Pharmacology Flashcards

Question 1

Q

acetylcholine

Answer

A

A neurotransmitter that allows a nerve impulse to cross the synaptic junction (gap) between two nerve fibers or between a nerve fiber and an organ (e.g., muscle, gland).

Question 2

Q

acetylcholinesterase

Answer

A

An enzyme that brings about the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic gap.

Question 3

Q

Active Immunity

Answer

A

Immunity that occurs by an animal’s own immune response after exposure to foreign antigen

Question 4

Q

Addison’s disease

Answer

A

A disease or syndrome characterized by inadequate amounts of corticosteroid hormones.

Question 5

Q

adjuvant

Answer

A

A substance given with an antigen to enhance the immune response to the antigen. Adjuvants may form a localized granuloma at the injection site or may produce systemic hypersensitivity. Adjuvants have received much attention as a result of a possible (but not proven) link with the increased incidence of fibrosarcomas in vaccinated cats. Examples of adjuvants are aluminum hydroxide, aluminum phosphate, aluminum potassium sulfate, water in oil, saponin, and diethylaminoethyl (DEAE) dextran.

Question 6

Q

adrenergic

Answer

A

A term used to describe an action or a receptor that is activated by epinephrine or norepinephrine.

Question 7

Q

adsorbent

Answer

A

A drug that inhibits gastrointestinal absorption of drugs, toxins, or chemicals by attracting and holding them to its surface.

Question 8

Q

adverse drug event

Answer

A

Harm to a patient caused by a therapeutic or preventive intervention. It could be due to a medication error or adverse drug reaction.

Question 9

Q

adverse drug reaction

Answer

A

An undesirable response to a drug by a patient. It may vary in severity from mild to fatal.

Question 10

Q

aerobe

Answer

A

Organism that is able to grow in the presence of oxygen.

Question 11

Q

aerosolization

Answer

A

The conversion of a liquid into a fine mist or colloidal suspension in air.

Question 12

Q

Afterload

Answer

A

The resistance (pressure) in arteries that must be overcome to empty blood from the ventricle.

Question 13

Q

Agonist

Answer

A

A drug that brings about a specific action by binding with the appropriate receptor.

Question 14

Q

Alkylation

Answer

A

Formation of a linkage between a substance and DNA that causes irreversible inhibition of the DNA molecule. Alkylating drugs are used in chemotherapy treatment of cancer.

Question 15

Q

Anabolism

Answer

A

The constructive phase of metabolism in which body cells repair and replace tissue.

Question 16

Q

Anaerobe

Answer

A

Organism that is not able to grow in the presence of oxygen.

Question 17

Q

analgesia

Answer

A

The absence of the sensation of pain.

Question 18

Q

analogue

Answer

A

A chemical compound having a structure similar to another but differing from it in some way.

Question 19

Q

anaphylaxis

Answer

A

A systemic, severe allergic reaction.

Question 20

Q

Anesthesia

Answer

A

The loss of all sensation. May be described as local (affecting a small area), regional, or surgical (accompanied by unconsciousness).

Question 21

Q

angiogenesis

Answer

A

The development of blood vessels.

Question 22

Q

antagonist

Answer

A

A drug that inhibits a specific action by binding with a particular receptor.

Question 23

Q

anthelmintic

Answer

A

Drug used to eliminate helminth parasites (e.g., roundworms) from a host.

Question 24

Q

antibacterial

Answer

A

An agent that inhibits bacterial growth, impedes replication of bacteria, or kills bacteria.

Question 25

Q

antibiotic

Answer

A

An agent produced by a microorganism or semisynthetically that has the ability to inhibit the growth of or kill microorganisms.

Question 26

Q

antibody

Answer

A

An immunoglobulin molecule that combines with the specific antigen that induced its formation.

Question 27

Q

anticholinergic

Answer

A

Blocking nerve impulse transmission through the parasympathetic nervous system; also called parasympatholytic. Anticholinergic drugs may be used for the treatment of diarrhea or vomiting.

Question 28

Q

antigen

Answer

A

Any substance that can induce a specific immune response, such as toxins, foreign proteins, bacteria, and viruses.

Question 29

Q

antihistamine

Answer

A

A drug that counteracts the action of histamine in the body; are used for treating allergic reactions.

Question 30

Q

antimicrobial

Answer

A

An agent that kills microorganisms or suppresses their multiplication or growth.

Question 31

Q

antimicrobial residues

Answer

A

Presence of an antimicrobial (antibiotic) or its metabolites in food products or animal tissue.

Question 32

Q

antimicrobial resistance

Answer

A

Develops when microorganisms, such as bacteria and fungi, no longer respond to a drug that previously were effective.

Question 33

Q

antiseptic

Answer

A

A substance used on the skin to prevent the growth of bacteria or to provide preoperative cleansing of the skin.

Question 34

Q

antitussive

Answer

A

A drug that inhibits or suppresses the cough reflex.

Question 35

Q

arrhythmia

Answer

A

( or dysrhythmia) A variation from the normal rhythm.

Question 36

Q

astringent

Answer

A

An agent that causes contraction after application to tissue.

Question 37

Q

atony

Answer

A

The absence or lack of normal tone or strength.

Question 38

Q

autologous

Answer

A

Belonging to the same organism.

Question 39

Q

automaticity

Answer

A

The ability of cardiac muscle to generate impulses.

Question 40

Q

autonomic nervous system

Answer

A

That portion of the nervous system that controls involuntary activities.

Question 41

Q

average cost of inventory on hand

Answer

A

Average cost of inventory on hand is determined by adding the year’s beginning inventory to the year’s ending inventory and dividing by two.

Question 42

Q

avirulent

Answer

A

avirulent The inability of an infectious agent to produce pathologic effects.

Question 43

Q

bacteria

Answer

A

Single-celled microorganisms that usually have a rigid cell wall and a round, rod-like, or spiral shape.

Question 44

Q

bactericidal

Answer

A

An agent with the capability to kill bacteria.

Question 45

Q

bacterin

Answer

A

A killed bacterial vaccine.

Question 46

Q

bacteriostatic

Answer

A

An agent that inhibits the growth or reproduction of bacteria.

Question 47

Q

beta-lactamase

Answer

A

Enzymes that reduce the effectiveness of certain antibiotics; beta-lactamase I is penicillinase; beta-lactamase II is cephalosporinase.

Question 48

Q

bioavailability

Answer

A

Measure of the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation

Question 49

Q

blepharospasm

Answer

A

Squinting of the eye.

Question 50

Q

bots

Answer

A

Larvae of several fly species (e.g., Gasterophilus [horse bot]).

Question 51

Q

bradyarrhythmia

Answer

A

Bradycardia associated with an irregularity of heart rhythm.

Question 52

Q

bradycardia

Answer

A

A slower-than-normal heart rate.

Question 53

Q

bronchoconstriction

Answer

A

Narrowing of the bronchi and bronchioles, which results in increased airway resistance and decreased airflow.

Question 54

Q

bronchodilation

Answer

A

Widening lumen of bronchi and bronchioles, which results from relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles. Airway resistance is decreased, and airflow is increased.

Question 55

Q

buffer

Answer

A

A substance that decreases the change in pH when an acid or base is added.

Question 56

Q

callus

Answer

A

Hypertrophy of the horny layer of the epidermis in a localized area as a result of pressure or friction.

Question 57

Q

cardiac output

Answer

A

Amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute.

Question 58

Q

cardiac remodeling

Answer

A

Change in the size, shape, structure, and physiology of the heart due to damage to the myocardium.

Question 59

Q

catalepsy

Answer

A

A state of involuntary muscle rigidity that is accompanied by immobility, amnesia, and variable amounts of analgesia. Some reflexes may be preserved.

Question 60

Q

catecholamine

Answer

A

The class of neurotransmitters that includes dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. When given therapeutically, catecholamines mimic the effects of stimulating the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 61

Q

caval syndrome

Answer

A

A life-threatening condition caused by a large number of heartworms lodged in the vena cava, right atrium, and right ventricle.

Question 62

Q

ceiling effect

Answer

A

The highest level of a specific drug has been reached; increasing the dose does not provide any additional pain relief but may increase the side effects.

Question 63

Q

cell cycle–nonspecific

Answer

A

Capable of acting in several or all cell cycle phases.

Question 64

Q

cell cycle–specific

Answer

A

Capable of acting during a particular cell cycle phase only.

Answer 65

A

A waxy secretion of the glands of the external ear canal.

Answer 66

A

A tapeworm.

Answer 67

A

An agent used in chemotherapy for metal poisoning.

Answer 68

A

(CRTZ) An area in the brain that activates the vomiting center when stimulated by toxic substances in the blood.

Answer 69

A

activated by or transmitted through acetylcholine; also called parasympathomimetic. Cholinergic drugs increase activity in the gastrointestinal tract.

Answer 70

A

Substances that are able to decrease the progression of osteoarthritis by providing support to cartilage and promoting its repair; they are available as oral or injectable medications.

Answer 71

A

Affecting the heart rate.

Answer 72

A

A type of primary glaucoma of the eye that is characterized by a shallow anterior chamber and a narrow angle that compromises filtration because the iris is blocking the angle and is causing an increase in intraocular pressure.

Answer 73

A

A fibrous substance found in skin, tendon, bone, cartilage, and all other connective tissues.

Answer 74

A

A chemical system composed of a continuous medium throughout which small particles are distributed and do not settle out under the influence of gravity. Colloids increase intravascular volume. IV administration only. (Voluven, Hetastrach)

Answer 75

A

An estimate of viable bacterial or fungal numbers.

Answer 76

A

(pl. comedones) A plug of keratin and sebum within a hair follicle of the skin.

Answer 77

A

Any manipulation (e.g., diluting, combining) performed to produce a dosage-form drug, other than the manipulations described in the directions for use on the labeling of an approved drug product.

Answer 78

A

The amount of a drug in a given volume of blood plasma.

Answer 79

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva.

Answer 80

A

(or scheduled drug) A drug that is tightly controlled due to its abuse potential or risk. Schedule I = most controlled; Schedule V = less controlled.

Answer 81

A

Recommended vaccines for most animals to protect them from highly contagious diseases that are widespread in the environment.

Answer 82

A

An agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation.

Answer 83

A

crash cart A stationary or mobile cart stocked with supplies, equipment, and drugs for use during an emergency.

Answer 84

A

A semisolid preparation of oil, water, and a medicinal agent.

Answer 85

A

Hyperadrenocorticism; a disease or syndrome characterized by an overabundance of corticosteroid hormones.

Answer 86

A

Paralysis of the ciliary muscle.

Answer 87

A

Capable of destroying cells.

Answer 88

A

An official federal government DEA changed to non-carbon-copy form in 2020. form from the Drug Enforcement Administration used for ordering controlled substances.

Answer 89

A

A substance that reduces the swelling of mucous membranes.

Answer 90

A

Pain arising from deep receptors in the periosteum, tendons, and joint structures.

Answer 91

A

A benefit that some companies offer to the buyer who is purchasing increased amounts of merchandise. The date the statement must be paid is usually longer than 30–60 days away.

Answer 92

A

A preparation for cleansing teeth that is available in a powder, paste, or liquid.

Answer 93

A

Neutralizing of the polarity of a cardiac cell by an inflow of sodium ions. Depolarization results in contraction of the cardiac cell and renders it incapable of further contraction until repolarization occurs.

Answer 94

A

dermatitis Inflammation of the skin.

Answer 95

A

Fungi parasitic on the skin.

Answer 96

A

A fungal skin infection.

Answer 97

A

An agent that cleanses.

Answer 98

A

The smooth muscle of the urinary bladder that is mainly responsible for emptying the bladder during urination.

Answer 99

A

The absence of detrusor contractions.

Answer 100

A

A condition that occurs due to insulin deficiency.

Answer 101

A

Relaxation phase when the chambers of the heart are filling with blood.

Answer 102

A

A process of reducing the concentration of a substance in a solution.

Answer 103

A

To make free of pathogens or make them inactive.

Answer 104

A

A chemical agent applied to inanimate objects to destroy or inhibit growth of microorganisms.

Answer 105

A

Widespread formation of clots (thrombi) in the microscopic blood vessels of the circulatory system. DIC occurs as a complication of a wide variety of disorders and consumes clotting factors, with resultant bleeding.

Answer 106

A

The act of separating into ionic components (NaCl → Na and Cl).

Answer 107

A

(distichiasis) Eyelashes emerge through the meibomian gland opening at the eyelid margin in a misdirected way, causing the eyelashes to touch and irritate the corneal surface

Answer 108

A

A drug used to promote urine excretion.

Answer 109

A

The amount of a drug dose and the frequency at which the medication must be administered to a patient.

Answer 110

A

dosage form A drug’s physical appearance; the form in which they are marketed for use.

Answer 111

A

dosage range A drug’s dosage formula expressed as a set of two numbers; a minimum and a maximum safe dose.

Answer 112

A

The amount of drug to be administered to a patient (e.g., 100 mg).

Answer 113

A

A decrease in the number of cellular receptors to a molecule resulting in reduced sensitivity to the molecule.

Answer 114

A

A substance used to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease.

Answer 115

A

Difficult birth.

Answer 116

A

A parasite that lives on the outside body surface of its host.

Answer 117

A

A rolling outward (i.e., away from the eye) or sagging of the eyelid. Many times, the conjunctiva is plainly visible.

Answer 118

A

A gland, organ, or tissue that responds to nerve stimulation with a specific action.

Answer 119

A

The extent to which a drug causes the intended effects in a patient.

Answer 120

A

A substance that dissociates into ions when placed in solution, becoming capable of conducting electricity

Answer 121

A

A hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavoring, and a medicinal agent.

Answer 122

A

The act of vomiting.

Answer 123

A

A substance or drug that induces vomiting.

Answer 124

A

Based on observation and personal experience

Answer 125

A

A medicinal agent that consists of oily substances dispersed in an aqueous medium with an additive to stabilize the dispersion.

Answer 126

A

The mucous membrane lining of the uterus.

Answer 127

A

A parasite that lives inside the body of its host.

Answer 128

A

The smooth layer of epithelial cells that line blood vessels.

Answer 129

A

Acid resistant coating on a tablet that prevents it from being dissolved in an acid environment such as the stomach and are activated (dissolved) only when they reach an alkaline environment such as the small intestine.

Answer 130

A

A rolling inward (i.e., toward the cornea) of the eyelid

Answer 131

A

One gram molecular weight (from periodic chart) divided by the total positive valence of the material.

Answer 132

A

Redness of the skin caused by congestion of the capillaries

Answer 133

A

The formation of erythrocytes.

Answer 134

A

A glycoprotein hormone secreted mainly by the kidney; it acts on stem cells of the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production.

Answer 135

A

A normal thyroid gland.

Answer 136

A

A drug that enhances the expulsion of secretions from the respiratory tract

Answer 137

A

The use of a drug that is not specifically listed on the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved label.

Answer 138

A

Leakage of fluid, cells, or cellular debris from blood vessels and their deposition in or on the tissue.

Answer 139

A

Organic compound of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen that is esterified with glycerol to form fat.

Answer 140

A

The rate at which animals convert feed into tissue. It is expressed as the number of pounds or kilograms of feed needed to produce 1 lb or 1 kg of animal.

Answer 141

A

The return of some of the output product of a process as input in a way that controls the process.

Answer 142

A

Fibrin (clot) breakdown through the action of the enzyme plasmin.

Answer 143

A

Acronym for “first in, first out.”

Answer 144

A

Some orally administered drugs are rapidly metabolized in the liver; the concentration of the drug is greatly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation.

Answer 145

A

Acronym for “free on board.”

Answer 146

A

FOB destination Title of possession passes from the pharmaceutic company to the buyer (i.e., the purchaser) when the shipment is delivered to the buyer’s business destination (i.e., the veterinary facility).

Answer 147

A

Title passes from the pharmaceutic company to the purchaser when the vendor places the goods in the possession of the carrier (e.g., United Parcel Service, Federal Express, Averitt Express).

Answer 148

A

A pharmaceutic company that offers full service (e.g., the company employs sales representatives [reps] who visit veterinary facilities), usually with a limited number of products.

Answer 149

A

An agent that kills fungi.

Answer 150

A

An agent that inhibits the growth of fungi.

Answer 151

A

(furunculosis) A focal suppurative inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue; also known as a boil.

Answer 152

A

The site of the synapse between neuron one and neuron two of the autonomic nervous system.

Answer 153

A

A group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the retina and the optic nerve.

Answer 154

A

A hormone that stimulates the ovaries or testes.

Answer 155

A

New tissue formed in the healing of wounds of the soft tissue, consisting of connective tissue cells and ingrown young vessels; it ultimately forms a scar.

Answer 156

A

An on-line resource listing all FDA-approved animal drugs.

Answer 157

A

The amount of time (usually expressed in hours) that it takes for the quantity of a drug in the body to be reduced by 50%.

Answer 158

A

Parasitic worms, including nematodes, cestodes, and trematodes.

Answer 159

A

Vomiting of blood (the vomitus often resembles coffee grounds).

Answer 160

A

Blood in the urine

Answer 161

A

A chemical mediator of the inflammatory response released from mast cells. Histamine may cause dilation and increased permeability of small blood vessels, constriction of small airways, increased secretion of mucus in the airways, and pain.

Answer 162

A

Paralysis of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye that may cause enophthalmos, ptosis of the upper eyelid, slight elevation of the lower eyelid, constriction of the pupil, and narrowing of the palpebral tissue.

Answer 163

A

Addition of moisture to the air.

Answer 164

A

A cell culture that consists of a clone of a hybrid cell formed by fusing cells of different types, such as stimulated mouse plasma cells and myeloma cells.

Answer 165

A

A heightened sense of pain

Answer 166

A

An excess of potassium in the blood.

Answer 167

A

An excess of sodium in the blood.

Answer 168

A

Persistently high blood pressure.

Answer 169

A

Having an osmolality higher than 300 mOsm/L.

Answer 170

A

The state characterized by an increased tonicity or tension.

Answer 171

A

A condition in which red blood cells are present in the anterior chamber of the eye(s).

Answer 172

A

Abnormally low potassium concentration in the blood.

Answer 173

A

A deficiency of sodium in the blood.

Answer 174

A

This is the portal system of the pituitary gland in which venules from the hypothalamus connect with capillaries of the anterior pituitary.

Answer 175

A

Having an osmolality less than 300 mOsm/L (D5W)

Answer 176

A

Decreased volume of circulating blood.

Answer 177

A

Caused by the physician (veterinarian).

Answer 178

A

(IgA) Class of antibody produced on mucous membrane surfaces, such as those of the respiratory tract.

Answer 179

A

Within an artificial environment.

Answer 180

A

Within the living body.

Answer 181

A

A drug that affects the strength or force of cardiac muscle contractions.

Answer 182

A

inotropic Affecting the force of cardiac muscle contraction.

Answer 183

A

Thickened or dried out.

Answer 184

A

Pertaining to, or composed of, skin.

Answer 185

A

A group of polypeptide cytokines that carry signals between cells in the immune system.

Answer 186

A

An injection into the anterior chamber of the eye.

Answer 187

A

A single, precise amount of medication or fluids given, one time intravenously.

Answer 188

A

A controlled administration of fluids, including drugs, directly into the vein, over a period of time. The most common method used is an infusion pump.

Answer 189

A

The quantity of goods or assets that a veterinary facility possesses, requiring proactive control to keep supplies stable and current.

Answer 190

A

(many times a licensed veterinary medical technician [LVMT]) responsible for monitoring, ordering, and maintaining inventory in a veterinary facility.

Answer 191

A

A form generated by a company that documents the quantity and price of each item ordered by the inventory control manager.

Answer 192

A

The return of a reproductive organ to normal size after delivery

Answer 193

A

An iodine compound with a longer activity period that results from the combination of iodine and a carrier molecule that releases iodine over time.

Answer 194

A

Having an osmolality equal to 300 mOsm/L. ( normal saline, LRS, Normosol-R)

Answer 195

A

Inflammation of the cornea

Answer 196

A

An agent that promotes loosening or separation of the horny layer of the epidermis.

Answer 197

A

An agent that promotes normalization of the development of keratin.

Answer 198

A

Excessive ketones made from fat as an emergency fuel source. Ketone levels increase causing a shift in the acid/base balance.

Answer 199

A

Legend drugs are required by law to be dispensed on or by the order of a licensed veterinarian or physician.

Answer 200

A

Left-sided arrangement of a molecule that may exist in a left- or a right-sided configuration. Levo and dextro isomers have the same molecular formula.

Answer 201

A

A medicine in an oily, soapy, or alcoholic vehicle to be rubbed on the skin to relieve pain or to act as a counterirritant.

Answer 202

A

It is an initial higher dose of a drug given at the beginning of a treatment to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration in the body.

Answer 203

A

Peripheral neurons whose cell bodies lie in the central gray columns of the spinal cord and whose terminations lie in skeletal muscle. A sufficient number of lesions of lower motor neurons cause muscles supplied by the nerve to atrophy, resulting in weak reflexes and flaccid paralysis.

Answer 204

A

a company that accepts orders from the buyer by telephone; a good source for ordering items such as gauze, cotton, isopropyl alcohol, or paper towels.

Answer 205

A

The bulk production of drugs for resale outside of the veterinarian–client–patient relationship.

Answer 206

A

The actual profit a practice makes on each sale

Answer 207

A

The amount of money over cost for which a product sells. Markup percentages vary from practice to practice, but all markups reflect a retail value over wholesale value

Answer 208

A

The intercellular substance of tissues like cartilage and bone.

Answer 209

A

Dark or black stools that result from blood staining. Bleeding has occurred in the anterior part of the gastrointestinal tract.

Answer 210

A

Decreased body pH caused by excess hydrogen ions in the extracellular fluid

Answer 211

A

Increased body pH caused by excess bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid.

Answer 212

A

Biotransformation. The biochemical process that alters a drug from an active form to a form that is inactive or that can be eliminated from the body.

Answer 213

A

Generally refers to the transfer of cancer cells from one site to another.

Answer 214

A

(MDI) A hand held device that uses a propellant to deliver a specific amount of medication that is inhaled into the lungs by the patient.

Answer 215

A

The presence of methemoglobin in the blood caused by injury or toxic agents that convert a larger-than-normal proportion of hemoglobin into methemoglobin, which does not function as an oxygen carrier. AKA, Iron not binding to hemoglobin

Answer 216

A

A prelarval stage of a filarial worm transmitted to the biting insect from the principal host (e.g., filarial stage of Dirofilaria immitis).

Answer 217

A

An organism that is microscopic (e.g., bacterium, protozoan, Rickettsia, virus, and fungus)

Answer 218

A

mEq. term used to express the concentration of electrolytes in a solution; 1/1000 of an equivalent weight.

Answer 219

A

A measure of potency and is the alveolar concentration that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response to a painful stimulus. Lower numbers indicate more potent agents.

Answer 220

A

Contraction of the pupil.

Answer 221

A

A drug used to constrict the pupil.

Answer 222

A

The modification of nociceptive transmission.

Answer 223

A

A vaccine, antiserum, or antitoxin developed specifically for a single antigen or organism.

Answer 224

A

A hormone secreted by cells in the duodenal mucosa that causes contraction of intestinal smooth muscle.

Answer 225

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

Answer 226

A

Having the ability to break down mucus.

Answer 227

A

The use of different drugs with different actions to produce optimal analgesia and minimize individual drug quantities when possible.

Answer 228

A

Receptors activated by acetylcholine and muscarine that are found in glands, the heart, and smooth muscle. An acronym for remembering muscarinic effects is SLUD: S, salivation; L, lacrimation; U, urination; D, defecation.

Answer 229

A

Dilation of the pupil.

Answer 230

A

A malignant neoplasm of plasma cells (B lymphocytes).

Answer 231

A

Inhibition of bone marrow activity that results in decreased production of blood cells and platelets.

Answer 232

A

A muscle fibril composed of numerous myofilaments

Answer 233

A

Passing a flexible tube through the nasal passages into the stomach.

Answer 234

A

The process of converting liquid medications into a spray that can be carried into the respiratory system by inhaled air.

Answer 235

A

Parasitic worms, including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lungworms, kidney worms, heartworms, and others

Answer 236

A

The study of the urinary (renal) system.

Answer 237

A

The basic functional unit of the kidney.

Answer 238

A

Toxic to the kidneys.

Answer 239

A

A loss of feeling or sensation produced by injecting an anesthetic agent around a nerve to interfere with its ability to conduct impulses.

Answer 240

A

A combination of an opioid with a tranquilizer or sedative.

Answer 241

A

Pain that originates from injury or involvement of the peripheral or central nervous system.

Answer 242

A

Receptors activated by acetylcholine and nicotine found at the neuromuscular junction of the skeletal muscle and at the ganglionic synapses.

Answer 243

A

The condition of the body as it relates to protein intake and use. Positive nitrogen balance implies a net gain in body protein.

Answer 244

A

The reception, conduction, and central nervous system processing of nerve signals generated by nociceptors.

Answer 245

A

A receptor for pain caused by injury to body tissue. Pain sensation arises in the terminal ends of sensory nerve fibers.

Answer 246

A

Optional vaccines that are considered for animals at risk for developing disease based on geographic location and the lifestyle of the animal.

Answer 247

A

A cough that does not result in coughing up of mucus, secretions, or debris (a dry cough).

Answer 248

A

Any nontoxic food component that has scientifically proven health benefits.

Answer 249

A

A semisolid preparation that contains medicinal agents for application to the skin or eyes.

Answer 250

A

The osmotic pressure generated by plasma proteins in the blood.

Answer 251

A

A type of primary glaucoma of the eye in which the angle of the anterior chamber remains open, but filtration of the aqueous humor is gradually reduced, causing an increase in intraocular pressure.

Answer 252

A

A substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinesterase.

Answer 253

A

The ability of solute molecules to attract water.

Answer 254

A

Infestation of ear mites.

Answer 255

A

Toxic to the ears.

Answer 256

A

A drug that can be purchased without a prescription; these drugs contain ingredients that are safe or have low concentrations of an active ingredient.

Answer 257

A

A document supplied by the vendor that accompanies a purchase. A packing slip generally reflects quantities ordered, not prices.

Answer 258

A

A condition in which an animal harbors an endoparasite or an ectoparasite but no clinical signs of infection or infestation are evident.

Answer 259

A

A condition in which an animal harbors an endoparasite or an ectoparasite and clinical signs of infection or infestation are evident

Answer 260

A

That portion of the autonomic nervous system that arises from the craniosacral portion of the spinal cord, is mediated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and is concerned primarily with conserving and restoring a steady state in the body.

Answer 261

A

A drug used to inhibit the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

Answer 262

A

A drug that mimics the effects of stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system.

Answer 263

A

The route of administration of injectable drugs

Answer 264

A

By a route other than the alimentary canal (e.g., intramuscular, subcutaneous, intravenous).

Answer 265

A

A cell located in the gastric mucosa that secretes hydrochloric acid.

Answer 266

A

The ratio of the solubility of substances (e.g., gas anesthetics) between two states in which they may be found (e.g., blood and gas, gas and rubber goods).

Answer 267

A

Immunity that occurs by administration of antibody produced in another individual.

Answer 268

A

Pain with an exaggerated response; it is often associated with tissue injury due to trauma or surgery.

Answer 269

A

An expression of the strength of a substance based on the ratio of parts per hundred (e.g., 25%).

Answer 270

A

The processing and recognition of pain in the cerebral hemispheres.

Answer 271

A

A wave of smooth muscle contraction that passes along a tubular structure (gastrointestinal or other) and moves the contents of that structure forward.

Answer 272

A

The protective sensation of pain that allows individuals to move away from potential tissue damage.

Answer 273

A

Excessive thirst manifested by increased water consumption.

Answer 274

A

Excessive urination.

Answer 275

A

A vaccine, antiserum, or antitoxin active against multiple antigens or organisms; mixed vaccine.

Answer 276

A

A part of the anesthesia machine, located out of the circuit, used to convert a liquid anesthetic to a gas state and produce a precise concentration of anesthetic vapor in the carrier gas (oxygen) passing through the vaporizer and delivered to the patient. They are designed for use with only one specific anesthetic agent.

Answer 277

A

Analgesia administered before the painful stimulus to help prevent sensitization and windup.

Answer 278

A

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.

Answer 279

A

(PVC) Contraction of the ventricles without a corresponding contraction of the atria. PVCs arise from an irritable focus or foci in the ventricles.

Answer 280

A

A drug that is limited to use under the supervision of a veterinarian because of potential danger, difficulty of administration, or other considerations. The legend that designates a prescription drug states the following: “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”

Answer 281

A

A substance, such as an antibiotic, antiinfective, or fungistat, that is added to a product to destroy or inhibit multiplication of microorganisms.

Answer 282

A

Hypothyroidism resulting from a pathologic condition in the thyroid.

Answer 283

A

Healing of a clean, uninfected, surgical incision that is approximated by sutures.

Answer 284

A

A cough that results in coughing up of mucus, secretions, or debris.

Answer 285

A

A substance synthesized by cells from arachidonic acid that serves as a mediator of inflammation and has other physiologic functions.

Answer 286

A

A severe acute inflammation of the bowel mucosa.

Answer 287

A

Any skin disease characterized by the presence or formation of pus.

Answer 288

A

An expression of the strength of a substance based on the ratio of its parts (e.g., 1:32).

Answer 289

A

A process that removes a gene from one organism or pathogen and inserts it into the DNA of another. This also may be referred to as gene splicing.

Answer 290

A

A program for administration of a drug that includes the route, the dose (how much), the frequency (how often), and the duration (for how long) of administration.

Answer 291

A

Loss of feeling or sensation in a large area (region) of the body after injection of an anesthetic agent into the spinal canal or around peripheral nerves.

Answer 292

A

Casting up of undigested or semidigested (ruminant) foodstuff from the esophagus or rumen.

Answer 293

A

A hormone produced by the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary to stimulate the release of trophic hormones.

Answer 294

A

The return of the cell membrane to its resting polarity after depolarization.

Answer 295

A

An amount of a drug still present in animal tissue or products (e.g., meat, milk, eggs) at a particular point (slaughter or collection).

Answer 296

A

Located behind the peritoneum.

Answer 297

A

Aspiration reflex—short periods of noisy inspiratory effort in dogs.

Answer 298

A

(or controlled drug) Controlled substances are regulated by federal and state laws. They are placed into five categories based on their abuse potential.

Answer 299

A

An increase in scaling of the skin; sebum production may or may not be increased.

Answer 300

A

Condition characterized by scaling and excess lipid production that forms brownish yellow clumps, which adhere to the hair and skin.

Answer 301

A

Characterized by dry skin and white to gray scales that do not adhere to the hair or skin.

Answer 302

A

An inflammatory type of seborrhea characterized by scaling and greasiness.

Answer 303

A

Healing of a wound by granulation tissue formation, contraction, and epithelization to achieve structural integrity.

Answer 304

A

A drug used to suppress brain activity and awareness; reduced excitement by causing sleepiness.

Answer 305

A

Periodic constriction of segments of the intestine without movement backward or forward; a mixing rather than a propulsive movement.

Answer 306

A

A substance dissolved in a solvent to form a solution.

Answer 307

A

A mixture of two or more substances that are combined with each other.

Answer 308

A

A solution capable of dissolving other substances

Answer 309

A

Pain arising from bones, joints, muscle, or skin. Somatic pain is described in humans as localized, sharp, constant, aching, or throbbing.

Answer 310

A

An instrument for dilating a body orifice or cavity to allow visual inspection.

Answer 311

A

An agent capable of killing spores.

Answer 312

A

A document generated by the vendor that details the quantity and pricing of all goods purchased (usually in 1 month) by the buyer. The total balance is generally expected to be paid in full within 30 days.

Answer 313

A

Cells found in embryonic tissue and the adult animal that have the ability for self-renewal, a lack of cellular specialization, and can give rise to other more specialized cells.

Answer 314

A

A concentrated solution that will be diluted to a weaker solution for use.

Answer 315

A

The amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle with each beat.

Answer 316

A

A mixture of phospholipids secreted by type II alveolar cells that reduce surface tension in pulmonary fluids.

Answer 317

A

A preparation of solid particles dispersed in a liquid but not dissolved in it.

Answer 318

A

Two living organisms of different species living together.

Answer 319

A

That portion of the autonomic nervous system that arises from the thoracolumbar spinal cord, is mediated by catecholamines, and is concerned with the fight-or-flight response.

Answer 320

A

A drug used to inhibit the activity of the sympathetic nervous system; block the effects of the adrenergic neurotransmitters.

Answer 321

A

A drug that mimics the effects of stimulating the sympathetic nervous system.

Answer 322

A

Contraction of the heart muscle

Answer 323

A

Tachycardia associated with an irregularity in normal heart rhythm.

Answer 324

A

A faster-than-normal heart rate.

Answer 325

A

Rapid breathing.

Answer 326

A

An agent that causes harm to the developing fetus.

Answer 327

A

Relationship between a drug’s ability to achieve the desired effect and its tendency to produce toxic effects.

Answer 328

A

A decreased number of platelets.

Answer 329

A

The condition that occurs when thrombus material becomes dislodged and is transported by the bloodstream to another site.

Answer 330

A

Inflammation of a vein associated with a thrombus formation.

Answer 331

A

A clot in the circulatory system.

Answer 332

A

A measure that includes the cost of an item plus tax.

Answer 333

A

total nutrient admixture A solution used for parenteral administration that contains amino acids, lipids, dextrose, vitamins, and minerals.

Answer 334

A

A cell existing in the zygote and fertilized oocyte that is capable of creating an entire animal including extra-embryonic membranes.

Answer 335

A

Inactivated toxin that has been weakened by a chemical or heat treatment to eliminate the toxic qualities but retain antigenic properties.

Answer 336

A

A drug used to calm a patient by decreasing anxiety, not necessarily reduce awareness.

Answer 337

A

Cerebrospinal fluid, aqueous humor of the eye, synovial fluid, gastrointestinal fluid, lymph, bile, and glandular and respiratory secretions.

Answer 338

A

The use of a patch applied to the skin to deliver a drug through an intact cutaneous surface to the systemic circulation.

Answer 339

A

The process that involves translation of noxious stimuli into electric activity at sensory nerve endings.

Answer 340

A

Conduction of pain impulses from peripheral pain receptors to the spinal cord.

Answer 341

A

Process of sorting patients in an emergency based on medical priority. The goal is to quickly and systematically evaluate an animal for their injuries and determine which body system or which animal needs attention first.

Answer 342

A

A hormone that results in production of a second hormone in a target gland.

Answer 343

A

Degree of fullness or congestion; describes the degree of elasticity of the skin.

Answer 344

A

The number of times a product is sold or used up in a veterinary facility. The minimum turnover rate should be established at four times a year.

Answer 345

A

Neurons in the cerebral cortex that conduct impulses from the motor cortex to the motor nuclei of the cerebral nerves or to the ventral gray columns of the spinal column. A sufficient number of lesions of upper motor neurons interrupt the inhibitory effect that upper motor neurons have on lower motor neurons, resulting in exaggerated or hyperactive reflexes.

Answer 346

A

An increase in the number of cellular receptors to a molecule resulting in an increased sensitivity to the molecule.

Answer 347

A

Abnormally high concentrations of urea, creatinine, and other nitrogenous end products of protein and amino acid metabolism in the blood.

Answer 348

A

Lack of voluntary control over the normal excretion of urine.

Answer 349

A

Infection of the urinary tract. Infection may be localized or may affect the entire urinary tract.

Answer 350

A

The vascular layer of the eye that comprises the iris, ciliary body, and choroid.

Answer 351

A

Inflammation of the uvea.

Answer 352

A

Vapor pressure of an agent indicates how volatile it is and the maximum concentration that can be achieved. Vapor pressure of an inhalant anesthetic is a measure of its tendency to evaporate.

Answer 353

A

A drug that kills internal parasites.

Answer 354

A

A drug that paralyzes the internal parasite and gets expelled from the gastrointestinal tract into the feces.

Answer 355

A

A substance that causes blister formation.

Answer 356

A

The set of circumstances that must exist between the veterinarian, the client, and the patient before the dispensing of prescription drugs is appropriate.

Answer 357

A

An intermediate company (i.e., not full service, not mail order) that generally stocks a large inventory and employs sales representatives who visit veterinary facilities.

Answer 358

A

The ability of an infectious agent to produce pathologic effects.

Answer 359

A

Pain arising from stretching, distension, or inflammation of viscera, described in humans as deep, cramping, or aching and difficult to localize.

Answer 360

A

An area in the medulla that may be stimulated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, the cerebrum, or peripheral receptors to induce vomiting.

Answer 361

A

The period of time from when the last dose of medication is administered to when the animal can be slaughtered for food or milk and eggs can be consumed safely.

Answer 362

A

A gram-negative intracellular bacteria living in the body of both the immature and adult heartworms; they play an important role in the worm’s survival and pathogenesis of the disease.

Answer 363

A

Ammonium chloride

Racemethionine

Answer 364

A

Trilostane

Answer 365

A

Ephedrine hydrochloride
Epinephrine
Fenoldopam mesylate
Phenylpropanolamine hydrochloride
Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride

Answer 366

A

Potassium citrate

Sodium bicarbonate

Answer 367

A

Atipamezole hydrochloride
Tolazoline
Yohimbine

Answer 368

A

Acetaminophen
Amantadine
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Tramadol

Answer 369

A

Acetaminophen–codeine
Buprenorphine hydrochloride
Butorphanol tartrate
Fentanyl citrate
Fentanyl transdermal
Hydrocodone
Hydromorphone
Meperidine
Methadone hydrochloride
Morphine sulfate
Oxymorphone hydrochloride
Pentazocine
Remifentanil
Sufentanil citrate

Answer 370

A

Aspirin
Carprofen
Deracoxib
Etodolac
Firocoxib
Flunixin meglumine
Ibuprofen
Indomethacin
Ketoprofen
Ketorolac tromethamine
Meclofenamate sodium; Meclofenamic acid
Meloxicam
Naproxen
Phenylbutazone
Piroxicam
Robenacoxib
Tepoxalin

Answer 371

A

Butorphanol
Codeine
Hydrocodone

Answer 372

A

Alfaxalone
Ketamine hydrochloride
Propofol
Tiletamine–zolazepam

Answer 373

A

Detomidine hydrochloride
Dexmedetomidine
Medetomidine hydrochloride
Romifidine hydrochloride
Xylazine hydrochloride

Answer 374

A

Methohexital sodium
Pentobarbital sodium
Thiopental sodium

Answer 375

A

Enflurane
Halothane
Isoflurane
Methoxyflurane
Sevoflurane

Answer 376

A

Aluminum hydroxide and aluminum carbonate

Answer 377

A

Amiodarone
Carvedilol
Disopyramide
Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Procainamide hydrochloride
Quinidine
Quinidine gluconate
Quinidine polygalacturonate
Quinidine sulfate
Tocainide hydrochloride

Answer 378

A

ntiarrhythmic, calcium channel blocker
Diltiazem hydrochloride
Verapamil hydrochloride

Answer 379

A

Chondroitin sulfate

Glucosamine–chondroitin sulfate

Answer 380

A

Chloramphenicol
Dapsone
Florfenicol
Fosfomycin
Isoniazid
Linezolid
Methenamine
Nitrofurantoin
Polymyxin B
Pyrimethamine
Rifampin

Answer 381

A

Amikacin
Gentamicin sulfate
Kanamycin sulfate
Neomycin
Tobramycin sulfate

Answer 382

A

Sulfasalazine

Answer 383

A

Metronidazole

Ronidazole

Answer 384

A

Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin–clavulanate potassium
Ampicillin
Ampicillin–sulbactam
Carbenicillin
Cefaclor
Cefadroxil
Cefazolin sodium
Cefdinir
Cefepime
Cefixime
Cefotaxime sodium
Cefotetan disodium
Cefovecin
Cefoxitin sodium
Cefpodoxime proxetil
Cefquinome
Ceftazidime
Ceftiofur crystalline free acid
Ceftiofur hydrochloride
Ceftiofur sodium
Cephalexin
Cloxacillin sodium
Dicloxacillin sodium
Doripenem
Ertapenem
Imipenem–cilastatin
Meropenem
Oxacillin sodium
Penicillin G
Piperacillin sodium
Piperacillin-tazobactam
Ticarcillin–clavulanate potassium
Ticarcillin disodium

Answer 385

A

Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride
Danofloxacin mesylate
Difloxacin hydrochloride
Enrofloxacin
Marbofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Norfloxacin
Orbifloxacin
Pradofloxacin

Answer 386

A

Vancomycin

Answer 387

A

Clindamycin hydrochloride
Clindamycin palmitate
Clindamycin phosphate
Lincomycin hydrochloride
Lincomycin hydrochloride monohydrate

Answer 388

A

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
Tilmicosin phosphate
Tulathromycin
Tylosin

Answer 389

A

Ormetoprim–sulfadimethoxine
Trimethoprim–sulfadiazine
Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole

Answer 390

A

Sulfachlorpyridazine
Sulfadiazine
Sulfadimethoxine
Sulfamethazine
Sulfamethoxazole
Sulfaquinoxaline

Answer 391

A

Chlortetracycline
Doxycycline
Minocycline hydrochloride
Oxytetracycline
Tetracycline

Answer 392

A

Spectinomycin

Answer 393

A

Asparaginase (L-asparaginase)
Bleomycin sulfate
Busulfan
Carboplatin
Chlorambucil
Cisplatin
Cyclophosphamide
Cytarabine
Dacarbazine
Doxorubicin hydrochloride
Fluorouracil
Hydroxyurea
Lomustine
Melphalan
Mercaptopurine
Methotrexate
Mitoxantrone hydrochloride
Plicamycin
Streptozocin
Thioguanine
Thiotepa
Toceranib
Vinblastine sulfate
Vincristine sulfate
Vinorelbine

Answer 394

A

Atropine sulfate
Glycopyrrolate
Hyoscyamine
Oxybutynin chloride

Answer 395

A

Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine bromide

Answer 396

A

Dalteparin
Enoxaparin
Heparin sodium
Warfarin sodium

Answer 397

A

Bromide
Clonazepam
Clorazepate dipotassium
Felbamate
Levetiracetam
Lorazepam
Midazolam hydrochloride
Oxazepam
Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital sodium
Phenytoin
Phenytoin sodium
Primidone
Valproate sodium
Valproic acid
Zonisamide

Answer 398

A

Gabapentin

Pregabalin

Answer 399

A

Diazepam

Midazolam

Answer 400

A

Bismuth subsalicylate
Diphenoxylate
Kaolin–pectin
Loperamide
Mesalamine
Olsalazine sodium
Paregoric
Propantheline bromide

Answer 401

A

Charcoal, activated
Deferoxamine mesylate
Dimercaprol
Edetate calcium disodium
Flumazenil
Fomepizole
Leucovorin calcium
Methylene blue 0.1%
Penicillamine
Pralidoxime chloride
Succimer
Trientine hydrochloride

Answer 402

A

Aprepitant
Dolasetron mesylate
Dronabinol
Granisetron hydrochloride
Maropitant
Meclizine
Mirtazapine
Ondansetron hydrochloride
Trimethobenzamide

Answer 403

A

Prochlorperazine edisylate
Prochlorperazine maleate (with isopropamide iodide)

Answer 404

A

Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine edisylate
Prochlorperazine maleate
Trifluoperazine hydrochloride
Triflupromazine hydrochloride
Trimeprazine tartrate

Answer 405

A

Promethazine hydrochloride

Propiopromazine hydrochloride

Answer 406

A

Metoclopramide hydrochloride

Answer 407

A

Tamoxifen citrate

Answer 408

A

Amphotericin B
Enilconazole
Fluconazole
Flucytosine
Griseofulvin
Itraconazole
Ketoconazole
Posaconazole
Terbinafine hydrochloride
Voriconazole

Answer 409

A

Potassium iodide

Answer 410

A

Cetirizine hydrochloride
Chlorpheniramine maleate
Cyproheptadine hydrochloride
Dimenhydrinate
Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
Hydroxyzine
Tripelennamine citrate

Answer 411

A

Alendronate
Etidronate disodium
Pamidronate disodium
Tiludronate disodium
Zoledronate

Answer 412

A

Glipizide
Glyburide
Metformin

Answer 413

A

Gemfibrozil

Answer 414

A

Allopurinol
Colchicine
Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
Niacinamide
Pentoxifylline

Answer 415

A

Betamethasone
Budesonide
Desoxycorticosterone pivalate
Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone sodium phosphate
Flumethasone
Hydrocortisone
Isoflupredone acetate
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone
Prednisolone acetate
Prednisolone sodium succinate
Prednisone
Triamcinolone acetonide
Triamcinolone diacetate
Triamcinolone hexacetonide

Answer 416

A

Edrophonium chloride

Answer 417

A

Dirlotapide

Mitratapide

Answer 418

A

Afoxolaner
Albendazole
Amitraz
Amprolium
Bunamidine hydrochloride
Dichlorvos
Diethylcarbamazine citrate
Dithiazanine iodide
Doramectin
Epsiprantel
Febantel
Fenbendazole
Fluralaner
Furazolidone
Ivermectin
Ivermectin-clorsuon
Ivermectin–praziquantel
Levamisole hydrochloride
Lotilaner
Lufenuron
Lufenuron–milbemycin oxime
Mebendazole
Melarsomine
Metaflumizone
Milbemycin oxime
Moxidectin
Nitenpyram
Oxfendazole
Oxibendazole
Paromomycin sulfate
Piperazine
Praziquantel
Pyrantel pamoate
Pyrantel tartrate
Quinacrine hydrochloride
Sarolaner
Selamectin
Spinosad
Thenium closylate
Thiabendazole
Thiacetarsamide sodium

Answer 419

A

Clopidogrel

Dipyridamole

Answer 420

A

Atovaquone
Diclazuril
Imidocarb hydrochloride
Metronidazole
Nitazoxanide
Ponazuril
Pyrimethamine–sulfadiazine
Ronidazole
Tinidazole
Toltrazuril

Answer 421

A

N-Butylscopolammonium bromide

Answer 422

A

Carbimazole
Iopanoic acid
Methimazole
Propylthiouracil

Answer 423

A

Butorphanol
Dextromethorphan
Hydrocodone bitartrate

Answer 424

A

Misoprostol

Sucralfate

Answer 425

A

Cimetidine hydrochloride
Famotidine
Nizatidine
Ranitidine hydrochloride

Answer 426

A

Omeprazole

Pantoprazole

Answer 427

A

Acyclovir
Famciclovir
Lysine (L-Lysine)
Valacyclovir
Zidovudine

Answer 428

A

Amantadine

Answer 429

A

Buspirone hydrochloride

Trazodone

Answer 430

A

Fluoxetine hydrochloride

Paroxetine

Answer 431

A

Amitriptyline hydrochloride
Clomipramine hydrochloride
Doxepin
Imipramine hydrochloride

Answer 432

A

Isoproterenol hydrochloride

Answer 433

A

Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Esmolol hydrochloride
Metoprolol tartrate
Propranolol hydrochloride
Sotalol

Answer 434

A

Aminophylline
Oxtriphylline
Theophylline

Answer 435

A

Albuterol sulfate
Clenbuterol
Metaproterenol sulfate
Terbutaline sulfate
Zilpaterol

Answer 436

A

Calcium carbonate
Calcium chloride
Calcium citrate
Calcium gluconate and calcium borogluconate
Calcium lactate

Answer 437

A

Digitoxin
Digoxin
Dobutamine hydrochloride
Pimobendan

Answer 438

A

Bethanechol chloride

Answer 439

A

Fludrocortisone acetate

Answer 440

A

Isotretinoin

Answer 441

A

Acetazolamide
Bumetanide
Chlorothiazide
Dichlorphenamide
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Methazolamide
Spironolactone
Torsemide
Triamterene

Answer 442

A

Bromocriptine mesylate
Levodopa
Pergolide
Pergolide mesylate
Selegiline hydrochloride

Answer 443

A

Apomorphine hydrochloride

Ipecac

Answer 444

A

Guaifenesin

Answer 445

A

Dextran
Dextrose solution
Hetastarch
Lactated Ringer’s solution
Pentastarch
Ringer’s solution
Sodium chloride 0.9%
Sodium chloride 7.2%

Answer 446

A

S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe)

Silymarin

Answer 447

A

Altrenogest
Colony-stimulating factors
Corticotropin
Cosyntropin
Danazol
Darbepoietin
Desmopressin acetate
Diethylstilbestrol
Epoetin alpha (erythropoietin)
Estradiol cypionate
Estriol
Gonadorelin hydrochloride, gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate
Gonadotropin, chorionic
Growth hormone
Insulin
Levothyroxine sodium
Liothyronine sodium
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Megestrol acetate
Testosterone
Urofollitropin
Vasopressin

Answer 448

A

Boldenone undecylenate
Methyltestosterone
Mibolerone
Oxymetholone
Stanozolol

Answer 449

A

Finasteride

Answer 450

A

Thyroid-releasing hormone

Thyrotropin

Answer 451

A

Interferon

Lithium carbonate

Answer 452

A

Auranofin
Aurothioglucose
Azathioprine
Cyclophosphamide
Cyclosporine
Gold sodium thiomalate
Leflunomide
Mycophenolate
Tacrolimus

Answer 453

A

Iodide
Potassium iodide
Sodium iodide (20%)

Answer 454

A

Bisacodyl
Cascara sagrada
Castor oil
Docusate
Lactulose
Magnesium citrate
Magnesium hydroxide
Mineral oil
Polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution
Psyllium
Senna
Ursodeoxycholic acid
Ursodiol

Answer 455

A

Magnesium sulfate

Answer 456

A

Bupivacaine hydrochloride

Mepivacaine

Answer 457

A

Lidocaine hydrochloride

Answer 458

A

Dembrexine

Answer 459

A

Acetylcysteine

Answer 460

A

Atracurium besylate
Dantrolene sodium
Methocarbamol
Pancuronium bromide

Answer 461

A

Ferrous sulfate
Iron dextran
MCT oil
Taurine
Zinc

Answer 462

A

Naloxone hydrochloride

Naltrexone

Answer 463

A

Pancrelipase

Answer 464

A

Potassium phosphate

Answer 465

A

Potassium chloride

Potassium gluconate

Answer 466

A

Cisapride
Domperidone
Methylnaltrexone
Metoclopramide
Tegaserod

Answer 467

A

Cloprostenol
Dinoprost tromethamine
Prostaglandin F2 alpha

Answer 468

A

Doxapram hydrochloride

Answer 469

A

Alprazolam

Answer 470

A

Acepromazine maleate

Answer 471

A

Hydralazine hydrochloride
Irbesartan
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate
Isoxsuprine
Nitroglycerin
Nitroprusside (sodium nitroprusside)
Phenoxybenzamine hydrochloride
Phentolamine mesylate
Prazosin
Sildenafil

Answer 472

A

Benazepril hydrochloride
Captopril
Enalapril maleate
Irbesartan
Lisinopril
Losartan
Ramipril
Telmisartan
Trandolapril

Answer 473

A

Amlodipine besylate

Nifedipine

Answer 474

A

Arginine vasopressin
Methoxamine
Phenylephrine hydrochloride

Answer 475

A

Ascorbic acid
Cyanocobalamin
Dihydrotachysterol
Ergocalciferol
Phytonadione
Riboflavin
Thiamine hydrochloride
Vitamin A
Vitamin E
Vitamin K

Answer 476

A

1 microgram (mcg) = 0.000001 gram (g)
1 microgram (mcg) = 0.001 mg
1 milligram (mg) = 0.001 g
1 milligram (mg) = 1000 mcg
1 gram (g) = 1000 mg
1 gram (g) = 0.001 kilogram (kg)
1 kilogram (kg) = 1000 g

Answer 477

A

1 milliliter (mL) = 1000 microliters (μL or mcL)
1 milliliter (mL) = 1 cubic centimeter (cc)
1 milliliter (mL) = 0.001 L
1 liter (L) = 1000 mL
1 liter (L) = 10 deciliters (dL)
1 teaspoon (tsp) = 5 mL
1 tablespoon (Tbsp) = 15 mL
1 tablespoon (Tbsp) = 3 teaspoons

Answer 478

A

1 grain (gr) = 65 milligrams (mg)
1 ounce (oz) = 437.5 grains (gr)
16 oz = 1 pound (lb)
1 pound (lb) = 0.454 kilograms (kg)
1 kilogram (kg) = 2.2 pounds (lb)

Answer 479

A

1 grain (gr)	64.8 mg
1 ounce (oz)	28.35 g
1 pound (lb)	453.6 g
1 dram	        1.772 g
1 minim	         0.06 mL
1 fluid dram	 3.7 mL
1 fluid ounce	 29.57 mL
1 pint	         473 mL
1 gallon	         3786 mL
1 mg	         0.0154 gr
1 g	                 15.432 gr
1 kg	                 2.2 lbs
1 gallon             8.35 lbs
1 mL	                  1 cubic centimeter
1 liquid pint	  473.18 mL
1 liquid quart     946.35 mL
1 drop	           0.05 mL
1 tsp                    5 mL
3 tsp                   1 Tbsp
1 Tbsp                 15 mL

Answer 480

A

weight/ volume = grams/deciliter

(v/w * %) means: v/w * 10 = mg/ mL
mg/mL * 1000 = mcg/mL

see pg 428 for conversions

Answer 481

A

1 lb	                454 g
1 g                    0.0022 lbs
1 g	                 1000 mg
1 g	                 1,000,000 mcg
1 kg	                 1000 g
1 kg	                 2.2 lbs
1 mg                 0.001 g
1 mcg 	         0.001 mg
1 μg/g	          1 ppm
1 L	                  1000 mL
1 mL 	          1000 mcL

Answer 482

A

1 dram	        1.772 g
1 drop (gt)	0.05 mL
20 drops   	1 cc or mL
1 glass (8 oz)	240 mL
1 gr	                0.065 g or 65 mg
1 g	                15.43 gr
1 L	                 1.06 qt
1 L	                 33.81 fl. oz
1 cup	         236.59 mLs
1 mg	         0.015432 gr
1 mL                  16.23 minims
1 oz                   28.35 g
1 oz                   29.574 mLs
1 pt	                  473 mLs
1 qt	                  946 mLs
1 tablespoon	  15 mLs
1 teaspoon	   5 mLs

Answer 483

A

°Fahrenheit to °Celsius: (°F − 32°) (5/9)	
°Celsius to °Fahrenheit: (°C) (9/5) + 32°
98.6	37.0
99.0	37.2
100.0	37.7
101.0	38.3
102.0	38.8
103.0	39.4
104.0	40.0
105.0	40.5
106.0	41.1

Answer 484

A

AD right ear
AL left ear
AU each ear

Answer 485

A

OD right eye
OS left eye
OU both eyes

Answer 486

A

drugs that stimulate receptor sites mediated by acetylcholine. They achieve these effects by mimicking the action of acetylcholine (direct-acting) or by inhibiting its breakdown (indirect-acting). Cholinergic agents are also called parasympathomimetic

Answer 487

A

Aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Reduce the intraocular pressure of glaucoma
Stimulate GI motility
Treat urinary retention
Control vomiting
Act as an antidote for neuromuscular blockers

Answer 488

A

Cholinergic Agent.

Antidote is Atropine sulfate:
0.02–0.04 mg/kg, as needed

Answer 489

A

(Anticholinergic) drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system. Anticholinergic agents are also called parasympatholytic

Answer 490

A

Treatment of diarrhea and vomiting via a decrease in GI motility
Drying of secretions and prevention of bradycardia before anesthesia
Dilation of the pupils for ophthalmic examination
Relief of ciliary spasm of the eye
Treatment of sinus bradycardia

Answer 491

A

(sympathomimetic) action at receptors mediated by epinephrine or norepinephrine; mimic “fight or flight” response. Adrenergic agents. Classified as catecholamines or noncatecholamines, and also classified according to the specific receptors (alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2).

Answer 492

A

In most cases, alpha receptor activity causes an excitatory response (except in the GI tract), and beta stimulation causes an inhibitory response (except in the heart).

Answer 493

A

To stimulate the heart to beat during cardiac arrest
• To reverse the hypotension and bronchoconstriction of anaphylactic shock
• To strengthen the heart during congestive heart failure
• To correct hypotension through vasoconstriction
• To reduce capillary bleeding through vasoconstriction
• To treat urinary incontinence
• To reduce mucous membrane congestion (vasoconstriction) in allergic conditions
• To prolong the effects of local anesthetic agents by causing vasoconstriction of blood vessels at the injection site, thereby prolonging their absorption
• To treat glaucoma (alpha stimulation increases the outflow of and beta stimulation decreases the production of aqueous humor)

Answer 494

A

tachycardia, hypertension, nervousness, and cardiac arrhythmias. Hypertension, arrhythmia, and pulmonary edema may occur with an overdose.

Answer 495

A

Dose related. Overdoses can cause drowsiness, disorientation, tachycardia, photophobia, constipation, anxiety, and burning at the injection site.

Answer 496

A

May include bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, increased intestinal activity, intestinal rupture, and increased bronchial secretions.

Answer 497

A

(sympatholytic) agents disrupt/inhibit the activity of the sympathetic nervous system. Classified according to the site of their action as an alpha blocker, beta blocker, or ganglionic blocker. Drugs usually block only one category of receptor.

Answer 498

A

Have had limited use in veterinary medicine. Phenoxybenzamine has been advocated by some clinicians for the treatment of laminitis in horses and urethral obstruction in cats.

Answer 499

A

Phenoxybenzamine: vasodilator. blocked cats and laminitis in horses
Acepromazine: tranquilizer, sedative, causes vasodilation.
Prazosin: Prazosin is a hypotensive agent. It is also used to treat urethral spasms
Yohimbine (Yobine): Yohimbine= antidote for xylazine toxicity.
Atipamezole (Antisedan): Atipamezole =reversal agent for dexmedetomidine

Answer 500

A

May include hypotension (phenoxybenzamine, tranquilizers, prazosin), tachycardia (phenoxybenzamine), muscle tremors (yohimbine), and seizures (acepromazine).

Answer 501

A

Used to treat glaucoma, arrhythmias, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Answer 502

A

include bradycardia, hypotension, worsening of heart failure, bronchoconstriction, heart block, and syncope.

Answer 503

A

Ganglionic blockers are seldom used in veterinary medicine.

Answer 504

A

Tranquilizers
Barbiturates
Dissociatives
Opioid/antagonists
Neuroleptanalgesics/antagonists
Drugs to prevent or control seizures
Inhalants
Miscellaneous CNS drugs
CNS stimulants
Euthanasia agents

Answer 505

A

CNS drug. decrease anxiety without causing excessive sedation or drowsiness; animals are usually aware of their surroundings but do not appear to care. Tranquilizers do not provide analgesia. (Phenothiazine derivative tranquilizers = acepromazine)

Answer 506

A

CNS drug. used to suppress brain activity and awareness to prevent movement for some short medical procedures; animals are usually unaware of their surroundings and are drowsy. Sedatives offer some analgesia.

Answer 507

A

The mechanism of action of the phenothiazine derivatives on the CNS is not well understood. However, it has been proposed that they are dopamine blockers The effects on the cardiovascular system are a result of alpha-adrenergic blockade. tranquilizers produce an antiemetic effect by depressing the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain and have a mild antipruritic effect. These agents also reduce the tendency of epinephrine to induce cardiac arrhythmias. Most are metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys.

Answer 508

A

can cause hypotension and hypothermia through their vasodilator effects (alpha blockade). Acepromazine has been avoided in epileptic animals as it was previously cautioned that it lowered the seizure threshold and caused seizures. However, there is no clinical evidence to support this claim and some studies have shown that it has some anticonvulsant activity. Phenothiazine derivatives should not be used within 1 month of worming with an organophosphate anthelmintic.The tranquilizing effect may be reduced in an excited animal.

Answer 509

A

mechanism of action of diazepam occurs through depression of the thalamic and hypothalamic areas of the brain. This drug produces sedation, muscle relaxation, appetite stimulation (especially in cats), and anticonvulsant activity. Diazepam also produces minimal depression of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems when compared with other CNS depressants. Diazepam is painful if administered intramuscularly. Midazolam is very similar to diazepam but has a greater potency. Midazolam is water soluble and absorbed well after intramuscular injection. Clinical uses include sedation, relief of anxiety and behavioral disorders, treatment of seizures, and appetite stimulation. Diazepam can be used as an injectable anesthetic

Answer 510

A

Several potential drug interactions can occur when diazepam is administered simultaneously with other drugs, and appropriate references should be consulted.

side effects are limited when used as directed. Dogs can exhibit excitement. An overdose may cause excessive CNS depression.

Answer 511

A

Diazepam should be stored at room temperature and protected from light.
• Diazepam should not be stored in plastic syringes or in solution bags because it can be absorbed into the plastic.
• Manufacturers recommend that it not be mixed with other medications or solutions.
Diazepam is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys.
• Alprazolam is also used as an appetite stimulant.

Answer 512

A

sedative analgesics used commonly in veterinary medicine. They provide sedation, analgesia, muscle relaxation, and antianxiety. The CNS effects of alpha-2 agonists can be antagonized by alpha-2 receptor antagonists such as yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole.

Answer 513

A

alpha-2 agonist with sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant properties. It is approved for use in dogs, cats, horses, deer, and elk. This agent causes vomiting in a large percentage of cats and in some dogs. Xylazine is antagonized by yohimbine. It produces effective analgesia in horses and is often used for treating the pain associated with colic and for sedation for minor procedures.

Answer 514

A

These include bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and increased sensitivity to epinephrine, resulting in cardiac arrhythmias. An overdose increases the potential for these effects. Because of the potential of xylazine to cause bradycardia or heart block in dogs, atropine should be used as a premedicant in this species.
• Xylazine is used in cattle at one-tenth of the equine dose.
• Horses may appear heavily sedated with xylazine and still respond to painful stimuli by kicking.
• Small-animal (20 mg/mL) and large-animal (100 mg/mL) concentrations are available. Care should be taken not to confuse them when administering a drug dose to an animal.

Answer 515

A

similar to xylazine, is an alpha-2 agonist. It is approved as a sedative/analgesic for horses,

Answer 516

A

These may include sweating, muscle tremors, penile prolapse, bradycardia, and heart block.

The manufacturer warns that detomidine should be used very carefully with other sedative drugs and that it should not be used with potentiated sulfa drugs such as trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

Answer 517

A

is an alpha-2-adrenergic agonist labeled for use as a sedative and analgesic in dogs older than 12 weeks. Atipamezole (Antisedan) is the reversal agent for this drug.
Uses include facilitating clinical examination, minor surgical procedures, and minor dental procedures that do not require intubation.

Answer 518

A

include bradycardia (product insert states that hemodynamics are maintained), atrioventricular heart block, decreased respirations, hypothermia, urination, vomiting, hyperglycemia, and pain at the injection site.

Answer 519

A

is an alpha-2-adrenergic agonist labeled for use as a sedative and analgesic in dogs and cats. It is a “right-handed” enantiomer (isomer) of medetomidine. considered to be more potent than medetomidine in terms of its ability to produce analgesia and sedation. Atipamezole is the reversal agent for dexmedetomidine.
opioids and ketamine to produce surgical anesthetic levels. A combination of these three products for cats is sometimes called “kitty magic.”

Answer 520

A

These include bradycardia, hypertension, vomiting, atrioventricular block, muscle tremors, and others.

Dexmedetomidine should not be used in dogs or cats with cardiovascular, respiratory, kidney, or liver disease or in patients with shock or severe debilitation or stress due to heat, cold, or fatigue.

Before the use of dexmedetomidine in combination with other sedatives is attempted, references should be consulted for potential side effects and dosages.

Answer 521

A

Romifidine is an alpha-2-adrenergic agonist labeled for use in horses.

Answer 522

A

one of the oldest categories of CNS depressants. sedatives, anticonvulsants, general anesthetics, and euthanasia agents.

great potential for complications because of their potent depressing effects on the cardiac and pulmonary systems (especially in cats) and because they are nonreversible and must be metabolized by the liver before elimination can occur.

classified as long-acting, short-acting, and ultrashort-acting.

Answer 523

A

is used primarily as an anticonvulsant and is the drug of choice for long-term control of epileptic seizures. It is administered by the oral route. Phenobarbital is a Class IV controlled substance. a barbiturate. 8-12 hrs

Answer 524

A

provides 1 to 2 hours of general anesthesia. used primarily for controlling seizures in progress and as a euthanasia agent. Intravenous administration of glucose or concurrent use of chloramphenicol may prolong the recovery period. Pentobarbital is a Class II controlled substance.

Answer 525

A

Thiobarbiturates are very alkaline. must be given intravenously to avoid necrosis and subsequent sloughing of tissue. Thiobarbiturates are redistributed into the fat stores of the body within 5 to 30 minutes. can also cause a period of CNS excitement when administered intravenously if they are given too slowly. It is often recommended to give one-third to one-half of the calculated dose rapidly to avoid the excitement phase. remainder of the dose is administered in increments until the desired effect is achieved.

Answer 526

A

These include excessive CNS depression, paradoxical CNS excitement, severe respiratory depression, and cardiovascular depression. Tissue irritation may occur when barbiturates are injected perivascularly.

Recovery from pentobarbital is often prolonged, and dogs exhibit padding limb movements during this time.
Thiobarbiturates should not be used in sighthounds or in any very thin animal.
Giving additional doses of thiobarbiturates may prolong recovery.
Barbiturates are potent depressors of the respiratory system.

Answer 527

A

belong to the cyclohexylamine family, inclluding phencyclidine, ketamine, and tiletamine. Involuntary muscle rigidity (catalepsy), amnesia, and analgesia characterize dissociative anesthesia. Pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes maintained, and muscle tone is increased. deep abdominal pain not eliminated with dissociative anesthesia; recommended only for restraint, diagnostic procedures, and minor surgery. Increased salivation may occur and can be controlled or prevented with the use of atropine or glycopyrrolate

Answer 528

A

usually associated with high doses and include spastic jerking movement, convulsions, respiratory depression, burning at the intramuscular injection site, and drying of the cornea.

Metabolites of the dissociative agents are excreted through the kidneys. These drugs may be contraindicated in animals with compromised kidney function.
• Use in animals with certain cardiac conditions (potentially hypertensive) may be dangerous.

Answer 529

A

is any compound derived from opium poppy alkaloids and synthetic drugs with similar pharmacologic properties. These drugs produce analgesia and sedation (hypnosis) while reducing anxiety and fear. Narcotic effects are produced in combination with opiate receptors at deep levels of the brain (e.g., thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system)
At low doses, the opioids have antitussive (cough suppression) properties because of depression of the cough center in the brain; they also have antidiarrheal action because of a reduction in peristalsis or segmental contractions.

Answer 530

A

Mu—found in pain-regulating areas of the brain; contribute to analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence, and hypothermic actions.
Kappa—found in the cerebral cortex and spinal cord; contribute to analgesia, sedation, depression, and miosis.
Sigma—may be responsible for struggling, whining, hallucinations, and mydriatic effects.
Delta—modify mu receptor activity; contribute to analgesia.

Answer 531

A

These can include respiratory depression, excitement (cats and horses), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, defecation, panting, and convulsions. Overdose causes profound respiratory depression.

Answer 532

A

Opium

Morphine sulfate

Answer 533

A

Meperidine; mu agonist, acute pain
Oxymorphone; semisynthetic; mu agonist.
Butorphanol tartrate; synthetic, opioid agonist/antagonist. agonist on kappa and sigma receptors, antagonist activity occurs at the mu receptor. should not be used as the only analgesic agent; antitussive agent in dogs.
Fentanyl; opioid agonist
Hydrocodone bitartrate; antitussive agent in dogs.
Etorphine (M-99): produces analgesic effects 1000 times those of morphine. It is restricted to use in zoo or exotic animal practice. lethal to people who accidentally inject themselves (it also can be absorbed through intact skin) if the antagonist (diprenorphine) is not administered immediately.
Codeine; an antitussive in dogs
tramadol

Answer 534

A

a dopamine agonist derived from morphine with the principal effect of inducing vomiting by stimulating the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. This drug is often administered by placing a portion of a tablet in the conjunctival sac for absorption. synthetic narcotic

Answer 535

A

partial mu agonist–antagonist. It is a potent analgesic that is used in several small animal species with especially good results in the cat. Buprenorphine has a longer duration of action than butorphanol.

Answer 536

A

block the effects of opioids by binding with opiate receptors, displacing narcotic molecules already present, and preventing further narcotic binding at the sites. classified as pure antagonists or as partial antagonists. partial antagonists may have some agonist activity (analgesic and respiratory depressant effects).

Answer 537

A

Nalorphine may induce respiratory depression. Naloxone usually has few adverse effects if given in the correct dose.

Answer 538

A

Naloxone: is a pure opioid antagonist that is chemically similar to oxymorphone, with high affinity for mu receptors. It has no agonist activity. It is commonly used to reverse the CNS and respiratory depression caused by administration of opioid drugs.
• Nalorphine (Nalline): Nalorphine is a partial antagonist that may produce unpleasant analgesic and respiratory depressant effects.
• Butorphanol: This is a mu antagonist used primarily as a sedative or analgesic. It is rarely used as an antagonist.

Answer 539

A

consists of an opioid and a tranquilizer. Animals that receive neuroleptanalgesics may or may not remain conscious. They often defecate and are highly responsive to sound stimuli.

Any combination of an opioid analgesic, and a tranquilizer (ace-hydro, dexmed-hydro etc.)

Answer 540

A

These can include panting, flatulence, personality changes, increased sound sensitivity, and bradycardia. An overdose may cause severe depression of the CNS, respiratory system, and cardiovascular system.

Answer 541

A

include but not limited to: unknown (idiopathic), infectious (postdistemper), traumatic (head injury), toxic (strychnine poisoning), and metabolic (heatstroke) factors.

Answer 542

A

Diazepam: give IV or rectally, 3- to 4-hour duration of action.
Pentobarbital: give IV, 1- to 3-hour duration.
Phenobarbital: oral and parenteral formulations. injectable form is used in horses (foals) by some clinicians. Drowsiness may occur.
.Bromide: old anticonvulsant. use as adjunct to phenobarbital or primidone.
• Gabapentin: use as an adjunctive treatment of difficult to control seizures, partial complex seizures or pain control.
• Levetiracetam (Kappra): May be useful as an adjunct for refractory canine epilepsy.

Answer 543

A

may include drowsiness, CNS depression, anxiety, agitation, polyuria, polydipsia, and hepatotoxicity (phenobarbital and primidone)

Inadequate compliance is a frequent cause of failure of anticonvulsant therapy.
Reserpine and phenothiazine drugs should not be given to epileptic animals.

Answer 544

A

From the alveoli of the lungs, they are absorbed into the bloodstream and delivered to the CNS, where they produce unconsciousness, analgesia, and muscle relaxation through mechanisms not fully understood. Generally require little biotransformation for elimination from the body. They enter and exit the body through the lungs

Answer 545

A

Minimum Alveolar Concentration. Value of an anesthetic agent is a measure of potency and is the alveolar concentration that prevents gross purposeful movement in 50% of patients in response to a standardized painful stimulus. a low MAC is a more potent anesthetic than an agent with a high MAC. lower the MAC the less gas it takes

Answer 546

A

is the ratio of the number of molecules of an anesthetic gas that exist in two phases (blood/gas). indicates the solubility of an inhalation agent in blood as compared with alveolar gas. The key factor determining the speed of induction and recovery from inhalation anesthesia is the blood-gas partition coefficient.

Answer 547

A

indicates how volatile it is and the maximum concentration that can be achieved. a measure of an inhalant anesthetic’s tendency to evaporate.

Answer 548

A

Are located out of the circuit and are designed for use with only one specific anesthetic agent. purpose is to convert liquid anesthetic to gas and produce a precise concentration of anesthetic vapor in the carrier gas (oxygen) passing through the vaporizer and delivered to the patient.

Answer 549

A

Isoflurane: A halogenated ether, it is one of the least soluble of the inhalant agents. Isoflurane allows a stable heart rhythm and does not decrease cardiac output at clinically used levels. It is metabolized at a very low rate (<0.2%)

Answer 550

A

halogenated ether with little odor, cardiovascular and respiratory effects are similar to those of isoflurane. Sevoflurane is often used in high-risk, small-animal patients because of its safety and rapid, smooth induction. Only 3% is metabolized.

Answer 551

A

halogenated hydrocarbon. sensitizes the heart to the catecholamines; this may result in cardiac dysrhythmias. metabolized at the rate of 25%. inhalant anesthetic. No longer available in USA

Answer 552

A

a methyl-ethyl-ether that is highly soluble in blood and other tissues. A very slow induction and recovery time. most potent (MAC, 0.23%–0.27%) of the agents in this section. Biotransformation at 50%, associated with renal toxicity in humans. Not available in USA.

Answer 553

A

inorganic gas, may be used with more potent agents during mask induction to speed up induction of GA, which cannot be produced with nitrous oxide alone. lowest solubility coefficient. displaces nitrogen from the alveoli, blood, and gas-filled cavities of the body. it will diffuse into and potentially cause distention of gas-filled areas. always give with Oxygen to prevent hypoxia, and give O2 for several minutes after its turned off to prevent diffusion hypoxia.

Answer 554

A

short-acting hypnotic. an alkylphenol derivative. Give slow IV. Sedation, restraint, or unconsciousness, depending on the dose. A bolus lasts 2 to 5 minutes. Some are without a preservative and are only good for 6 hrs refrigerated. Used for Anesthetic induction, a substitute for barbiturates in sighthounds, for patients with preexisting cardiac arrhythmia, and dogs undergoing a c-section because it does not cross the placental barrier.

Answer 555

A

Apnea may occur if propofol is given too rapidly intravenously. Occasional seizure-like signs may be seen. Prolonged recovery and/or Heinz body production may be seen in cats with repeated use.

Answer 556

A

skeletal muscle relaxant that effects the connecting neurons of the spinal cord and brainstem. used in equine medicine to induce general anesthesia, extend the anesthetic activity of other injectable field anesthetics, or enhance muscle relaxation of anesthetized patients. Use as a 5% or 10% solution in 5% dextrose
GKX- Guaifenesin, Ketamine, Xylazine.

Warming 5% dextrose before mixing may aid preparation. Mix immediately before use because a precipitate forms if the solution is allowed to stand.

Answer 557

A

Adverse side effects are limited. Hemolysis has been reported when greater than 5% solutions are used.

Answer 558

A

activates the respiratory system by stimulating respiratory centers in the medulla. stimulate respiration in newborns and use during or after anesthesia in which the respiratory rate and depth of respirations need to be increased. Can be used in CPA; not a substitute for artificial respiratory support. May be contraindicated in states of apnea. Give IV, under the tongue (one to two drops) or into the umbilical vein.

Answer 559

A

Adverse side effects are rare and usually are associated with overdoses. Hypertension, seizures, and hyperventilation may occur. safety of doxapram in pregnant animals has not been established

Answer 560

A

Used as an adjunct to general anesthesia. And to facilitate endotracheal intubation. Muscle Relaxants. Don’t provide analgesia or sedation. They do stop ventilation.

Answer 561

A

Depolarizing agents act in a way that is similar to that of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular synapse, but the effects last longer, leading to muscle paralysis (phase I block). Are not broken down by acetylcholinesterase and have no antagonist.

Answer 562

A

Prevent acetylcholine from binding to receptor sites (phase II block). These drugs are not degraded by cholinesterase, but they can be antagonized by edrophonium or neostigmine.

Answer 563

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are monoamine neurotransmitters. found in large quantities in areas of the brain often associated with expression and control of emotions. primary method by which monoamines are inactivated is through their reuptake from the synapse back into synaptic vesicles in nerve endings. Drugs that block or inhibit their reuptake increase their activity.

Acetylcholine is the most widely distributed neurotransmitter in the body. It is associated with a variety of behavioral effects and is inactivated by cholinesterase at the synapse

GABA is considered to be an inhibitory neurotransmitter and is widely distributed in the brain.

Answer 564

A

benzodiazepines: treatment of fears and phobias, separation anxiety, aggression, anxiety-induced stereotypes, urine marking in cats, and appetite stimulation.

azapirone agent = Buspirone. The antianxiety effect is thought to be caused by blocking serotonin receptors. control of urine spraying/marking and the control of fearfulness and anxiety.

Dexmedetomidine Oromucosal Gel. highly potent and selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist. preventing release of norepinephrine and reducing the levels leading to decreased anxiey.

Tricyclics: amitriptyline, imipramine, and clomipramine. prevent reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. Clomipramine is apparently a selective inhibitor of serotonin reuptake. for Separation anxiety, obsessive disorders, fearful aggression, hyperactivity, hypervocalization, and urine marking.

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors: fluoxetine, sertraline, and paroxetine. inhibit serotonin reuptake back into the nerve terminal. obsessive disorders, phobias, aggression, inappropriate urine marking, and separation anxiety.

Answer 565

A

Benzodiazepines: include lethargy, ataxia, polyuria and polydipsia (PUPD), hyperexcitability, and hepatic necrosis (cats).

Azapirones: Few serious side effects appear to exist.

Dexmedetomidine Oral Get: Temporary pale mucous membranes may occur at the site of application. It may also cause hypotension, bradycardia, and drowsiness.

Tricyclics: sedation, tachycardia, heart block, mydriasis, dry mouth, reduced tear production, urine retention, and constipation.

SSRIs: anorexia, nausea, lethargy, anxiety, and diarrhea.

Answer 566

A

serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor used in anxiety and noise aversion. Causes serotonin to remain in the brainstem longer allowing for less anxiety. short-term anxiety relief in dogs and cats.

Answer 567

A

Adverse effects may include sedation, aggression, and nausea

Answer 568

A

Anipryl. treatment of old-dog dementia and treatment of canine Cushing’s disease. Dopamine broken down by MAO-B. this inhibits MAO-B and allow dopamine levels to increase.

Answer 569

A

Side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, restlessness, lethargy, salivation, shaking, and deafness.

Answer 570

A

Mechanisms associated with changing hormonal levels (reduced gonadotropins) or through some direct effect on the cerebral cortex. treatment of urine spraying/marking, intermale aggression, and dominance aggression.

Answer 571

A

Transient diabetes mellitus (cats), PUPD, increased weight gain, personality changes, endometritis, endometrial hyperplasia, mammary hypertrophy, mammary tumor, adrenal atrophy, and lactation are side effects.

Answer 572

A

Gabapentin: used for anxiety or social phobias.
Clorazepate: used for anxiety or social phobias
Methylphenidate: used for hyperactivity in dogs

Answer 573

A

These agents are used to produce a rapid, humane death. usually some combination of Pentobarbital sodium. Twitching may occur, death may be delayed if given outside the vein

Answer 574

A

Oxygen–carbon dioxide exchange
Regulation of acid–base balance
Body temperature regulation
Voice production

Answer 575

A

Ventilation—movement of air into and out of the lungs. The inspiratory portion of ventilation is usually an active process, whereas expiration is usually a passive process.
Distribution—distributing of inspired gases throughout the lungs.
Diffusion—movement of gases across the alveolar membrane.
Perfusion—supply of blood to the alveoli. The ratio of perfusion to ventilation of the alveoli is normally close to 1:1.

Answer 576

A

control of secretions, Control of reflexes, Maintaining normal airflow to the alveoli

Answer 577

A

(nebulization) allows delivery at high concentrations directly into the airways while minimizing their blood levels— this may reduce the chance of a toxic reaction. optimum particle size 1-5 microns.

Answer 578

A

produce and deliver smaller particles that reach deep into the respiratory system. use compressors to create an aerosol that can be inhaled without the necessity of using positive pressure to force the aerosol into the airways. Ultrasonic and jet nebulizers available. used primarily in the treatment of respiratory infections. provide airway humidification (saline), mucolytics, bronchodilators, and antimicrobials.

Answer 579

A

MDIs deliver particles to the upper airways. designed for home use. aerosol of an MDI is driven by a propellant- chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) (older) or hydrofluoroalkanes (HFAs), which contain no chlorine and do not affect the ozone. (newer). used primarily for feline lower airway disease (asthma), lower airway disease in horses, lower airway disease (bronchitis) in dogs. frequently contain bronchodilators like albuterol or clenbuterol and/or corticosteroids. Aerochamber.

Answer 580

A

liquefy and dilute viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping in evacuation of those secretions. Most administered orally, a few are given by inhalation or parenterally. indicated with a productive cough.
Guaifenesin, Ethylenediamine dihydriodide (iodide preparation), Hypertonic Saline

Answer 581

A

decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions by altering the chemical composition of the mucus through the breakdown of chemical (disulfide) bonds. Acetylcysteine is the only one in vet med. administered by nebulization for pulmonary uses.

Answer 582

A

are few when acetylcysteine is nebulized. However, the drug may cause nausea or vomiting when administered orally.

Answer 583

A

inhibit or suppress coughing. used to treat dry, nonproductive coughs such as tracheobronchitis (kennel cough) in dogs. Centrally acting agents suppress coughing by depressing the cough center in the brain, peripherally acting agents depress cough receptors in the airways (rarely used).

Answer 584

A

Hydrocodone is used primarily as an antitussive for harsh, nonproductive coughs.

Answer 585

A

These include potential sedation, constipation, and gastrointestinal upset.

Answer 586

A

help manage moderate pain and may be used in some cases as a cough suppressant and antidiarrheal.

Orally administered codeine is poorly absorbed in the dog and not commonly used.

Answer 587

A

Adverse side effects include sedation and constipation.

Answer 588

A

nonnarcotic antitussive that is chemically similar to codeine. It has no analgesic or addictive properties. It acts centrally and elevates the cough threshold. may be used in cats without acetaminophen. in dogs is poorly absorbed and does not attain effective concentrations after oral administration

Answer 589

A

Adverse side effects are rare when this drug is given in the correct dose but can include drowsiness and gastrointestinal upset.

Answer 590

A

contains a centrally acting antitussive (trimeprazine tartrate) and a corticosteroid (prednisolone). antitussive, an antipruritic and an antiinflammatory.

Answer 591

A

sedation, depression, hypotension, and minor central nervous system signs.

Answer 592

A

Contraction of smooth muscle fibers can result from three basic mechanisms:

Release of acetylcholine at parasympathetic nerve endings or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. Increased acetylcholine levels also tend to increase secretions of the respiratory tract, thus reducing airflow and adding to the level of dyspnea.
Release of histamine through allergic or inflammatory mechanisms. Histamine combines with H1 receptors on smooth muscle fibers to cause bronchoconstriction. Histamine also increases the inflammatory response in the airways, further leading to increased levels of secretion and viscosity.
Blockade of beta2-adrenergic receptors by drugs such as propranolol results in bronchoconstriction. Stimulation of beta2-adrenergic receptors, however, produces bronchodilation.

Answer 593

A

produce bronchodilation by combining with acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle fibers and preventing the bronchoconstrictive effects of acetylcholine

Answer 594

A

combine with appropriate receptors on the smooth muscle fibers and effect relaxation of those fibers. They also stabilize mast cells and reduce the amount of histamine released. preferred that they have limited beta1 activity because beta1 stimulation can produce tachycardia.

Epinephrine, Pseudoephedrine, Albuterol

Answer 595

A

include tachycardia and hypertension.

Answer 596

A

inhibit phosphodiesterase. When beta2 receptors are stimulated, cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP), released in the smooth muscle cell, completes relaxation response to allow dilation. Phosphodiesterase inhibits cyclic AMP in the cell, promoting bronchoconstriction. By inhibiting the inhibitor (phosphodiesterase) and allowing cyclic AMP to accumulate, the methylxanthines tend to promote bronchodilation. also cause mild stimulation of the heart and respiratory muscles and minor diuresis. Theophylline and Aminophylline

Answer 597

A

include GI upset, central nervous system stimulation, tachycardia, ataxia, and arrhythmia.

theophylline may interact adversely with many drugs, including phenobarbital, cimetidine, erythromycin, thiabendazole, clindamycin, and lincomycin, appropriate precautions should be taken before this drug is administered.

Answer 598

A

reduce the congestion of nasal membranes by reducing associated swelling through vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels. limited use in vet med, their effectiveness has not been demonstrated

Answer 599

A

block the effects of histamine. Histamine is released from mast cells by the allergic response and combines with H1 receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle to cause bronchoconstriction. may be useful in treating respiratory disease. thought to be more effective when used prophylactically because they do not replace histamine that has already combined with receptors

Answer 600

A

These include sedation and, occasionally, gastrointestinal effects.

Answer 601

A

treatment of allergic respiratory conditions. They are considered the most effective drugs in the treatment of equine chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. for inhalation therapy, have strong antiinflammatory effects locally in the lungs, and are rapidly biodegraded when absorbed into the general circulation. Oral (prednisone or prednisolone) are the drugs of choice for chronic airway inflammation. Oral prednisolone should be used in cats as they do not absorb or convert prednisone to prednisolone as well as dogs

Answer 602

A

associated with long-term use of the drug. Some of the effects include polyphagia, polydipsia/polyuria, behavior changes, gastrointestinal ulceration, delayed wound healing, and immunosuppression.

Answer 603

A

(Cromolyn Sodium for Inhalation) inhibits the release of histamine and leukotrienes from sensitized mast cells found in nasal and lung mucosa and in the eyes. It may also inhibit bronchospasm. It is used primarily in the treatment of horses with RAO (recurrent airway obstruction—heaves).

Answer 604

A

Leukotrienes are proinflammatory products of arachidonic acid released from mast cells and eosinophils. used in veterinary medicine to treat feline asthma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), heartworm respiratory disease syndrome, and upper respiratory infection,canine atopic dermatitis.

Answer 605

A

used to remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion and by reducing hypertension.

Answer 606

A

highly potent diuretics that inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium. promote the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water.

Answer 607

A

treatment of congestive heart failure (CHF) in canines and felines, pulmonary edema, udder edema, hypercalcemic nephropathy, and uremia, as an adjunct in the treatment of hyperkalemia, and sometimes as an antihypertensive agent

Answer 608

A

hypokalemia, other fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, ototoxicity, gastrointestinal distress, hematologic effects, weakness, and restlessness

Answer 609

A

give IV to promote diuresis by exerting high osmotic pressure in the kidney tubules and limiting tubular reabsorption. Water is drawn into the glomerular filtrate, which reduces its reabsorption rate and increases the excretion of water.

Answer 610

A

oliguric renal failure, reduction of intraocular and cerebrospinal fluid (intracerebral) pressure, and rapid reduction of edema or ascites

Answer 611

A

should not be used in patients with anuria secondary to renal disease, in patients that are severely dehydrated, or in patients with pulmonary congestion or edema. Osmotic diuretics may cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances

Answer 612

A

reduce edema by inhibiting reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and water. Their duration of action is longer than that of loop diuretics. These drugs cross the placental border.

Answer 613

A

used for the treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and hypertension in dogs. Hydrochlorothiazide may be used in the treatment of calcium oxalate uroliths, hypoglycemia, and as a diuretic for patients with heart failure

Answer 614

A

hypokalemia, hypersensitivity, should not be used during pregnancy or with severe renal disease, preexisting electrolyte/water balance abnormalities, hepatic disease, or diabetes mellitus. The drugs may cause gastrointestinal upset

Answer 615

A

weaker diuretic and antihypertensive effects than other diuretics. conserve potassium. aldosterone antagonists. enhances the excretion of sodium and water and reduces the excretion of potassium.

Answer 616

A

used to help manage edema or fluid retention due to congestive heart failure, ascites, hypertension and other conditions where the body retains excess fluids. It may be used along with furosemide, digoxin, or angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in cases of congestive heart failure or fluid retention due to liver failure

Answer 617

A

uncommon, but hyperkalemia may result if administered with potassium supplements or ACE inhibitors. Do not give to patients with hyperkalemia, Addison’s disease, anuria, acute renal failure, or significant renal impairment

Answer 618

A

decreases the rate of carbonic acid and hydrogen production in the kidney, promoting excretion of solutes and increasing the rate of urinary output. reduce intraocular pressure by reducing the production of aqueous humor

Answer 619

A

metabolic alkalosis, glaucoma, and hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) in horses

Answer 620

A

Hypokalemia. Don’t give acetazolamide to patients with hepatic, renal, pulmonary, or adrenocortical insufficiency; hyponatremia; hypokalemia; or electrolyte imbalances. Don’t give Dichlorphenamide and methazolamide to patients with hyperchloremic acidosis

Answer 621

A

parasympathomimetic. These drugs are used primarily to increase the contractility of the urinary bladder.

Answer 622

A

cholinergic toxicity, SLUD. Don’t give to patients with gastrointestinal obstructions or if integrity of urinary bladder wall is unknown.

cholinergic crisis may occur if this drug is injected IV or SQ, so atropine should be readily available (vomiting, defecation, dyspnea, and tremors)

Answer 623

A

parasympatholytic. treats urge incontinence by promoting the retention of urine in the urinary bladder.

Answer 624

A

decreased gastric motility and delayed gastric emptying, which may decrease the absorption of other medications.

Answer 625

A

sympatholytic. Classified based on which receptors they antagonize.

Answer 626

A

relax vascular smooth muscle, enhance peripheral vasodilation, and decrease blood pressure by interrupting the actions of sympathomimetic agents at alpha-adrenergic receptor sites.

Answer 627

A

internal sphincter tone when the urethral sphincter is in hypertonus. Metabolized by the liver

Answer 628

A

rapid decrease in blood pressure, resulting in weakness or syncope after the first dose of prazosin. This is usually self-limiting. Phenoxybenzamine hydrogen chloride (HCl) should not be used in horses exhibiting clinical signs of colic and can cause increased intraocular pressure, tachycardia, nasal congestion, inhibition of ejaculation, weakness/dizziness, gastrointestinal effects, and constipation in equines.

Answer 629

A

inhibit the action of catecholamines and other sympathomimetic agents at beta-adrenergic receptor sites. AKA: inhibiting stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Control of mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure.

Answer 630

A

Decreased cardiac output and the promotion of bronchospasm.

Combination with a diuretic is common because of the tendency of beta-adrenergic antagonists to cause salt and fluid retention.

Answer 631

A

ACE Inhibitors: block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (both produced in the liver), decrease aldosterone secretion, reduce peripheral arterial resistance, and alleviate vasoconstriction. treat heart failure, hypertension, chronic renal failure, and protein-losing glomerulonephropathies in dogs and cats.

Answer 632

A

include complications in patients with renal insufficiency caused by excretion by the kidneys.

Answer 633

A

treat nonresponding hypertension. Dopamine may be used to promote diuresis in patients unresponsive to loop or osmotic diuretics.

Answer 634

A

hypotension, edema, conduction disturbances, heart failure, and bradycardia.

Answer 635

A

Used to treat diabetes insipidus. Side effects uncommon.

Answer 636

A

preventing formation of struvite uroliths. Since the introduction of urinary acidifying diets, urinary acidifiers have not been routinely prescribed.

Answer 637

A

preventing formation of struvite uroliths. Since the introduction of urinary acidifying diets, urinary acidifiers have not been routinely prescribed.

It is very important to inform clients who may change from using an acidifier to one of the available acidifying diets that while the diet is being administered, no acidifiers, salt, vitamin or mineral supplements, or any other food items—other than what is allowed in the diet—should be given to the patient.

Answer 638

A

decrease the production of uric acid and are used in combination with a urate calculolytic diet for the dissolution of ammonium acid urate uroliths. Once dissolution occurs, a urine-alkalizing, low-protein, low-purine, low-oxalate diet is usually prescribed to prevent recurrence of uroliths.

Answer 639

A

These are uncommon, but Hypersensitivity and hepatic and renal effects can occur.

Answer 640

A

used in the management of ammonium acid urate, calcium oxalate, and cystine urolithiasis.

Answer 641

A

These include possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance with the use of sodium bicarbonate.

Answer 642

A

a last ditch effort to treat renal patients with anemia. Product is a human recombinant, no animal ones available on the market.

Answer 643

A

include local or systemic allergic reactions in animals and pain occurring at the injection site.

Answer 644

A

Pharmacologic agents are selected for management of urinary incontinence when urinary tract infection, morphologic abnormalities, and mechanical types of excessive outlet resistance have been excluded as possible causes of the problem, which is evidenced by a neurologic lesion that affects the upper motor neuron segments or the lower motor neuron segments. the detrusor muscle contractions are normal, but bladder and urethral functions are abnormal.

Answer 645

A

Phenazopyridine
Amitriptyline

dry mouth, rapid heart rate, and sedation (i.e., antihistamine effects) are associated with this drug. High doses can cause heart toxicity. Sometimes it may cause cats to be less interested in grooming themselves. Additionally, weight gain may occur

Answer 646

A

(GAGs) Urothelial GAGs have the ability to keep microorganisms and crystals from adhering to the urinary bladder wall and limit the transepithelial movement of urine proteins and solutes.

Answer 647

A

The safety and efficacy of GAGs for the treatment of FLUTD have not been reported. In canines, vomiting, anorexia, lethargy, or mild depression are possible. Pentosan has some anticoagulant effects, so bleeding is possible in any species

Answer 648

A

chitosan-based nutritional supplement made from a polysaccharide extracted from crab and shrimp shells. binds phosphorus in the intestine, causing phosphorus to be eliminated through the intestinal tract- used for renal failure

Answer 649

A

nutritional supplement that has the potential to reduce the azotemia of renal failure by flushing out uremic toxins and slowing down uremic toxin buildup to help prevent further damage to the kidney.

Answer 650

A

Artria- two dorsal chambers, right and left
ventricals - two ventral chambers, right and left.
Both composed of Myocardium (muscle).
Vena Cava- brings blood to the R Atrium, which goes through the tricuspid (atrioventricular valve) into the R ventricle, and then to pulmonary artery (and to the lungs)
Pulmonary vein- brings blood back and into the left atrium, which then goes through the bicuspid (mitral) valve, into the L ventricle, and out the aorta to systemic circulation.

Answer 651

A

Impulses generated by the sinoatrial node travel over the atria to the atrioventricular node, face a brief delay (about 0.1 second) in the atrioventricular node, travel down the bundle of His to its left and right branches, and pass into the ventricular muscle via the Purkinje fibers (located at the apex of the heart).

Answer 652

A

rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, and the slower influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions

Answer 653

A

return of the ions to their original positions is brought about in part by the sodium-potassium pump

Answer 654

A

sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system, through beta1 receptors, produces positive chronotropic and inotropic effects on the heart. The parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system causes negative chronotropic effects through cholinergic receptors.

Answer 655

A

Increasing the heart rate. (there will be inadequate time for ventricular filling)
Increasing the stroke volume.
Increasing the efficiency of the heart muscle.
Cardiac remodeling. The heart responds by increasing its size and becoming stronger. This change usually precedes the development of heart failure signs by months or years.

Answer 656

A

Valvular insufficiency, a backflow or leakage of blood backward through the valve

Answer 657

A

Cardiomyopathy. congestive (the myocardium becomes thin and ineffective in its pumping action) or hypertrophic (the myocardium becomes thickened and restricts ventricular filling). may be accompanied by arrhythmias.

Answer 658

A

occurs when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired so sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. - exercise intolerance, pulmonary edema, and ascites, usually heart re-modelling

Answer 659

A

• Control rhythm disturbances
• Maintain or increase cardiac output
• Increase the strength of contraction
• Decrease the afterload
       Arteriolar dilator
       Decrease the preload
       Venodilator
        Relieve fluid accumulations
                Diuretics
                Dietary salt restriction
• Increase the oxygenation of the blood
          Bronchodilation
• Ancillary treatment
          Narcotics/sedatives
          Oxygen

Answer 660

A

1 of 4. High risk for development of heart failure but no structural abnormality of the heart. No treatment at this time

Answer 661

A

2 of 4. Structural abnormality present but no signs of heart failure.
Beta Blockers, ACE Inhibitors, Low-Sodium Diet,

Answer 662

A

3 of 4. Structural abnormality present, and current or previous signs of heart failure/coughing, reduced exercise tolerance

Dog: diuretic, pimobendan ACEI, sodium restricted diet

Cat: diuretic, ACEI

Answer 663

A

4 of 4. End stage signs of heart failure resistant to standard treatment/dyspnea at rest

multimodal therapy

Answer 664

A

cautious use of positive inotropic drugs because these can increase the oxygen demand of cardiac muscle, can potentially damage the contractile apparatus, and can increase the tendency for arrhythmias. Proof of clinical efficacy of positive inotropic drugs is lacking, and their use is controversial

Answer 665

A

Digoxin and Digitoxin. Positive Inotropic Drugs.
-improved cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic effects, decreased signs of dyspnea.
increases level of Ca+ available to contractile filaments at the inhibition of the sodium- potassium-ATPase.
-increase the force of contraction, decrease the rate of contraction, and, improve baroreceptor function

Answer 666

A

indications: CHF, atrial fibrillation, and supraventricular tachycardia.

Side effects: associated with high or toxic serum levels- anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, and various arrhythmias. Cats are relatively more sensitive than dogs to toxic effects. Give lower doses to renal patients. these compounds are adversely affected when given concurrently with many drugs. bioavailability changes with drug form

Answer 667

A

sympathomimetics (adrenergics) that increase the force and rate of heart contraction (increase in cardiac output), constrict peripheral blood vessels (increase blood pressure), and elevate blood glucose levels. increased cardiac contractility mostly by beta1 receptors. short term managment (short serum half lives)

Answer 668

A

Positive Inotropic Cardiac drug. a catecholamine. stimulation for contraction of the heart and support of the circulatory system after CPA. intracardiac, intratracheal, or intravenous. Not used for CHF because of greatly increased heart workload, and increased tendency of arrhythmias.

Answer 669

A

Positive Inotropic Cardiac drug. for cardiac arrhythmias and acute bronchial constriction, atropine-resistant bradycardia. Not commonly used.

side effects: tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias.

Answer 670

A

a positive inotropic drug, catecholamine. biosynthetic precursor of norepinephrine. stimulates dopaminergic receptors in coronary, mesenteric, renal, and cerebral vascular beds. Can stimulate alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors to increase heart contractility, HR, and blood pressure. use is limited to heart failure associated with anesthetic emergencies or after CPR, oliguric renal failure and for the supportive treatment of shock. vomiting, tachycardia, dyspnea, and blood pressure variations.

Answer 671

A

synthetic (positive) inotropic agent related structurally to dopamine. causes increased cardiac contractility, but doesn’t produce dilation of selected vascular beds. direct beta1-adrenergic agent. produces increased cardiac output with little tendency to cause arrhythmias or increased heart rate. Give diluted by IV infusion. For acute heart failure like DCM. can cause tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias.

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Pharmacology Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM