Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

bioavailability

A

the concentration of bioactive drug in the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

pharmacokinetics (ADME-T)

A

what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

‘what the drug does to the body’

the relationship between drug concentration at the site of action and the intensity/duration of the effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

main drug targets

A
  • voltage/ligand ion channels
  • enzymes
  • transporters
  • receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

drug targets at the synapse

A
  • voltage gated calcium channels
  • precursor transport channels
  • synthesis enzymes
  • vesicular transporters
  • postsynaptic receptors (metabotropic/ionotropic)
  • presynaptic regulatory receptors
  • degradation enzymes
  • reuptake channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

GPCRs

A

proteins composed of 7 transmembrane domains, with an extracellular N terminus and intracellular C terminus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

G proteins

A

heterotrimeric proteins (aby) that change conformation upon receptor activation to dissociate into an alpha subunit and a beta-gamma dimer which can both exert effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Affinity

A

the ability of a drug to bind to a receptor

defined by Kd: the concentration of a drug required to occupy 50% of receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

potency

A

a measure of the concentration of a drug required to produce an effect

defined by EC50: the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of the maximal response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Efficacy

A

the ability of a drug to produce a response

defined by Emax on a concentration-response curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define agonist & partial agonist, in terms of drug efficacy

A

agonists have 100% efficacy at full receptor occupancy, whereas partial agonists will never reach Emax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fractional occupancy

A

Fo = [A]/(Kd+[A])

describes the percentage of receptors occupied at a given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Kd equation

A

Kd = (k-1)/(k+1)

a function of the dissociation constant (k-1) and the binding constant (k+1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

concentration response curve

A

defines efficacy and potency

Effect = Emax.[A] / (EC50+[A])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

desensitisation of ion channels

A

phosphorylation by GRK facilitates recruitment of beta-arrestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

downregulation of ion channels

A

clathrin-mediated internalisation and subsequent sorting of vesicles for recycling or degradation

16
Q

tolerance

A

the development of a diminishing response to the same dose of drug

17
Q

mechanisms of tolerance

A

pharmacological down regulation of agonist receptors or up-regulation of antagonising receptors

pharmacokinetic altering of metabolism

18
Q

competitive reversible antagonists

A

bind reversibly to orthosteric site, but do not activate the receptor
= affinity but no efficacy

shift the dose-response curve to the left

surmountable, as can be overcome with increasing concentration of agonist

19
Q

examples of competitive reversible antagonists

A

naloxone (opioid antagonist)
haloperidol (dopamine receptor antagonist and antipsychotic)
clozapine (serotonin/dopamine antagonist and an atypical antipsychotic)

20
Q

partial agonists as antagonists

A

partial agonists can prevent the full action of an agonist by occupying receptors to produce decreased efficacy

21
Q

buprenorphine

A

a partial agonist that is used as an antagonist for opioid dependence, as it helps manage withdrawal and prevents effectiveness of full opioid agonists such as heroin

22
Q

irreversible competitive antagonism

A

drug binds covalently to orthosteric site of receptor

flattens dose-response curve

not surmountable, and will reduce the number of receptors available to agonist

23
Q

receptor reserve

A

the idea that some regions have excess receptors, such that the maximum response can be achieved without complete receptor occupancy

eg: the neuromuscular junction has a large amount of receptors, so high concentration of antagonists are needed to diminish response

24
Q

why can irreversible antagonists resemble reversible antagonists

A

due to receptor reserve

25
Q

inverse agonists

A

bind to the orthosteric of the site and decrease the constitutive activity of a receptor
= affinity and negative efficacy

26
Q

allosteric modulators

A

drugs that bind to a site other than the orthosteric site that can modulate affinity or efficacy of endogenous ligands or indirectly (in)activate the receptor

27
Q

advantages of allosteric modulators

A
  • ceiling effect: a progressive inability to shift dose-response curve with increasing concentrations
  • greater selectivity
  • maintain the spatial and temporal nature of endogenous signalling
  • probe dependence: have different responses depending on the agonist
28
Q

ortho-allosteric ligands

A

linking of an allosteric modulator to an orthosteric ligand via an appropriate spacer moiety

allows subtype specificity with orthosteric action