Pharmacogenetics in various cancers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of genetic components in diseases?

A

Almost all diseases have a genetic component in determining risk, with the extent varying among diseases.

The understanding of genetic risk comes from familial studies and population-based GWAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main enzymes involved in the activation of cyclophosphamide?

A

CYP3A4, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, CYP2B6.

Polymorphisms in these genes can affect the activation process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the significance of the CYP2C19*2 allele in cancer patients?

A

It decreases the elimination of cyclophosphamide and is associated with a lower risk of developing ovarian failure in homozygous individuals.

However, it is linked to a higher probability of poor renal response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do risk alleles for cancer vary?

A

They vary in penetrance and population frequency, being either monogenic or polygenic.

Monogenic diseases are caused by a single gene, while polygenic diseases involve multiple genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define monogenic diseases.

A

Diseases caused by a single gene resulting in a very high probability of disease.

An example is the BCRA1 mutation and breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define polygenic diseases.

A

Diseases involving several genes, where each gene confers a small increase in risk.

Most human pathologies, including cancer and cardiovascular diseases, are polygenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the role of family studies in identifying monogenic diseases?

A

They use linkage of microsatellite markers to identify disease genes.

Exome sequencing is also utilized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the methodology used for polygenic disease identification?

A

Case-control association studies, candidate gene association studies, and GWAS.

Family studies are more useful for rare high penetrance diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of case-control studies?

A

To determine the risk of disease development by comparing frequencies of genetic traits in cases versus matched controls.

Odds ratios are calculated to assess risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the odds ratio calculated?

A

Odds ratio = A x D / B x C.

A and B represent the diseased group, while C and D represent the non-diseased group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is GWAS?

A

Genome-wide association studies that genotype SNPs across the human genome in cases versus controls to identify novel disease-related genes.

Strong linkage disequilibrium allows for accurate prediction of neighboring SNPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common sources of carcinogens?

A
  • Tobacco smoke
  • Food (e.g., barbecued food, aflatoxin)
  • Occupational exposure
  • Cellular processes (e.g., molecular oxygen)
  • Radon gas

Many components in tobacco smoke are known or potential carcinogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What genes are commonly associated with breast cancer risk?

A

> 70 genes including:
* FGR2 receptor for fibroblast growth factor
* TNRC9, transcription factor
* MAPK31, involved in cell signaling.

Effect sizes are small, typically with odds ratios of 1.1 to 1.3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What findings were reported in GWAS for lung cancer?

A

18 loci show genome-wide significance, including:
* 5p15 (TERT)
* 6p21 (HLA)
* 15q25 (nicotine acetylcholine receptor gene cluster)
* 19q13 (CYP2A6).

These loci are linked to lung cancer susceptibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of CYP2A6 in lung cancer?

A

It activates nitrosamines and metabolizes nicotine, affecting smoking behavior and lung cancer risk.

Confirmed as a significant risk factor for lung cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is the HLA complex important in cancer?

A

It encodes immune system proteins and presents foreign peptides to immune cells.

1 in 7 cancers are caused by infections; in Africa, it’s 1 in 3.

17
Q

How do genetic and exposure factors interact in cancer susceptibility?

A

The relative importance is disease-specific; familial cancers tend to be genetically dominated, while other cancers may be more influenced by environmental exposures.

Environmental factors can interact with susceptible genotypes.

18
Q

List endogenous methylating agents that increase cancer risk.

A
  • Procarbazine
  • Dacarbazine
  • Temozolomide
  • Streptozotocin.

They cause DNA mispairs and require functional DNA mismatch repair for cell death.

19
Q

What is the significance of the Rs1800734 G>A position-93 (MLH1)?

A

It is a risk factor for MSI colorectal cancer and linked to bowel cancer and AML risk due to methylating agents.

It highlights the interaction between genetic predisposition and environmental factors.

20
Q

What is the role of CYP2D6 in tamoxifen treatment?

A

It metabolizes tamoxifen into its active metabolites, 4-hydroxytamoxifen and endotoxifen.

Endotoxifen has much greater affinity for the estrogen receptor than tamoxifen.

21
Q

How do polymorphisms in CYP2D6 affect breast cancer treatment?

A

CYP2D6*4 lowers survival rates and worsens relapse-free time.

Antidepressants can decrease CYP2D6 activity, affecting tamoxifen efficacy.

22
Q

What is the effect of codeine metabolism variability?

A

Polymorphic metabolism affects clinical effects and can lead to opioid toxicity, especially in ultra-rapid metabolizers.

Codeine is metabolized to morphine, and children with sleep apnea are at high risk of adverse reactions.

23
Q

What is the role of TMPT in 6-MP therapy?

A

TMPT inactivates 6-MP, influencing thiopurine therapy outcomes.

Low TMPT activity correlates with severe toxicity from thiopurine therapy.

24
Q

What is the significance of UGT1A1 in irinotecan treatment?

A

It is involved in glucuronidation of SN-38, the active metabolite of irinotecan, impacting toxicity risk.

Variants in UGT1A1 are associated with increased risk of severe side effects.

25
Q

What adverse effects were observed in a patient treated with 5-FU?

A

Elevated concentrations leading to a prolonged stuporous state after chemotherapy.

This highlights the importance of monitoring drug metabolism.

26
Q

What correlates inversely with the number of UGT1A1*28 alleles?

A

Risk of severe diarrhoea and/or neutropenia in patients receiving irinotecan

Subsequent clinical studies detected this association (Micheal et al, 2006)

27
Q

What significant event occurred in 1985 involving a 27-year-old woman with breast cancer?

A

Lapsed into a prolonged stuporous state after 2 cycles of 5-FU containing chemotherapy

Found to have elevated concentrations of thymidine and uracil in her body fluids

28
Q

What did investigators propose as the cause of severe 5-FU toxicity in the patient?

A

A heritable defect in dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase

This was based on biochemical abnormalities in family members and known pathways of pyrimidine salvage

29
Q

What was found in multiple family members of the patient who experienced severe 5-FU toxicity?

A

Reduced DPD activity

This was linked to prolonged exposure to 5-FU after rechallenging with a small dose

30
Q

Where does DPD activity primarily occur?

A

In the liver

This is where most 5-FU metabolism occurs

31
Q

What led to the identification of a 165 bp deletion in the DYPD gene?

A

Cloning cDNA of the gene encoding DYPD

This deletion spans a complete exon of DYPD in family members with low DPD catalytic activity (Micheal et al, 2006)