Pharmacology 1 Flashcards

Introduction. Slides 1-77

1
Q

What is Pharmacology

A

Study of drugs and their interactions with the body

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2
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

how drugs get in and out of the body (how they MOVE)

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3
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

how drugs affect the body (what they DO)

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4
Q

Safety, drug approved for human testing. Small amount of participants

A

Phase 1

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5
Q

Safety and Dosing. what is the dose and efficacy. Longer then phase 1. ⅓ pass this phase.

A

Phase 2

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6
Q

Phase 3

A

Safety and Eficacy. Against the current standard. Bigger sample. Years of investigation. Needs FDA approval for next phase

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7
Q

Phase 4

A

Post approval surveillance. What effects cause over time.

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8
Q

Important Drug Information

A

Names
Classification
Mechanism of action
Indications & Contraindications
Dosage & How Supplied
Routes of Administration
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacodynamics
Side Effects/Adverse Reactions

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9
Q

4-chloro-N-furfuryl-5-sulfamoylanthranilic acid
is

A

Chemical Name

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10
Q

The name furosemide is the

A

Generic Name

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11
Q

The name Lasix is the

A

Brand Name

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12
Q

The names are capitalized

A

Brand names

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13
Q

The names are are lower case

A

generics

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14
Q

ACE inhibitors (lisinopril, captopril, enalapril)

A

-pril

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15
Q

-sartan

A

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (losartan, valsartan)

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16
Q

Beta-blockers (metoprolol, labetalol, esmolol, timolol)

A

-(o)lol

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17
Q

-zepam

A

Benzodiazepines (lorazepam/Ativan, diazepam/Valium)

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18
Q

Calcium channel blockers (amlodipine, nifedipine)

A

-dipine

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19
Q

-semide

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide/Lasix, torsemide)

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20
Q

Antivirals (acyclovir, oseltamivir)

A

-vir

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21
Q

BZD is

A

benzodiazepine

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22
Q

CTX is

A

ceftriaxone

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23
Q

acetaminophen, ibuprofen, fentanyl are By function

A

Analgesics

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24
Q

haloperidol classified by function is

A

Antipsychotics

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25
Q
A
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26
Q

DEA drug scheduling what type of classification is

A

By therapeutic usefulness versus addiction/abuse potentia

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27
Q

By pregnancy and lactation risk
is a classification of drugs?

A

Yes

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28
Q

Schedule I means

A

High abuse potential; no recognized medical purpose

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29
Q

Heroin, marijuana, LSD, peyote are what Drug Schedule

A

Schedule I

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30
Q

Schedule II means

A

High abuse potential; legitimate medical purpose

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31
Q

Examples of Schedule II drugs

A

Opioids: Codeine, fentanyl, hydrocodone, hydromorphone, morphine.
Stimulants: amphetamine (adderall), cocaine, methylphenidate (Ritalin)

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32
Q

Schedule III means

A

Lower potential for abuse then Schedule II meds

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33
Q

Examples of Schedule III drugs

A

Opioids: acetaminophen with codeine #3, Nonopioids: anabolic steroids, ketamine

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34
Q

Schedule IV means

A

Lower potential for abuse then Schedule III drugs.

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35
Q

Examples of Schedule IV drugs

A

Alprazolam (xanax), diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan)

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36
Q

Schedule V means

A

Lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV

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37
Q

Examples of Schedule V drugs

A

Opioid cough medicine

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38
Q

Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (2015). What applies only to presciption drugs

A

A Narrative description

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39
Q

Controlled substances require:

A

Additional security
* Additional record keeping
* Disposal precautions
* Strict regulations
* Regional variations
* Vary by EMS

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40
Q

If Every milliliter or milligram must be documented. What else has to

A
  • Ordering
  • Administration
  • Disposal
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41
Q

If Controlled substances are targets of tampering or diversion. What do you have to do

A
  • Inspect vials and ampules
  • Suspect tampering if regular doses are ineffective
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42
Q

“The way in which a medication produces the intended response”

A

Mechanism of Action

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43
Q

How many classes IN TOTAL are in the Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970)

A

Class Ia, Class Ib, Class Ic, Class II, Class III, Class IV, Class V

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44
Q

Class Ia how does affect the action potential

A

Class Ia drugs prolong the action potential and has an intermediate effect on the 0 phase of depolarization

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45
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970). Fast sodium channel blockers

A

Class Ia and Class Ib

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46
Q

Class Ia drugs

A

Procainamide
* Quinidine
* Sparteine

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47
Q

Class Ia Indications

A

Treats ventricular tachycardias, WPW, atrial fibrillation

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48
Q

Class Ib how does affect the action potential

A

Shorten the action potential of myocardial cell and has a weak effect on the initiation of phase 0 of depolarization

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49
Q

Class Ib Indications

A

Treats ventricular tachycardias (during/after an MI)

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50
Q

Class Ib drugs

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Phenytoin
  • Tocainide
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51
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970). Slow sodium channel blockers

A

Class Ic

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52
Q

Class Ic how does affect the action potential

A

do not affect action potential duration and have the strongest effect on the initiation phase 0 of depolarization

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53
Q

Class Ic Indications

A

treats recurrent tachyarrhythmias with abnormal conduction pathways (e.g., WPW)
prevents paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

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54
Q

Class Ic Contraindications

A

Contraindicated after MI,

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55
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970). Beta blockers

A

Class II

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56
Q

Class II how does affect the action potential

A

bind to B1 and B2 receptors to inhibit their effects

57
Q

Class II Indications

A

Prevents reoccurrence of tachycardia, decreases blood pressure

58
Q

Class II Drugs

A

Atenolol
* Metoprolol
* Esmolol
* Propranolol
* Carvedilol

59
Q

Class Ic Drugs

A
  • Flecainide
  • Encainide
  • Moricizine
60
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970). Potassium channel blockers

61
Q

Class III how does affect the action potential

A

interferes with conduction through potassium channels (blocking them), prolonging repolarization (phase 3)

62
Q

Class III Indications

A

Treats atrial flutter/fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, WPW

63
Q

Class III drugs

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Dronedarone
  • Dofetilide
64
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification (1970). Calcium channel blockers

65
Q

Class IV how does affect the action potential

A

drugs inhibit the influx of calcium into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, resulting in vasodilation, decreased inotropy, chronotropy, and dromotropy

66
Q

Class IV Indications

A

Treats heart failure, atrial flutter/fibrillation, supraventricular tachycardia

67
Q

Class IV Drugs

A
  • Diltiazem
  • Verapamil
68
Q

Miscellaneous category that includes drugs that do not fit into the traditional Vaughan-Williams classification system for antiarrhythmic medications

69
Q

Adenosine MOA :

A

activates adenosine receptors that cause hyperpolarization of the cell membrane, increasing K efflux and decreasing Ca++ influx, leading to blockade of AV node conduction

70
Q

Magnesium Sulfate MOA

A

stabilizing cell membranes, inhibits Ca++ channels and alters Na+ and K+ currents (exact mechanism not understood)

71
Q

Digoxin MOA:

A

inbibits Na-K-ATPase pump, leading to increase in intracellular Ca++; enhances contractility and increases vagal tone, which slows conduction through AV node

72
Q

Basic Concepts. Reasons to give a medication. May be more than one

A

Indications

73
Q

Basic Concepts. reasons to not give a medication

A

Contraindications

74
Q

amount of medication given, not volume of fluid given

75
Q

amount of liquid, not the amount of medication

76
Q

amount of medication per volume

A

Concentration

77
Q

Various ways medications are supplied. tablets, capsules, powders are

78
Q

Various ways medications are supplied. solutions, suspensions, emulsions, syrups, etc are

79
Q

Medication Routes must allow delivery of:

A
  • Delivery of appropriate amount
  • Delivery to correct location
80
Q

Medication Routes. Determined by:

A
  • Physical and chemical properties
  • Routes of administration available
  • How quickly effects are needed
81
Q

percentage of unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation is

A

Bioavailability:

82
Q

Medication Routes:
Oral (PO)
Orogastric/nasogastric (OG/NG)
Buccal
Sublingual (SL)
Rectal (PR)

are:

83
Q

Medication Routes. administration anywhere but the digestive track

A

Parenteral

84
Q

Medication Routes. Administers at least 2 to 2.5 times the IV dose

A

Endotracheal Tube

85
Q

Medication Routes. Bioavailability close to 100%. Rapid absorption

A

Intranasal (IN)

86
Q

Medication Routes. Bioavailability = 100%. Onset of action faster than other routes (e.g., IM, IN, oral, etc.)

A

Intravenous

87
Q

Infiltration risk is high with what

A

Sympathomimetics and electrolyte solutions

88
Q

Medication Routes. Viable alternative when IV access is unattainable

A

Intraosseous

89
Q

IO Sites

A

proximal tibia, distal femur, proximal humerus, distal tibia

90
Q

Medication Routes. Bioavailability from 75% to 100%, confirm appropiate for this route

A

Intramuscular (IM)

91
Q

Medication Routes. Slower absorption
* May prevent adverse cardiovascular effects

A

Subcutaneous (SC)

92
Q

Medication Routes. Deliver constant dose of mediation during a long period
* Large quantity of medication

A

Dermal and Transdermal

93
Q

Medication Routes. Bioavailability low
Large doses required
Patients must be
Conscious
Alert

A

Sublingual (SL)

94
Q

Medication Routes. Preferred over oral route if patient is unresponsive, having seizures, vomiting, unable to swallow
Greater than 90% bioavailability
Unpredictable absorption

95
Q

Mention the processes of how the BODY interacts with the DRUG

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism (Biotransformation)
Elimination

96
Q

This process begins from the entrance point to circulation. It is how fast it will get to circulation.

A

Absorption

97
Q

On what Absorption relys on

A
  • Medication properties
  • Route of administration
  • Surface area for absorption
  • Concentration
  • Age (possible slower oral absorption in children and elderly)
98
Q

Is the process of distribution of a drug from the sistemic circulation to organs/tissues.

A

Distribution

99
Q

What Distribution relys on

A

Volume of distribution
Methods of distribution
Size of molecule
Charge of molecule, pH
Protein Binding therefore lowers the effect but they will be release little by little

100
Q

barries that “don´t distribute” drug easly

A

Blood-brain barrier BBB
Placental Barrier

101
Q

This barrier has tight junctions and is permeable to lipid-soluble substance

A

Blood-brain barrier BBB

102
Q

This process is how the drug is transformed in the body

A

Metabolism

103
Q

Where does the Metabolism of drugs occur

A

Typically occurs in the liver

104
Q

Drugs are made ___________ to aid in excretion and elimination

A

more water-soluble

105
Q

4 ways the drug will be metabolized to

A

Inactive to active
Active to active metabolite
Active to Partial active
Active to ease to eñiminate

106
Q

Process of how to drug gets out of the body that occur mostly via the kidneys/urine

A

Elimination

107
Q

Pharmacokinetics. time needed in an average person for the metabolism and elimination of 50% of the medication in the plasma

108
Q

What is First Order Elimination

A

Constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time

109
Q

In first order, rate of drug elimination is ___________ to drug plasma concentration

A

proportional

110
Q

What is Zero Order Elimination

A

Constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time

111
Q

In zero order, rate of drug elimination is ___________ to drug plasma concentration

A

independent

112
Q

Drugs stimulate or inhibit a cell’s normal biochemical actions. Part of what is this definition:

A

Pharmacodynamics

113
Q

Mention how the DRUG interacts with the BODY

A
  • Binding to receptors (most common mechanism)
  • Alter normal metabolic pathways
  • Change physical properties of cells
  • Combine with other chemicals
114
Q

Binding to Receptors. causes or enhances the intended receptor effect when bound

115
Q

Binding to Receptors. reduces or performs the opposite of the intended receptor
effect when bound

A

Antagonist

116
Q

Competitive, Non-competitive
are what type of receptors

A

Antagonist

117
Q

– the force of attraction between a drug and the receptor

118
Q

Potency

A

– amount of drug needed to initiate cellular response

119
Q

Efficacy

A

a drug’s ability to cause an expected result

120
Q

The peripheral nervous system is divided into afferent and efferent divisions.
The section of the ________ division that controls involuntary bodily functions is known as ____________

A

EFFERENT, the autonomic nervous system

121
Q

Time from drug administration until reaching minimum effective concentration

A

Onset of action

122
Q

Duration of action

A

• Length of time the drug remains effective

123
Q

Termination of action

A

• Level of drug drops below minimum effective concentration

124
Q

• A drug’s margin of safety (i.e., how close effective and dangerous doses are)

A

Therapeutic index

125
Q

Components of Therapeutic Index

A

Median lethal dose (LD50)
• Median toxic dose (TD50)
• Median effective dose

126
Q

Relationship between median effective dose and median lethal dose
• Large difference:

A

medication is safe

127
Q

Relationship between median effective dose and median lethal dose
• Small difference:

A

patient needs to be monitored

128
Q

Medication Responses – Desired “Therapeutic”
Effect

A

Amount of drug that is administered that will achieve the intended
effect or response
• Cumulative action

129
Q

ANTICIPATED, unintended effect of a medication
• Generally “expected” effects
• We know about them!
• Generally mild
• Sometimes good or bad
• Does not interfere with treatment

A

Side Effect

130
Q

Adverse Effect means

A

UNANTICIPATED, unintended effect
of a medication
• General “unexpected” effects
• We don’t know about them!
• Undesirable effect caused by a
medication
• May be severe or life-threatening
• Sometimes called untoward effects

131
Q

Synergism –occurs

A

Synergism –occurs when two or more drugs work together to produce
an effect that is greater than the sum of their individual effects

132
Q

Potentiation – occurs

A

when one drug, which may have little to no effect on its own, enhances the effect of another drug

133
Q

“1 + 1= 3”

134
Q

“0.5 + 1= 1^0.5”

A

Potentiation

135
Q

prolonged habituation – physical, emotional, behavioral need for a drug to maintain “normal” function

A

Dependence –

136
Q

– abnormal tolerance to adverse or therapeutic effects associated with a drug

A

Habituation

137
Q

– repeat exposure to a medication within the same class
• Opioids, benzodiazepines

A

Cross-tolerance

138
Q

– decreased efficacy or potency after repeated use