Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

drugs are categorized (scheduled) based on what?

A
  • safety concerns
  • abuse potential
  • ability to follow directions for their use
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2
Q

NAPRA I drug schedule

A
  • perscription needed for sale by pharmacist
  • includes perscription drugs, narcotics, controlled substances and targeted substances
  • e.g. fentanyl patch
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3
Q

NAPRA II drug schedule

A
  • perscription not required
  • must be dispensed by pharmacist
  • e.g. insulin
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4
Q

NAPRA III drug schedule

A
  • client may obtain from pharmacy without need of pharmacist
  • e.g. ranitidine (Zantac)
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5
Q

dispensing unscheduled drugs

A
  • client may obtain at retail stores or pharmacy
  • e.g. naproxen (Aleve)
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6
Q

what is a drug

A

any substance that brings about change in biological function through chemical actions

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7
Q

useful drugs must…

A
  • be able to move from site of administration to target site
  • be inactivated and excreted from the body to control duration of action
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8
Q

drugs - states of matter

A
  • at room temp most drugs are solid
  • some are liquids - inhalant anesthetics
  • few are gases - NO
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9
Q

examples of proteins that are important receptors for drugs

A
  • hormones (insulin, GFs, neurotransmitters)
  • enzymes
  • transporters (Na+, K+-ATPas)
  • structural proteins (tubulin, nucleic acids)
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10
Q

physiological receptors normally respond to…

A

endogenous regulatory ligands

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11
Q

what makes up the signal transduction pathway

A

the receptor
its cellular target
any intermediary molecules

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12
Q

examples of drugs that do not act on receptors

A
  • antacids: directly neutralize HCl in the stomach
  • Osmotic diuretics: increase urine formation by osmotic forces in the lumen of renal tubules
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13
Q

what is affinity

A

the favorability of a drug-receptor binding interaction

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14
Q

in order for drugs to act selectively with receptor binding they need to possess adequate…

A

size, charge and shape and composition

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15
Q

drug selectivity - size

A
  • lower limit = 100Da: minimum size needed to allow binding
  • upper limit = 1000Da: max size allowing reasonable movement to sites of action
  • very large drugs must be administered at target site
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16
Q

drug selectivity - charge

A
  • drugs interact with receptors by chemical forces or bonds
  • drugs that bind though weak bonds are more selective for receptors (require more precise fit)
  • strength of interactions: covalent > ionic > H-bond > van der waals
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17
Q

drug selectivity - shape and atomic composition

A
  • allow drug to fit with its receptors (e.g. lock and key)
  • enantiomers exist for drugs with chiral centres, one usually produces more potent effects
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18
Q

the ideal drug would…

A

interact only with a molecular target producing desired theraputic effects but not with molecular targets producing adverse effects

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19
Q

cell-type distribution of receptors: very selective

A
  • e.g. Ranitidine is a histamine blocker
  • used to treat gastroduodenal ulcers by reducing HCl production
  • limited effects in the body due to restriction of H2 receptors in the stomach
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20
Q

cell-type distribution of receptors: mildly selective

A
  • e.g. Lidocaine is a Na+ channel blocker
  • highly expressed in several tissues
  • used as local anaesthetic to alleviate pain
  • widespread adverse effects possible in CNS and heart if it reaches systemic circulation
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21
Q

what are the 2 main functions of physiological receptors

A

ligand binding via ligand-binding domain
message propagation via effector domain

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22
Q

what are the major types of drug receptors

A

transmembrane ion channels
transmembrane G-protein coupled
transmembrane enzymatic cytosolic domain coupled
intracellular

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23
Q

ion channels have key roles in…

A

neurotransmission
cardiac conduction
smooth and skeletal muscle contraction
secretion

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24
Q

why are ion channels required by cells

A

membrane lipid bilayers are largely impermeable to polar (charged) anions and cations
- e.g. Na+, K+, Ca2+ and Cl-

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25
Q

what are the major and minor mechanisms of action for ion channels that act as drug targets

A

major: voltage and ligand gated
minor: store, stretch and temperature regulated

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26
Q

ligand-gated ion channels as drug targets

A
  • major ligand-gated channels in the CNS
  • excitatory NTs (ACh or glutamate)
  • Inhibitory NTs (glycine or GABA)
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27
Q

the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor - ligand-gated channel example

A
  • found in skeletal muscle and neurons
  • consists of 5 subunits in skeletal muscle
  • opening of the channel occurs when 2 ACh bind to the a-subunits
  • Na+ is the major electrolyte passed, some K+ too
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28
Q

voltage-gated ion channels as drug targets

A
  • include Na+, K+, Ca2+, Cl-
  • voltage-activated Na+ channels initiate APs in the axons of nerves and muscle cells
  • when channel is inactivated (refectory period) it is incapable of opening until reset (polarized)
  • local anesthetics bind to channels to prolong the refractory period
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29
Q

sulfonylurea receptor (SUR1) - example of an ion channel activated by intracellular molecules

A
  • regulates ATP-dependent K+ channel in pancreatic B-cells
  • sulfonylurea class oral hypoglycemics facilitate closure of the channel and secretion of insulin by binding the SUR1 receptor
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30
Q

steps that lead to insulin release from islet B-cells and SUR1 receptor

A
  1. glucose enters the cell
  2. glucose becomes hexokinase and increased ATP/ADP ratio
  3. since ATP is high ATP-K+ channel closes and depolarizes cell
  4. voltage-gated calcium channel senses voltage
  5. Ca2+ enters cell
  6. insulin released into the bloodstream
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31
Q

G-protein coupled receptors as drug targets

A
  • most abundant type of receptors in the body
  • most dedicated to sensory perception
  • others have roles in regulating nerve activity, smooth muscle tension, metabolism, force and rate of cardiac contraction and secretion from glands
  • activated by neurotransmitters (ACh, NE), eicosanoids (PGs), peptide hormones, opioids and more
  • targets of many drugs with over half of all non-antibiotic drugs acting at these receptors
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32
Q

how do GPCRs work

A
  • bind to a family of intracellular G proteins
  • signals from G proteins are usually terminated by hydrolysis of GTP to GDP by inherent GTP-ase activity of the a-subunit
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33
Q

mechanism of how GPCRs activate their effector

A
  1. agonist binding receptor casues GDP-GTP exchange - G protein is activated
  2. a-subunit with GTP diffuses to the effector causing it to activate
  3. the agonist unbinds the receptor casuing GTP hydrolysis (loses phosphate) and the heteromeric G protein is reconstructed
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34
Q

Major role of G proteins is to activate effector molecules that produce secondary messengers, what are some well characterized effectors?

A

adenylyl cyclase
guanylyl cyclase
phospholipase C
various ion channels

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35
Q

what 2nd messengers does adenylyl cyclase produce

A

cAMP - acts on PKA

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36
Q

what 2nd messengers does PLC produce

A

DAG - activates PKC
IP3 - causes calcium release

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37
Q

what are the major G proteins and their actions

A

G-stimulatory: activates Ca2+ channels, activates adenylyl cyclase
G-inhibitory: activates K+ channels, inhibits adenylyl cyclase
Go: inhibits Ca+ channels
Gq: activates phospholipase C
G 12/13: diverse ion transporter interactions

38
Q

what is the action of G-stimulatory protein

A

activates Ca2+ channels
activates adenylyl cyclase

39
Q

B-agrenergic receptor: an important G protein receptor

A
  • binds catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) - endogenous ligands
  • stimulates the production of the second messenger cAMP and cellular effects
40
Q

what are some key G protein-mediated second messengers

A

cGMP
cAMP
IP3
DAG

41
Q

what is the action of the B-adrenergic receptor B1

A
  • found in SA node of heart, cardiac muscle and adipose tissue
  • increases heart rate, contractility and lipolysis
42
Q

what is the action of the B-adrenergic receptor B2

A
  • in bronchial smooth muscle - dialates bronchioles
  • GI smooth muscle - constricts sphincters and relaxes gut walls
  • uterus - relax uterine wall
  • bladder - relaxes bladder
  • liver - increases gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
  • pancreas - increases insulin rate
43
Q

what is the action of each B-adrenergic receptor B3

A
  • found in adipose tissue - increases lipolysis
44
Q

Receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains as drug targets

A
  • roles in cell metabolism, growth and differentiation
  • tonic activation can cause tumors
  • receptors form dimers or multisubunit complexes
  • activity includes adding/removing phosphate groups from specific aa’s
45
Q

how to GPCRs differ from transmembrane enzymatic cytosolic domain coupled receptors

A

GPCRs have 7 membrane-spanning proteins where enzymatic cytosolic domains have a single membrane-spanning protein

46
Q

transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains example - receptor tyrosine kinases

A
  • largest group of this receptor class
  • endogenous ligands of RTKs include insulin, PDGF, VEGF
  • effectors include SH2 domains on other signalling molecules like Grb2
  • drugs that target these receptors include TK inhibitors
  • anticancer agents target BCR-Abl TK
47
Q

mode of action for receptor tyrosine kinases

A
  • ligand binds RTK
  • RTK’s dimerize and cross-phosphorylate one another
  • phosphorylate other cytosolic proteins downstream
48
Q

transmembrane receptors with enzymatic cytosolic domains example - tyrosine kinase-associated receptors

A
  • includes cytokine receptors such as y-interferon
  • hormones are ligands - GH and prolactin
  • receptors have no intrinsic enzymatic activity
  • dimerization allows for binding of an intracellular tyrosine kinase (e.g. JAK)
  • JAK’s phosphorylate other proteins (STAT) which translocate to the nucleus
49
Q

types of intracellular receptors as drug targets

A

nuclear hormone receptors
NO synthase and soluble guanylyl cyclase

50
Q

intracellular receptors - nuclear hormone receptors

A
  • bind steroid hormones - lipophilic so they diffuse through PM to bind TFs
  • affect gene transcription in the nucleus
  • have slow but long-lasting effects
51
Q

types of nuclear hormone receptor

A
  • lag on: slow onset of cellular effects
  • lag off: slow offset of cellular effects
52
Q

what happens when the steroid hormones binds to the nuclear hormone receptor

A

kicks off the chaperon protein and the receptor can move to the nucleus

53
Q

intracellular receptors - NO synthase and soluble guanylyl cyclase

A
  • important in the CV system
  • NO binds the N-terminal domain of soluble GC and enhances activation of cGMP
  • cGMP produces vasodilation effects of vascular smooth muscle
54
Q

what are some roles of drugs that exist outside the plasma membrane

A

communication
cell surface adhesion
structural roles

55
Q

drug receptors that serve as role in communication

A
  • ACE inhibitors bind and cause vasoconstriction
  • acetylcholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of ACh, used to treat alzheimer’s
56
Q

when drug binds receptors that serve as role in cell surface adhesion..

A

allows cell-cell interaction for inflammation and coagulation

57
Q

drug receptors that serve a structural role for the cell

A
  • antineoplastics such as some microtubule inhibitors are used for cancer therapy (interfere with mitosis)
58
Q

how do cells integrate multiple signals to produce a coherent cellular response

A
  • secondary messengers allow signalling convergence to generate coordinated net cellular functions
  • different ligands that bind to the same receptor can cause different downstream effects
59
Q

signal amplification at drug receptors

A
  • the magnitude of a cellular response to a ligand is usually greater than the initiating stimulus
  • e.g. epinephrine
  • e.g. cardiac muscle cell “trigger calcium”
60
Q

cellular recognition of receptors

A
  • causes drug-induced activation or inhibition of the receptor
  • long lasting effect on subsequent responsiveness to drug binding
  • prevent overstimulation of the pathway and cellular damage
61
Q

what are some mechanisms of receptor regulation

A

tachyphylaxis: repeated administration of the same dose reduces its effect
desensitization: decreased ability of the receptor to respond
inactivation: loss of ability of the receptor to respond
refractory: a period of time is required between consecutive stimulations for the receptor
down-regulation: removal of receptor from sites where subsequent interactions could take place

62
Q

what has the biggest influence on the affinity of a drug

A

the “off” rate (Koff) - the rate at which the drug unbinds the receptor

63
Q

what is the Kd in drug-receptor binding

A
  • the dissociation rate constant - Koff/Kon
  • it corresponds to the ligand concentration where 50% of receptors are bound by the drug
64
Q

what equations can be used to express the relationship between free and bound receptors

A

[L][R]Kon = [LR]Koff

[LR]/Ro = [L]/Kd+[L]
(fraction of total receptors bound by ligand)

65
Q

what symbols represent the different states of receptors

A

Ro = total receptors
R = unbound receptors
RL = bound receptors

66
Q

when [L] = Kd then…

A

[LR]/Ro = 0.5
occurs when 50% of receptors are bound by ligand

67
Q

maximum ligand-receptor binding occurs when…

A

[LR] = [Ro]
or
[LR]/Ro = 1

68
Q

if one drug has a lower Kd than another that indicates that…

A

it has tighter ligand-receptor binding or greater affinity

69
Q

for many drugs the effect is proportional to…

A

the concentration of receptors bound by drug

70
Q

Graded DR relationships - DR of an individual

A
  • scalar relationship
  • deals with efficacy and potency
71
Q

what is efficacy (Emax)

A

the maximal response produced by the drug at that receptor

72
Q

what is potency

A
  • the drug concentration which elicits 50% of the maximal response
  • function of affinity and efficacy
73
Q

Quantal DR relationships - DR of a population of individuals

A
  • plots the % of the population that responds to a given dose of drug as a function of the drug dose
  • responses are either present or absent
  • useful for predicting effects of a drug in a given population
74
Q

what is the theraputic index

A

TD50/ED50
gives an estimate of the relative safety margin of a drug

75
Q

what is meant by the median effective, toxic and lethal dose

A

ED50: the dose required to produce a therapeutic effect for 50% of the pop
LD50: the dose required to produce a lethal effect for 50% of the pop
TD50: the dose required to produce a toxic effect for 50% of the pop

76
Q

what are agonists

A

drugs that bind receptors and stabilize them on an active conformation

77
Q

what are the unstable forms of a receptor

A

R* = unbound active receptor
DR = bound inactive receptor

78
Q

the following equation provides a quantitative description of potency and efficacy…

A

D + R <–> DR <–> DR*
- shows that more potent drugs have a greater affinity (lower Kd)
- more efficacious drugs (larger Emax) cause a greater proportion of there receptors to be activated

79
Q

full vs partial agonism

A

full: can elicit maximal responses at a given receptor
partial: not able to achieve the same maximal response, even with increasing agonist concentration

80
Q

true or false - a partial agonist may show greater potency (higher affinity) than a full agonist at a given receptor

81
Q

explain the difference in receptor activation for a full, partial, competitive antagonist and inverse agonist

A

full: drug binding leads to DR*
partial: drug binding leads to DR* or DR
competitive antagonist: D binding leads to DR
inverse: D binding inactivates receptor (DR)

82
Q

characteristics of a receptor antagonist

A
  • usually binds to the active site
  • has affinity for the receptor
  • inhibits the action of the agonist by preventing its binding to the receptor
  • has no effect on the absence of the agonist
  • can bind reversibly or irreversibly with the active site
83
Q

what are competitive receptor antagonists

A
  • bind reversibly to active site
  • do not stabilize receptor in active conformation
  • increases the Kd for the agonist (decreases its potency) - causes agonist ED50 to be shifted right
  • does not affect efficacy (Emax)
84
Q

what are non-competitive receptor antagonists

A
  • bind irreversibly to the active site covalently or with very high affinity
  • irreversible binding cannot be outcompeted by the agonist
  • depress the efficacy (Emax)
  • some produce a decrease in potency (right shift)
85
Q

what are the 2 types of non-receptor antagonists

A

chemical and physiologic

86
Q

chemical antagonists

A
  • inactivates the agonist by modifying or sequestering it
  • e.g. treating an acidic protein with a basic molecule (neutralizes it)
87
Q

physiologic antagonists

A
  • 2 drugs the bind different receptors and produce opposite effects
  • e.g. a drug that raises BP and one that lowers BP
88
Q

what are allosteric modulators

A
  • molecules that act indirectly to influence the effects of an agonist at its receptor
  • bind to sites distinct from the agonist (allosteric site)
  • binding alters Kd for agonist and alters the conformational change needed for receptor activation
89
Q

positive allosteric modulators

A

enhance agonist effects - make them more potent - shift left

90
Q

negative allosteric modulators

A

act similarly to non-competitive antagonists

91
Q

the concept of spare receptors in DR binding

A
  • its possible to achieve maximal effects with less than 100% receptor occupancy
  • where EC50 value is less than Kd
  • possibly because receptor remains active after non-agonist departs - allowing one agonist to activate many receptors