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Lecturio Nursing NCLEX-RN > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

Learning the basics

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1
Q

What is the main goal in pharmacology?

A

Obtain the maximum benefit with the minimum harm to the patient

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2
Q

When is the best time to provide education to a client about a new drug?

A

Every time a medication is given

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3
Q

What should the nurse ask the client to ensure the right patient is receiving the right medication?

A

Name and date of birth

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4
Q

What essential laboratory parameter should the nurse evaluate before administering fast-acting insulin?

A

Blood sugar

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5
Q

What should the nurse anticipate when digoxin is given to a client with low serum potassium?

A

An increased risk of toxicity from the medication

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6
Q

What is a possible side effect of a rapid infusion of vancomycin?

A

Flushing

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7
Q

What should the nurse do when a client has been prescribed a drug that can be potentially unsafe for a client due to an allergy or contraindication?

A

Hold the medication and contact the health care provider immediately

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8
Q

What are PRN prescriptions?

A

Drugs to be given under specific circumstances, not on a schedule

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9
Q

Which laboratory finding will be evidence of the effective action of antibiotic therapy?

A

White Blood Cell Count

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10
Q

Where is the principal place of absorption for oral medications?

A

Small intestine

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11
Q

What vitamin reduces the effects of warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

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12
Q

What type of route of administration involves a depot medication?

A

Intramuscular

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13
Q

What is the name for the passage of drugs from the higher concentration space toward the lower concentration space that occurs in the kidneys during excretion?

A

Passive tubular reabsorption

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14
Q

Where in the nerve does an SSRI inhibit the reuptake?

A

Presynaptic nerve ending

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15
Q

What is a common way to dose pediatric medications?

A

A total daily dose, which is divided into more than one individual dose

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16
Q

The nurse checks the oral suspension of NoMoreCough for the safe therapeutic range and finds it is 20 mg/kg/day in four divided doses. What is the appropriate dose for a 40-kg child?

A

200 mg every 6 hours

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17
Q

A nurse hangs a 500-mL bag of IV fluid with a long length of tubing that connects directly to the client and has a drip chamber. What piece of equipment is this?

A

Primary IV line

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18
Q

The nurse hangs a bag of IV fluid and checks the drip chamber. How full should the drip chamber be?

A

Halfway full

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19
Q

What biological difference causes neonates and infants to be more sensitive to nervous system medications?

A

Underdeveloped blood-brain barrier

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20
Q

Compared with adults, what pharmacokinetic process is faster in children 1–12 years old?

A

Metabolism

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21
Q

What is the Beers Criteria?

A

A list of potentially inappropriate medications to be prescribed to the elderly

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22
Q

What laboratory test provides the best clinically accurate information regarding the renal function in elderly clients?

A

Creatinine clearance

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23
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillin

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24
Q

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotics?

A

Bacteriostatic antibiotics stop bacteria from reproducing, and bactericidal antibiotics kill the bacteria.

25
Q

How is active tuberculosis diagnosed?

A

Positive skin or blood test result, abnormal chest x-ray, and a positive sputum test result

26
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of erythromycin?

A

Gastrointestinal distress

27
Q

What is the rationale for increasing the fluid intake of clients taking sulfonamides?

A

To prevent crystalline aggregates in the kidney

28
Q

What is the difference between oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza)?

A

Relenza can be administered via multiple different routes.

29
Q

How is the live attenuated virus (LAIV4) vaccine administered?

A

Half the dose in each nostril intranasally

30
Q

What is the scientific term used to describe an infection that occurs because of a weakened immune system?

A

Opportunistic infection

31
Q

What type of HIV drug is Enfuvirtide?

A

Fusion inhibitor

32
Q

What medications cause peptic ulcer disease via suppression of prostaglandin production?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

33
Q

Which test can detect Helicobacter pylori infection?

A

Serum antibody test

34
Q

Which medications block gastric acid production to promote healing of the stomach lining?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

35
Q

A client who might be pregnant needs medication to protect her stomach lining. Which medication does the nurse provide?

A

Sucralfate

36
Q

In which generation of antihistamines would diphenhydramine be classified?

A

First generation

37
Q

What are the 2 airway problems that clients with asthma exhibit?

A

Bronchoconstriction and inflammation

38
Q

What type of antibodies on mast cells do allergens bind to upon entering the body of a client with asthma?

A

IgE

39
Q

The _____ the dose of glucocorticoids given, the more likely for _____ suppression. What are the correct missing words?

A

Higher; adrenal

40
Q

When a diagnosis is given with the suffix of “-itis,” what is it referring to?

A

Inflammation

41
Q

“Which peptide hormone is formed by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) on angiotensin I?

A

Angiotensin II

42
Q

What are common side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

Headache, Bradycardia, Orthostatic hypotension

43
Q

What condition do beta-adrenergic blocking agents treat?

A

High blood pressure

44
Q

Which type of medication disrupts the clotting cascade, causing a reduction in the formation of fibrin clots?

A

Anticoagulants

45
Q

When atherosclerosis is developing, what part of a client’s artery is damaged first?

A

Endothelium

46
Q

Which extreme extrapyramidal motor symptom (EPS) reaction can present suddenly with a client experiencing muscle rigidity, sweating, fevers, cardiac dysrhythmias, and labile blood pressures?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

47
Q

Which receptors do first generation antipsychotic medications block?

A

Dopamine receptors

48
Q

Which condition is most appropriately treated with lithium?

A

Bipolar disorder

49
Q

What are symptoms of opioid withdrawal?

A

Insomnia, muscle aches, and diarrhea

50
Q

What is the reason for the dopamine deficiency seen in Parkinson’s disease?

A

The neurons in the substantia nigra die.

51
Q

Why are benzodiazepines preferred over barbiturates?

A

Benzodiazepines have a lower risk of respiratory depression and a lower risk for developing a tolerance or physical dependence than barbiturates.

52
Q

How do benzodiazepines work in clients to cause a sedative effect?

A

They enhance GABA to cause a calming effect.

53
Q

What is the effect of a drug that activates a muscarinic receptor?

A

It will cause a slowing or calming effect that increases secretions and decreases the heart rate.

54
Q

What is the relationship between muscarinic and cholinergic drugs?

A

Muscarinic drugs are also considered cholinergic drugs, and antimuscarinic drugs are also considered anticholinergic drugs.

55
Q

What does it mean when a medication is a parasympathetic mimetic?

A

It will cause actions similar to those that occur when the parasympathetic system is activated.

56
Q

What are the effects of cholinergic drugs?

A

They increase the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system.

57
Q

Atropine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist. What is the therapeutic response in the body for this medication?

A

It will dilate pupils, increase the heart rate, and decrease stomach activity.

58
Q

What is a major function of the mineralocorticoid aldosterone?

A

Control electrolytes and fluid levels

59
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Dysphoria, hirsutism, purple striae, and easily bruised skin

Lecturio Nursing NCLEX-RN (1 decks)

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