Pharma MT 2 Flashcards
Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action
Droperidol
It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses:
Acepromazine
In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ….. days after being opened for the first time
28
What is GMP?
Good Manufacturing Practice
Sedative Drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics:
Acepromazine
Which animal species is the most sensitive to Xylazine?
Cattle
Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?
Numerical abnormalities
Structural abnormalities
BOTH
Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic
Sevoflurane
It can cause penile prolapse in male swine:
Azeperone
When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic
Ketamine
What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?
Solid
What kind of examination has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination
The injections have to be always:
Sterile
What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?
Water
Alcoholic
BOTH
Which ointment is not washable with water?
Paraffin ointment
Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses
Medetomidine
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals
Acepromazine
Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?
Propofol
Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?
Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs
Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose:
Tranquilizers
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy
Acepromazine
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
Alpha-2 agonists
This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day:
Methohexital
What is the formation type of Cremor aqueous?
Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization
Thiopental can be administered:
IV
The solid matter content of liquid extraction is:
50%
Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents:
Fluanisone
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?
Mutagenicity
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation:
Thiamilal
The micronucleus test:
Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?
Hard paraffin
Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?
Cocoa butter
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
Chlorpromazine
Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses
Medetomidine
Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM:
Ketamine
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
White vaseline
Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows?
Every 8-12 hours
Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Dissolves at body temp
It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal
Chlorpromazine
Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?
Field trial
Which statement is not true?
The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on:
2 animal species
What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?
Determination of mechanism
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can…?
Naloxone
Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action
Acepromazine
What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?
Aqueous suspension
This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments:
Hydrophillic ointment
Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
Azeperone
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
Alpha 2 agonists
Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?
Muscle relaxant activity
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation…(?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?
Part 4
Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose:
Alpha-2-RC-agonists
This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants
Tincture
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
The extravascular administration of the anaesthetic drug causes tissue irritation:
Metomidate
Which ointment is washable with water?
Hydrophilic ointment
What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine:
Butorphenol
Which statement is not true?
Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?
Hydrophilic
Lipophilic
BOTH
Which statement is true?
Phenobarbital has CYP-450 enzyme inductor effect
It’s important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension
Fentanyl
Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited:
Thiopental
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?
Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
ACh; ACh; NE
Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
alpha-2
Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
A. Increased lipid breakdown - beta-3
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction - alpha-1
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure ! beta-1
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - beta-2
What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
Tyrosine
Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:
Dopamine
Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
Norepinephrine
Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?
Postsynaptic sympathetic
Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for a drug action?
NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
NET is a symporter of what ion?
Na+
Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?
NE
Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
Dopamine (DA)
Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?
Liver
Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
Beta-2 (Gs)
Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
Alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
beta-1 (Gs)
Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenyl cyclase?
beta and alpha-2
What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?
alpha-1
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?
promoting release of norepinephrine
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
Inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine
Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?
Non-polar
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
Isoproterenol - beta
Dobutamine - beta-1 Norepinepherine ! alpha and beta Dopamine - delta-1 and delta-2 Epinepherine - alpha and beta
The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?
Ethyl amine
Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
A. Clonidine - alpha-2-agonist
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine - beta-2-agonist
C. Phenylephrine - alpha-1-agonist
Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?
Pseudoephedrine
Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?
Isoproterenol
Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
Epinephrine
Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?
Phenylephrine
Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist?
Epinephrine
At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?
Inhibits NE release
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?
beta-2-agonist
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?
beta-1-agonist
Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist?
Phenylepherine
Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
K+
Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?
alpha-1
Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being coupled with G-proteins?
Phosphorylation
Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?
Phenylepherine
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
alpha-blocker
Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?
Hypotension
Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body?
Metoprolol
Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?
Carvedilol
Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?
Propranolol
Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a alpha-1-agonist drug?
Hypertension
Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
alpha-2-agonist
Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?
alpha-2-agonist
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists?
beta-1-agonist
If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?
Orthostatic hypotension
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?
Reflex tachycardia
Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?
Increased arrhythmias
Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?
Sudden death
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?
Asthmatics
Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
beta-2-blocker
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
Mitochondria
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
Blood plasma
What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
ACh decreased
ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?
H+
Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
Ca++
Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____subtype.
Neuronal; Muscular
Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?
Hallucinations
Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?
Gq
Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.
Gi
The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:
Muscarine agonists
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Bronchi dilation and decreases bronchiole secretions
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
For urinary retention
What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure
Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
Mydriasis
What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
Muscarinic antagonists
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)?
Atropine
What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
Blurred vision
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?
Wet as a towel
Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
Scopolamine
Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest).
Atropine; Tropicamide
Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?
Ester
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?
Physostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?
Neostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?
Donepezil
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
Physostigmine
Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?
Tacrine
By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?
Phosphorylation
A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?
6 minutes
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States?
Mecamylamine
Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
Hypertension
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine
Succinylcholine
How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?
Bradycardia
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
alpha-blocker
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
In cats it is a useful emetic drug:
Xylazine
Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females
Acepromazine
Only effective according to IV application
Propofol
Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration?
Ketamine
In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics
Diazepam
Contraindicated in epileptic patients:
Acepromazine
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well
Butorphanol
Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?
Flumazenil
“Slower to act” transmitters in CNS
Enkephalins
Ultra-short acting barbiturates
Thiopental
Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Does dissolve at body temp
How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows?
Every 12 hours
It is a GSH-category?
Highly toxic
What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?
Causes sleeping
Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
Emulsion
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
Chlorpromazine
Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU:
Halothane
Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses:
Acepromazine
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy.
Acepromazine
Gels are dosage form with the following attribute:
Its vehicle is gels of other origins
Duration of action of thiopental:
5-10 minutes
Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis).
Diazepam
Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals.
Acepromazine
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?
Flumazenil
Duration of action of propofol:
5-8 minutes
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?
2 years
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties
Butorphanol
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?
Rabbit
Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates:
Respiratory depression
Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus:
Rectal
Effect characteristics for medetomidine:
Muscle relaxant activity
Not allowed for food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be ……. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension
Medetomidine
This phase of drug research procedures does not fall into the “preclinical” examination category
Pharmacovigiliance
Its microemulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contaimination
Propofol
Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?
Gluthathione-S-transferase
The most potent glucocorticoid of these four is:
Flumethason
The pain inducing source of Sigmund test?
1% acetic acid
…… treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye:
Natamycin
Which drug has anti-progesterone effect?
Aglepristone
Correct dosage for Butorphanol for dogs:
0.1-0.4 mg/b.w kg IV,IM
Dosages of Ketamine in cats
20 mg/b.w kg IM
Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin
Diazepam
An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose
It can be administered for the control of heart and voluntary muscle degeneration
Vit E
When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal
Ketamine
This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats
Diphenoxilate
Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants
Bentonite
Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced neuroprotective action:
Vitamin B1
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?
Pilocarpine
Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals:
Ivermectin
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible
Diazepam
Intravenous anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression
Etomidate
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers?
They have a sedative effect
This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds
Levamisole
Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?
Promethazine
Which causes neuroleptanalgesia?
Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)
Which is used for sedation of pigs?
Azaperone
What kind of bases can be used for eye ointments?
Soft paraffin
White vaseline
Castor oil
ALL
Which drug accumulates in fat tissue?
Thiopental
Among the listed inhalational anaesthetic drugs this one has the most pronounced excitatory action
Halothane
Which of the following are non-water-soluble vehicles?
Hydrous ointment base
This general anaesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition
Thiamilal
Among these, its larger dose does not cause cardiovascular depression
Diazepam
If the aim of these stability investigations is to determine the expiry time of the drug product, what are the appropriate conditions?
25degrees
60% RH
0-12, 24 or 36 months
Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect?
Tiethylperazine
Which of the following has the longest duration of action? Thiopental Methohexital Ketamine Propofol
Ketamine
Which statement is true?
Chlorpromazine can cause severe tissue irritation of given intramuscular
Which alpha-2-agonist is useful in horses?
Detomidine
Xylazine
BOTH
Less soluble fine powder active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle
Tincture
Which drug has pronounced analgesic effect? Propofol Ketamine Pentobarbital Etomidate
Ketamine
If the aim of these investigations is stability of the drug product in medicated drinking water, what are the appropriate conditions?
Room temp: 0-24 hours
Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anaesthesia?
Preoperative antiinflammatory action
The optimal pH value of injections is…
pH 5-7
The phenothiazines increase the prolactin secretion and the danger of epileptic seizures
TRUE
Propionilpromazine and acepromazine cause less frequently allergic and paradoz reactions than the chlorpromazine
TRUE
Physostigmine is a direct acting parasympathomimetic drug which directly stimulates the muscarinic receptors
FALSE
In case of barbiturate over-dosage the admin of central analeptics is always necessary
TRUE
Ketamine is a strong analgesic, appropriate anaesthetic and does not cause hypotension and myorelaxation in deep anaesthesia
TRUE
2 inhalational anaesthetics , designated A and B have blood/gas partition coefficients of 12.4 and 2.3 respectively. Which drug produces faster induction of anaesthetics?
Fast: B
Slow: A
Halothane increases the sensitivity of the heart against catecholamines
TRUE
Charbachol increases the motility of the gut and myometrium, constricts the bronchi, decreases the glandular secretion but may cause hypotension
FALSE
Which is characteristic for Thiopental?
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in the eye?
Pilocarpine
Not allowed for food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be…
Cause transient hypertension. then bradycardia and hypotension
Medetomidine
Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?
Promethazine
Which causes neuroleptanalgesia
Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)
Sterility is important in:
eyedrops, eye ointment, injections
Burrow soln:
Water in oil W/O
Local testing is done in what species?
Rabbit, is very sensitive to local irritation
What drug is contraindicated in Glaucoma?
Atropine
What drug has a pronounced inotropic effect?
Pimobendan, Digitalis-glycosides
What combination has least respiratory depression?
Droperidol and Fentanyl
Which part of drug development is not preclinical?
Fields trials
Pharmacovigilance
Hepatotoxic vitamin overdose?
Vit D
Distribution coefficient in 2 compartment model?
Alpha
Oily zinc suspension is a?
Oily suspension
Which drug has similar but better properties than xylazine?
Medetomidine
Vitamin given to animal in stress?
Vit C
Antidotes:
Atipamezol (alpha-1 agonists)
Flamazenile and Sarmazenile (benzodiazepines)
The preclinical phase consists of:
Pharmacological investment Toxicity studies User safety Target animal studies Toxicity test
Best drug for long term epilepsy?
Phenobarbital
What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?
Promethazine (good anti-hist)
Drug with pronounced hepatotoxic effect?
Halothane
Which statement is not true?
Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high doses
Injections that can be supplied IV?
Microsuspensions
This morphine derivate has good oral bioavailability, hence it is suitable for oral admin in small
Tramadole
H1-receptor antagonist, can increase the appetite
Cyproheptadine
This drug may cause excitatory effects in cats, hence it is used in combo in these species
Morphine
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other 3 substances
Cetirizine
Contraindicated in Felidae
Paracetemol
This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats
Tramadole
Selective COX-2 inhibitor
Firocoxib
H1-receptor antagonist, can decrease CRH, ACTH synthesis
Tiethylperazine
