Pharma MT 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action
A
Droperidol
2
Q
It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses:
A
Acepromazine
3
Q
In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ….. days after being opened for the first time
A
28
4
Q
What is GMP?
A
Good Manufacturing Practice
5
Q
Sedative Drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics:
A
Acepromazine
6
Q
Which animal species is the most sensitive to Xylazine?
A
Cattle
7
Q
Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?
A
Numerical abnormalities
Structural abnormalities
BOTH
8
Q
Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
A
Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
9
Q
Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic
A
Sevoflurane
10
Q
It can cause penile prolapse in male swine:
A
Azeperone
11
Q
When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic
A
Ketamine
12
Q
What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?
A
Solid
13
Q
What kind of examination has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
A
Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination
14
Q
The injections have to be always:
A
Sterile
15
Q
What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?
A
Water
Alcoholic
BOTH
16
Q
Which ointment is not washable with water?
A
Paraffin ointment
17
Q
Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses
A
Medetomidine
18
Q
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals
A
Acepromazine
19
Q
Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?
A
Propofol
20
Q
Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?
A
Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs
21
Q
Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose:
A
Tranquilizers
22
Q
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy
A
Acepromazine
23
Q
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
A
Alpha-2 agonists
24
Q
This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day:
A
Methohexital
25
What is the formation type of Cremor aqueous?
Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
26
Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization
27
Thiopental can be administered:
IV
28
The solid matter content of liquid extraction is:
50%
29
Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents:
Fluanisone
30
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?
Mutagenicity
31
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation:
Thiamilal
32
The micronucleus test:
Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
33
Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?
Hard paraffin
34
Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?
Cocoa butter
35
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
Chlorpromazine
36
Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses
Medetomidine
37
Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM:
Ketamine
38
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
White vaseline
39
Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows?
Every 8-12 hours
40
Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Dissolves at body temp
41
It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal
Chlorpromazine
42
Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?
Field trial
43
Which statement is not true?
The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
44
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on:
2 animal species
45
What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?
Determination of mechanism
46
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can...?
Naloxone
47
Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action
Acepromazine
48
What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?
Aqueous suspension
49
This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments:
Hydrophillic ointment
50
Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
Azeperone
51
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
Alpha 2 agonists
52
Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?
Muscle relaxant activity
53
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation...(?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?
Part 4
54
Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose:
Alpha-2-RC-agonists
55
This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants
Tincture
56
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
57
The extravascular administration of the anaesthetic drug causes tissue irritation:
Metomidate
58
Which ointment is washable with water?
Hydrophilic ointment
59
What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
60
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine:
Butorphenol
61
Which statement is not true?
Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
62
What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?
Hydrophilic
Lipophilic
BOTH
63
Which statement is true?
Phenobarbital has CYP-450 enzyme inductor effect
64
It's important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension
Fentanyl
65
Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited:
Thiopental
66
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?
Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
67
Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
ACh; ACh; NE
68
Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
alpha-2
69
Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
70
Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
A. Increased lipid breakdown - beta-3
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction - alpha-1
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure ! beta-1
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - beta-2
71
What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
Tyrosine
72
Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:
Dopamine
73
Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
Norepinephrine
74
Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?
Postsynaptic sympathetic
75
Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for a drug action?
NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft
76
NET is a symporter of what ion?
Na+
77
Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?
NE
78
Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
Dopamine (DA)
79
Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?
Liver
80
Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?
Beta-2 (Gs)
81
Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
Alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
82
Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?
beta-1 (Gs)
83
Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
84
What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenyl cyclase?
beta and alpha-2
85
What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?
alpha-1
86
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?
promoting release of norepinephrine
87
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
88
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
Inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine
89
Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?
Non-polar
90
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
Isoproterenol - beta
| Dobutamine - beta-1 Norepinepherine ! alpha and beta Dopamine - delta-1 and delta-2 Epinepherine - alpha and beta
91
The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?
Ethyl amine
92
Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
A. Clonidine - alpha-2-agonist
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine - beta-2-agonist
C. Phenylephrine - alpha-1-agonist
93
Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?
Pseudoephedrine
94
Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?
Isoproterenol
95
Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
Epinephrine
96
Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?
Phenylephrine
97
Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist?
Epinephrine
98
At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?
Inhibits NE release
99
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?
beta-2-agonist
100
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?
beta-1-agonist
101
Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist?
Phenylepherine
102
Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?
K+
103
Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?
alpha-1
104
Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being coupled with G-proteins?
Phosphorylation
105
Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
106
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs?
Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
107
Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?
Phenylepherine
108
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
alpha-blocker
109
Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?
Hypotension
110
Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body?
Metoprolol
111
Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?
Carvedilol
112
Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
113
Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?
Propranolol
114
Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a alpha-1-agonist drug?
Hypertension
115
Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
alpha-2-agonist
116
Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?
alpha-2-agonist
117
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists?
beta-1-agonist
118
If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
119
Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)
Stimulation of NE release
120
Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?
Orthostatic hypotension
121
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?
Reflex tachycardia
122
Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?
Increased arrhythmias
123
Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?
Sudden death
124
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?
Asthmatics
125
Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
beta-2-blocker
126
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
127
Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
Mitochondria
128
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
Blood plasma
129
What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
ACh decreased
130
ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?
H+
131
Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
Ca++
132
Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____subtype.
Neuronal; Muscular
133
Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
134
Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?
Hallucinations
135
Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?
Gq
136
Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.
Gi
137
The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:
Muscarine agonists
138
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Bronchi dilation and decreases bronchiole secretions
139
Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
140
What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
For urinary retention
141
What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure
142
Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
Mydriasis
143
What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
Muscarinic antagonists
144
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)?
Atropine
145
What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
146
Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
Blurred vision
147
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?
Wet as a towel
148
Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)
Scopolamine
149
Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest).
Atropine; Tropicamide
150
Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?
Ester
151
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?
Physostigmine
152
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?
Neostigmine
153
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?
Donepezil
154
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
Physostigmine
155
Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?
Tacrine
156
By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?
Phosphorylation
157
A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
158
Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?
6 minutes
159
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States?
Mecamylamine
160
Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
Hypertension
161
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine
Succinylcholine
162
How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
163
What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?
Bradycardia
164
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
alpha-blocker
165
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
Stimulate NE release
166
In cats it is a useful emetic drug:
Xylazine
167
Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females
Acepromazine
168
Only effective according to IV application
Propofol
169
Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration?
Ketamine
170
In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics
Diazepam
171
Contraindicated in epileptic patients:
Acepromazine
172
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well
Butorphanol
173
Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?
Flumazenil
174
“Slower to act” transmitters in CNS
Enkephalins
175
Ultra-short acting barbiturates
Thiopental
176
Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Does dissolve at body temp
177
How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows?
Every 12 hours
178
It is a GSH-category?
Highly toxic
179
What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?
Causes sleeping
180
Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
Emulsion
181
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:
Chlorpromazine
182
Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
183
Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU:
Halothane
184
Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses:
Acepromazine
185
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy.
Acepromazine
186
Gels are dosage form with the following attribute:
Its vehicle is gels of other origins
187
Duration of action of thiopental:
5-10 minutes
188
Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis).
Diazepam
189
Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals.
Acepromazine
190
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?
Flumazenil
191
Duration of action of propofol:
5-8 minutes
192
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?
2 years
193
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties
Butorphanol
194
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?
Rabbit
195
Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates:
Respiratory depression
196
Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus:
Rectal
197
Effect characteristics for medetomidine:
Muscle relaxant activity
198
Not allowed for food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
199
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be ....... cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension
Medetomidine
200
This phase of drug research procedures does not fall into the "preclinical" examination category
Pharmacovigiliance
201
Its microemulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contaimination
Propofol
202
Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?
Gluthathione-S-transferase
203
The most potent glucocorticoid of these four is:
Flumethason
204
The pain inducing source of Sigmund test?
1% acetic acid
205
...... treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye:
Natamycin
206
Which drug has anti-progesterone effect?
Aglepristone
207
Correct dosage for Butorphanol for dogs:
0.1-0.4 mg/b.w kg IV,IM
208
Dosages of Ketamine in cats
20 mg/b.w kg IM
209
Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin
Diazepam
210
An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose
211
It can be administered for the control of heart and voluntary muscle degeneration
Vit E
212
When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal
Ketamine
213
This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats
Diphenoxilate
214
Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants
Bentonite
215
Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced neuroprotective action:
Vitamin B1
216
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
217
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?
Pilocarpine
218
Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals:
Ivermectin
219
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible
Diazepam
220
Intravenous anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression
Etomidate
221
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers?
They have a sedative effect
222
This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds
Levamisole
223
Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?
Promethazine
224
Which causes neuroleptanalgesia?
Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)
225
Which is used for sedation of pigs?
Azaperone
226
What kind of bases can be used for eye ointments?
Soft paraffin
White vaseline
Castor oil
ALL
227
Which drug accumulates in fat tissue?
Thiopental
228
Among the listed inhalational anaesthetic drugs this one has the most pronounced excitatory action
Halothane
229
Which of the following are non-water-soluble vehicles?
Hydrous ointment base
230
This general anaesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition
Thiamilal
231
Among these, its larger dose does not cause cardiovascular depression
Diazepam
232
If the aim of these stability investigations is to determine the expiry time of the drug product, what are the appropriate conditions?
25degrees
60% RH
0-12, 24 or 36 months
233
Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect?
Tiethylperazine
234
```
Which of the following has the longest duration of action?
Thiopental
Methohexital
Ketamine
Propofol
```
Ketamine
235
Which statement is true?
Chlorpromazine can cause severe tissue irritation of given intramuscular
236
Which alpha-2-agonist is useful in horses?
Detomidine
Xylazine
BOTH
237
Less soluble fine powder active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle
Tincture
238
```
Which drug has pronounced analgesic effect?
Propofol
Ketamine
Pentobarbital
Etomidate
```
Ketamine
239
If the aim of these investigations is stability of the drug product in medicated drinking water, what are the appropriate conditions?
Room temp: 0-24 hours
240
Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anaesthesia?
Preoperative antiinflammatory action
241
The optimal pH value of injections is...
pH 5-7
242
The phenothiazines increase the prolactin secretion and the danger of epileptic seizures
TRUE
243
Propionilpromazine and acepromazine cause less frequently allergic and paradoz reactions than the chlorpromazine
TRUE
244
Physostigmine is a direct acting parasympathomimetic drug which directly stimulates the muscarinic receptors
FALSE
245
In case of barbiturate over-dosage the admin of central analeptics is always necessary
TRUE
246
Ketamine is a strong analgesic, appropriate anaesthetic and does not cause hypotension and myorelaxation in deep anaesthesia
TRUE
247
2 inhalational anaesthetics , designated A and B have blood/gas partition coefficients of 12.4 and 2.3 respectively. Which drug produces faster induction of anaesthetics?
Fast: B
Slow: A
248
Halothane increases the sensitivity of the heart against catecholamines
TRUE
249
Charbachol increases the motility of the gut and myometrium, constricts the bronchi, decreases the glandular secretion but may cause hypotension
FALSE
250
Which is characteristic for Thiopental?
It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
251
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in the eye?
Pilocarpine
252
Not allowed for food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
253
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be...
Cause transient hypertension. then bradycardia and hypotension
Medetomidine
254
Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?
Promethazine
255
Which causes neuroleptanalgesia
Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)
256
Sterility is important in:
eyedrops, eye ointment, injections
257
Burrow soln:
Water in oil W/O
258
Local testing is done in what species?
Rabbit, is very sensitive to local irritation
259
What drug is contraindicated in Glaucoma?
Atropine
260
What drug has a pronounced inotropic effect?
Pimobendan, Digitalis-glycosides
261
What combination has least respiratory depression?
Droperidol and Fentanyl
262
Which part of drug development is not preclinical?
Fields trials
| Pharmacovigilance
263
Hepatotoxic vitamin overdose?
Vit D
264
Distribution coefficient in 2 compartment model?
Alpha
265
Oily zinc suspension is a?
Oily suspension
266
Which drug has similar but better properties than xylazine?
Medetomidine
267
Vitamin given to animal in stress?
Vit C
268
Antidotes:
Atipamezol (alpha-1 agonists)
| Flamazenile and Sarmazenile (benzodiazepines)
269
The preclinical phase consists of:
```
Pharmacological investment
Toxicity studies
User safety
Target animal studies
Toxicity test
```
270
Best drug for long term epilepsy?
Phenobarbital
271
What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?
Promethazine (good anti-hist)
272
Drug with pronounced hepatotoxic effect?
Halothane
273
Which statement is not true?
Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high doses
274
Injections that can be supplied IV?
Microsuspensions
275
This morphine derivate has good oral bioavailability, hence it is suitable for oral admin in small
Tramadole
276
H1-receptor antagonist, can increase the appetite
Cyproheptadine
277
This drug may cause excitatory effects in cats, hence it is used in combo in these species
Morphine
278
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other 3 substances
Cetirizine
279
Contraindicated in Felidae
Paracetemol
280
This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats
Tramadole
281
Selective COX-2 inhibitor
Firocoxib
282
H1-receptor antagonist, can decrease CRH, ACTH synthesis
Tiethylperazine
