enjoys.

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16
Q

Royal Canin Urinary SO Dog Food

A
  • Royal Canin Urinary SO is a veterinary-exclusive dry dog food for dogs with urinary health concerns
  • Helps dissolve pure struvite stones and helps prevent calcium oxalate stones
  • Lowers the risk of crystal formation using RSS methodology for bladder health
  • Supports urinary health with an exclusive S/O Index, and creates an environment unfavorable to crystal formation in the bladder
  • Helps prevent struvite stones from reoccurring
17
Q

Royal Canin Feline Calm

A

Royal Canin Feline Calm is a veterinary-exclusive dry cat food specially formulated to help provide calming nutrients for cats facing stressful environments or situations. This includes calming support for digestive upsets, skin irritations, and urinary sensitivities. The complete and balanced formula includes cat calming nutrients like hydrolyzed milk protein and L-tryptophan to help calm your cat’s fearful behaviors in stressful environments or situations

18
Q

Clindamycin

A

Lincosamide Antibiotic

  • There are clindamycin products that are FDA-approved for use in dogs and cats. Labeled indications include treatment of skin infections (eg, wounds, abscesses), dental infections, and osteomyelitis (in dogs) caused by coagulase-positive staphylococci (ie, Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus intermedius), streptococci (in cats), Bacteroides fragilis, Prevotella melaninogenicus, Fusobacterium necrophorum, and Clostridium perfringens
19
Q

Cisapride

A

pro-motility agent

  • Cisapride has been found to be useful in the treatment of constipation and megacolon in cats.
  • Oral GI prokinetic agent, used in several species for GI stasis, gastroesophageal reflux, and constipation/megacolon (cats).
  • Not commercially available; must be obtained from a compounding pharmacy.
  • Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to the drug; GI perforation or obstruction, hemorrhage, potential for causing arrhythmias.
20
Q

Reglan

(Metoclopramide)

A
  • Metoclopramide has been used in animals for both its GI prokinetic and antiemetic properties. It has been used clinically for gastric stasis disorders, gastroesophageal reflux, and intubation of the small intestine and as a general antiemetic (for parvoviral enteritis, bilious vomiting syndrome, uremic gastritis), and an antiemetic to prevent or treat chemotherapy-induced vomiting
  • Stimulates upper GI motility and has antiemetic properties, is more potent as an antiemetic than a prokinetic agent in dogs, may be a poor antiemetic in cats
  • Contraindications include GI hemorrhage, obstruction, perforation, and hypersensitivity. Relative contraindications include seizure disorders and pheochromocytoma.
21
Q

Amlodipine

A
  • Oral amlodipine is used to treat hypertension in cats and is considered the drug of choice for managing hypertension
  • Dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker often used for treating hypertension, especially in cats
  • Slight negative inotrope; caution should be used in patients with heart disease and hepatic dysfunction

Potential to cause anorexia and hypotension in cats, especially early in therapy; gingival hyperplasia has been reported.

22
Q

Should you use valium in cats?

A

NO!

can lead to liver problems

Cats: Hepatic failure or behavior changes

23
Q

Alprazolam

(XANAX)

A
  • Alprazolam may be useful in cats for adjunctive treatment of anxiety disorders and inappropriate elimination, and, unlike oral diazepam in cats, alprazolam has not been implicated in causing liver failure.
  • good anxiolytic in cats
  • Alprazolam may be useful for adjunctive therapy in anxious and/or aggressive dogs or in dogs demonstrating panic reactions and for managing anxiety while a long-term–use drug (eg, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor [SSRI], other serotonin-enhancing drug) reaches therapeutic levels
24
Q

Famotidine IV in cats

A

NO!

hemolysis

25
Q

Apoquel

(Oclacitinib)

A
  • Oclacitinib is FDA-approved in dogs at least 12 months of age for controlling pruritus associated with allergic dermatitis, including flea allergies and atopic dermatitis.
  • Oclacitinib is suitable for the treatment of both acute flares and long-term management of atopic dermatitis.
  • Pruritus relief in dogs starts within 4 hours of administration of the first dose, with significant itch relief by 24 hours.
  • immunosuppressant ** be very cautious about using in dogs with cancers
  • Patients should be monitored for the development of any new (or exacerbations of existing) neoplastic conditions, including cutaneous or subcutaneous masses.
26
Q

Cytopoint

(lokivetmab)

A

Used to treat clinical signs associated with allergic and atopic dermatitis in dogs only

Reduced pruritus seen within 1 to 3 days in most dogs and lasts for 4 to 8 weeks; maximum effect achieved after the second dose

Appears safe, well tolerated, and effective in reducing pruritu

27
Q

Percorten

(Desoxycorticosterone Pivalate)

A

Desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP) is indicated for the parenteral treatment of primary hypoadrenocorticism (ie, Addison’s disease) in dogs. Compared to fludrocortisone, DOCP use resulted in lower prednisolone requirements1 and more effectively suppressed plasma renin activity.

Parenteral mineralocorticoid used to treat hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease) in dogs; limited experience with its use in cats due to rare nature of this condition in this species.

Adjust dose based on monitoring parameters. Extra-label dosing protocols using either lower DOCP dose or extended dosing interval can be considered.

Does not contain any glucocorticoid activity and thus a glucocorticoid must be used concurrently in the treatment of hypoadrenocorticism.

Contraindications include congestive heart failure, severe renal disease, primary hepatic failure, or edema; use with caution in pregnant anim

28
Q

Which breeds/gender are predisposed to Addisons?

A
  • young females
  • poodles
  • wheaten terriers
  • GSD
  • Great Dane
29
Q

Where is DHPP administered?

A

Left Forelimb

30
Q

Where is Rabies admin?

A

Rear Right limb

31
Q

CIV administration?

A

Right forelimb?

32
Q

Lepto admin

A

in the left hindlimb

33
Q

Pepcid

(Famotidine)

A
  • H2-receptor antagonist used to reduce gastric acid production. Recent studies in dogs and cats suggest omeprazole is superior to famotidine for increasing gastric pH.
34
Q
A