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Pharma MT 1 > Pharma MT 2 > Flashcards

Pharma MT 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action

A

Droperidol

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2
Q

It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses:

A

Acepromazine

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3
Q

In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ….. days after being opened for the first time

A

28

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4
Q

What is GMP?

A

Good Manufacturing Practice

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5
Q

Sedative Drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics:

A

Acepromazine

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6
Q

Which animal species is the most sensitive to Xylazine?

A

Cattle

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7
Q

Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes?

A

Numerical abnormalities
Structural abnormalities
BOTH

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8
Q

Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?

A

Human and veterinary clinical drug examination

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9
Q

Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic

A

Sevoflurane

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10
Q

It can cause penile prolapse in male swine:

A

Azeperone

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11
Q

When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic

A

Ketamine

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12
Q

What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension?

A

Solid

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13
Q

What kind of examination has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?

A

Preclinical examinations: toxicology, kinetics and residual drug examination

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14
Q

The injections have to be always:

A

Sterile

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15
Q

What is the extracting agent to prepare exact?

A

Water
Alcoholic
BOTH

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16
Q

Which ointment is not washable with water?

A

Paraffin ointment

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17
Q

Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses

A

Medetomidine

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18
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals

A

Acepromazine

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19
Q

Which drug causes cardiovascular depression?

A

Propofol

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20
Q

Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination?

A

Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs

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21
Q

Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose:

A

Tranquilizers

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22
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy

A

Acepromazine

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23
Q

Which drug group has analgesic effect?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

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24
Q

This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day:

A

Methohexital

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25
Q

What is the formation type of Cremor aqueous?

A

Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream

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26
Q

Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?

A

Following of the unwanted side effect after authorization

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27
Q

Thiopental can be administered:

A

IV

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28
Q

The solid matter content of liquid extraction is:

A

50%

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29
Q

Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents:

A

Fluanisone

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30
Q

Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test?

A

Mutagenicity

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31
Q

The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation:

A

Thiamilal

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32
Q

The micronucleus test:

A

Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity

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33
Q

Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons?

A

Hard paraffin

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34
Q

Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base?

A

Cocoa butter

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35
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:

A

Chlorpromazine

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36
Q

Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses

A

Medetomidine

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37
Q

Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM:

A

Ketamine

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38
Q

Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?

A

White vaseline

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39
Q

Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows?

A

Every 8-12 hours

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40
Q

Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A

Dissolves at body temp

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41
Q

It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal

A

Chlorpromazine

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42
Q

Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase?

A

Field trial

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43
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections

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44
Q

The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on:

A

2 animal species

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45
Q

What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research?

A

Determination of mechanism

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46
Q

In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can…?

A

Naloxone

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47
Q

Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action

A

Acepromazine

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48
Q

What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini?

A

Aqueous suspension

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49
Q

This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments:

A

Hydrophillic ointment

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50
Q

Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction:

A

Azeperone

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51
Q

Which drug group has analgesic effect?

A

Alpha 2 agonists

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52
Q

Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?

A

Muscle relaxant activity

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53
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation…(?) the data of clinical trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?

A

Part 4

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54
Q

Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose:

A

Alpha-2-RC-agonists

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55
Q

This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants

A

Tincture

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56
Q

Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?

A

Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey

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57
Q

The extravascular administration of the anaesthetic drug causes tissue irritation:

A

Metomidate

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58
Q

Which ointment is washable with water?

A

Hydrophilic ointment

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59
Q

What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?

A

Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration

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60
Q

Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine:

A

Butorphenol

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61
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose

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62
Q

What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?

A

Hydrophilic
Lipophilic
BOTH

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63
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Phenobarbital has CYP-450 enzyme inductor effect

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64
Q

It’s important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension

A

Fentanyl

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65
Q

Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited:

A

Thiopental

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66
Q

The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which of the following?

A

Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system

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67
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).

A

ACh; ACh; NE

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68
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?

A

alpha-2

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69
Q

Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?

A

Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi

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70
Q

Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:

A

A. Increased lipid breakdown - beta-3
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction - alpha-1
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure ! beta-1
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - beta-2

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71
Q

What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?

A

Tyrosine

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72
Q

Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:

A

Dopamine

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73
Q

Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?

A

Norepinephrine

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74
Q

Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?

A

Postsynaptic sympathetic

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75
Q

Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for a drug action?

A

NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

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76
Q

NET is a symporter of what ion?

A

Na+

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77
Q

Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?

A

NE

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78
Q

Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?

A

Dopamine (DA)

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79
Q

Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) primarily found?

A

Liver

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80
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?

A

Beta-2 (Gs)

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81
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?

A

Alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)

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82
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy (contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal juxtaglomerular cells?

A

beta-1 (Gs)

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83
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells, decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?

A

alpha-2 (Gi/Go)

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84
Q

What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenyl cyclase?

A

beta and alpha-2

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85
Q

What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?

A

alpha-1

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86
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine, amphetamine, and tyramine?

A

promoting release of norepinephrine

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87
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?

A

Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

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88
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?

A

Inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine

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89
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?

A

Non-polar

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90
Q

Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):

A

Isoproterenol - beta

Dobutamine - beta-1 Norepinepherine ! alpha and beta Dopamine - delta-1 and delta-2 Epinepherine - alpha and beta

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91
Q

The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of amines?

A

Ethyl amine

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92
Q

Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:

A

A. Clonidine - alpha-2-agonist
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine - beta-2-agonist
C. Phenylephrine - alpha-1-agonist

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93
Q

Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray, ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?

A

Pseudoephedrine

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94
Q

Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nasal pack soaked in drug)?

A

Isoproterenol

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95
Q

Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?

A

Epinephrine

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96
Q

Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis (dilation of iris)?

A

Phenylephrine

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97
Q

Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist?

A

Epinephrine

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98
Q

At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?

A

Inhibits NE release

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99
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?

A

beta-2-agonist

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100
Q

Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or heart failure?

A

beta-1-agonist

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101
Q

Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist?

A

Phenylepherine

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102
Q

Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in plasma concentration of that ion?

A

K+

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103
Q

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses (treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?

A

alpha-1

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104
Q

Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being coupled with G-proteins?

A

Phosphorylation

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105
Q

Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

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106
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the action of TCAs?

A

Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

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107
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?

A

Phenylepherine

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108
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

alpha-blocker

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109
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?

A

Hypotension

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110
Q

Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body?

A

Metoprolol

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111
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?

A

Carvedilol

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112
Q

Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

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113
Q

Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?

A

Propranolol

114
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a alpha-1-agonist drug?

A

Hypertension

115
Q

Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?

A

alpha-2-agonist

116
Q

Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?

A

alpha-2-agonist

117
Q

Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the following agonists?

A

beta-1-agonist

118
Q

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)

A

Stimulation of NE release

119
Q

Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)

A

Stimulation of NE release

120
Q

Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

121
Q

Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?

A

Reflex tachycardia

122
Q

Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?

A

Increased arrhythmias

123
Q

Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden termination of b1-blockers?

A

Sudden death

124
Q

Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?

A

Asthmatics

125
Q

Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia, which is indicative of hypoglycemia?

A

beta-2-blocker

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

127
Q

Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?

A

Mitochondria

128
Q

Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?

A

Blood plasma

129
Q

What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?

A

ACh decreased

130
Q

ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?

A

H+

131
Q

Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?

A

Ca++

132
Q

Nicotinic N2 receptors are the ____ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the ____subtype.

A

Neuronal; Muscular

133
Q

Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?

A

Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist

134
Q

Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with which side effect?

A

Hallucinations

135
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?

A

Gq

136
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2, decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.

A

Gi

137
Q

The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:

A

Muscarine agonists

138
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Bronchi dilation and decreases bronchiole secretions

139
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?

A

Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity

140
Q

What is bethanechol most commonly used for?

A

For urinary retention

141
Q

What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?

A

Decreasing intraocular pressure

142
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?

A

Mydriasis

143
Q

What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

144
Q

What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)?

A

Atropine

145
Q

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?

A

Mydriasis and cycloplegia

146
Q

Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?

A

Blurred vision

147
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?

A

Wet as a towel

148
Q

Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or transdermal patch)

A

Scopolamine

149
Q

Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest).

A

Atropine; Tropicamide

150
Q

Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?

A

Ester

151
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?

A

Physostigmine

152
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?

A

Neostigmine

153
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?

A

Donepezil

154
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

A

Physostigmine

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?

A

Tacrine

156
Q

By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?

A

Phosphorylation

157
Q

A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?

A

Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

158
Q

Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?

A

6 minutes

159
Q

What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States?

A

Mecamylamine

160
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?

A

Hypertension

161
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine

A

Succinylcholine

162
Q

How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?

A

Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic ACh receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane

163
Q

What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?

A

Bradycardia

164
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A

alpha-blocker

165
Q

Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A

Stimulate NE release

166
Q

In cats it is a useful emetic drug:

A

Xylazine

167
Q

Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females

A

Acepromazine

168
Q

Only effective according to IV application

A

Propofol

169
Q

Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration?

A

Ketamine

170
Q

In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics

A

Diazepam

171
Q

Contraindicated in epileptic patients:

A

Acepromazine

172
Q

In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well

A

Butorphanol

173
Q

Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?

A

Flumazenil

174
Q

“Slower to act” transmitters in CNS

A

Enkephalins

175
Q

Ultra-short acting barbiturates

A

Thiopental

176
Q

Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A

Does dissolve at body temp

177
Q

How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows?

A

Every 12 hours

178
Q

It is a GSH-category?

A

Highly toxic

179
Q

What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?

A

Causes sleeping

180
Q

Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:

A

Emulsion

181
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:

A

Chlorpromazine

182
Q

Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:

A

Repeated-dose toxicity studies

183
Q

Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU:

A

Halothane

184
Q

Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses:

A

Acepromazine

185
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy.

A

Acepromazine

186
Q

Gels are dosage form with the following attribute:

A

Its vehicle is gels of other origins

187
Q

Duration of action of thiopental:

A

5-10 minutes

188
Q

Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis).

A

Diazepam

189
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals.

A

Acepromazine

190
Q

Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?

A

Flumazenil

191
Q

Duration of action of propofol:

A

5-8 minutes

192
Q

How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?

A

2 years

193
Q

A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties

A

Butorphanol

194
Q

In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?

A

Rabbit

195
Q

Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates:

A

Respiratory depression

196
Q

Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus:

A

Rectal

197
Q

Effect characteristics for medetomidine:

A

Muscle relaxant activity

198
Q

Not allowed for food producing animals

A

Chloramphenicol

199
Q

The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be ……. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension

A

Medetomidine

200
Q

This phase of drug research procedures does not fall into the “preclinical” examination category

A

Pharmacovigiliance

201
Q

Its microemulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contaimination

A

Propofol

202
Q

Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?

A

Gluthathione-S-transferase

203
Q

The most potent glucocorticoid of these four is:

A

Flumethason

204
Q

The pain inducing source of Sigmund test?

A

1% acetic acid

205
Q

…… treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye:

A

Natamycin

206
Q

Which drug has anti-progesterone effect?

A

Aglepristone

207
Q

Correct dosage for Butorphanol for dogs:

A

0.1-0.4 mg/b.w kg IV,IM

208
Q

Dosages of Ketamine in cats

A

20 mg/b.w kg IM

209
Q

Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin

A

Diazepam

210
Q

An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

211
Q

It can be administered for the control of heart and voluntary muscle degeneration

A

Vit E

212
Q

When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal

A

Ketamine

213
Q

This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats

A

Diphenoxilate

214
Q

Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants

A

Bentonite

215
Q

Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced neuroprotective action:

A

Vitamin B1

216
Q

Which is characteristic to thiopental?

A

It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time

217
Q

In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?

A

Pilocarpine

218
Q

Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals:

A

Ivermectin

219
Q

Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible

A

Diazepam

220
Q

Intravenous anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression

A

Etomidate

221
Q

Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers?

A

They have a sedative effect

222
Q

This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds

A

Levamisole

223
Q

Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?

A

Promethazine

224
Q

Which causes neuroleptanalgesia?

A

Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)

225
Q

Which is used for sedation of pigs?

A

Azaperone

226
Q

What kind of bases can be used for eye ointments?

A

Soft paraffin
White vaseline
Castor oil
ALL

227
Q

Which drug accumulates in fat tissue?

A

Thiopental

228
Q

Among the listed inhalational anaesthetic drugs this one has the most pronounced excitatory action

A

Halothane

229
Q

Which of the following are non-water-soluble vehicles?

A

Hydrous ointment base

230
Q

This general anaesthetic drug can cause pronounced dose dependent and reversible respiratory inhibition

A

Thiamilal

231
Q

Among these, its larger dose does not cause cardiovascular depression

A

Diazepam

232
Q

If the aim of these stability investigations is to determine the expiry time of the drug product, what are the appropriate conditions?

A

25degrees
60% RH
0-12, 24 or 36 months

233
Q

Which phenothiazine has pronounced antiemetic effect?

A

Tiethylperazine

234
Q 
Which of the following has the longest duration of action?
Thiopental
Methohexital
Ketamine 
Propofol
A

Ketamine

235
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Chlorpromazine can cause severe tissue irritation of given intramuscular

236
Q

Which alpha-2-agonist is useful in horses?

A

Detomidine
Xylazine
BOTH

237
Q

Less soluble fine powder active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle

A

Tincture

238
Q 
Which drug has pronounced analgesic effect?
Propofol
Ketamine
Pentobarbital 
Etomidate
A

Ketamine

239
Q

If the aim of these investigations is stability of the drug product in medicated drinking water, what are the appropriate conditions?

A

Room temp: 0-24 hours

240
Q

Which of the following is not a prerequisite of anaesthesia?

A

Preoperative antiinflammatory action

241
Q

The optimal pH value of injections is…

A

pH 5-7

242
Q

The phenothiazines increase the prolactin secretion and the danger of epileptic seizures

A

TRUE

243
Q

Propionilpromazine and acepromazine cause less frequently allergic and paradoz reactions than the chlorpromazine

A

TRUE

244
Q

Physostigmine is a direct acting parasympathomimetic drug which directly stimulates the muscarinic receptors

A

FALSE

245
Q

In case of barbiturate over-dosage the admin of central analeptics is always necessary

A

TRUE

246
Q

Ketamine is a strong analgesic, appropriate anaesthetic and does not cause hypotension and myorelaxation in deep anaesthesia

A

TRUE

247
Q

2 inhalational anaesthetics , designated A and B have blood/gas partition coefficients of 12.4 and 2.3 respectively. Which drug produces faster induction of anaesthetics?

A

Fast: B
Slow: A

248
Q

Halothane increases the sensitivity of the heart against catecholamines

A

TRUE

249
Q

Charbachol increases the motility of the gut and myometrium, constricts the bronchi, decreases the glandular secretion but may cause hypotension

A

FALSE

250
Q

Which is characteristic for Thiopental?

A

It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time

251
Q

In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in the eye?

A

Pilocarpine

252
Q

Not allowed for food producing animals

A

Chloramphenicol

253
Q

The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be…
Cause transient hypertension. then bradycardia and hypotension

A

Medetomidine

254
Q

Which phenothiazine causes pronounced antihistamine activity?

A

Promethazine

255
Q

Which causes neuroleptanalgesia

A

Fluanison (a type of Butyrophenone)

256
Q

Sterility is important in:

A

eyedrops, eye ointment, injections

257
Q

Burrow soln:

A

Water in oil W/O

258
Q

Local testing is done in what species?

A

Rabbit, is very sensitive to local irritation

259
Q

What drug is contraindicated in Glaucoma?

A

Atropine

260
Q

What drug has a pronounced inotropic effect?

A

Pimobendan, Digitalis-glycosides

261
Q

What combination has least respiratory depression?

A

Droperidol and Fentanyl

262
Q

Which part of drug development is not preclinical?

A

Fields trials

Pharmacovigilance

263
Q

Hepatotoxic vitamin overdose?

A

Vit D

264
Q

Distribution coefficient in 2 compartment model?

A

Alpha

265
Q

Oily zinc suspension is a?

A

Oily suspension

266
Q

Which drug has similar but better properties than xylazine?

A

Medetomidine

267
Q

Vitamin given to animal in stress?

A

Vit C

268
Q

Antidotes:

A

Atipamezol (alpha-1 agonists)

Flamazenile and Sarmazenile (benzodiazepines)

269
Q

The preclinical phase consists of:

A 
Pharmacological investment 
Toxicity studies
User safety
Target animal studies
Toxicity test
270
Q

Best drug for long term epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital

271
Q

What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?

A

Promethazine (good anti-hist)

272
Q

Drug with pronounced hepatotoxic effect?

A

Halothane

273
Q

Which statement is not true?

A

Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high doses

274
Q

Injections that can be supplied IV?

A

Microsuspensions

275
Q

This morphine derivate has good oral bioavailability, hence it is suitable for oral admin in small

A

Tramadole

276
Q

H1-receptor antagonist, can increase the appetite

A

Cyproheptadine

277
Q

This drug may cause excitatory effects in cats, hence it is used in combo in these species

A

Morphine

278
Q

It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other 3 substances

A

Cetirizine

279
Q

Contraindicated in Felidae

A

Paracetemol

280
Q

This drug is NOT preferred for the treatment of cats

A

Tramadole

281
Q

Selective COX-2 inhibitor

A

Firocoxib

282
Q

H1-receptor antagonist, can decrease CRH, ACTH synthesis

A

Tiethylperazine

Pharma MT 1 (2 decks)

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