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Pharmacology > Pharma midterm 2 > Flashcards

Pharma midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, ____ last 7-10 days (longest) and ____ last 6 hours (shortest).

A.  Atropine;  Scopolamine 
B.  Scopolamine;  Homatropine 
C.  Homatropine;  Tropicamide 
D.  Tropicamide;  Atropine 
E.  Atropine;  Tropicamide
A

E. Atropine; Tropicamide

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2
Q

Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)?

A.  Ester 
B.  Ether 
C.  Amine
D.  Alkane 
E.  Alcohol
A

A. Ester

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3
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication?

A.  Neostigmine 
B.  Physostigmine 
C.  Endrophonium 
D.  Donepezil 
E.  Pyridostigmine
A

B. Physostigmine

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4
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia?

A.  Neostigmine 
B.  Physostigmine 
C.  Endrophonium 
D.  Donepezil 
E.  Pyridostigmine
A

A. Neostigmine

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5
Q

Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease?

A.  Neostigmine 
B.  Physostigmine 
C.  Endrophonium 
D.  Donepezil 
E.  Pyridostigmine
A

D. Donepezil

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6
Q

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Endrophonium
D. Pyridostigmine

A

B. Physostigmine

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)?

A.  Tacrine
B.  Echothiophate 
C.  Sarin,  toban,  soman 
D.  Malathion,  parathion 
E.  Isoflurophate
A

Tacrine

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8
Q

By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme?

A.  Hydroxylation 
B.  Hydrolysis 
C.  Phosphorylation 
D.  Peptide 
E.  Methylation
A

C. Phosphorylation

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9
Q

A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?

A. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
B. Parathion and adenosine
C. Scopolamine and tropicamide
D. Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

A

E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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10
Q

Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman?

A.  6  seconds 
B.  6  minutes 
C.  1  hour 
D.  6  hours 
E.  60  hours
A

B. 6 minutes

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11
Q

What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States?

A.  Mecamylamine 
B.  Scopolamine 
C.  Echothiophate 
D.  Pralidoxime 
E.  Parathion
A

A. Mecamylamine

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?

A.  Anhidrosis  and  xerostomia 
B.  Mydriasis 
C.  Tachycardia 
D.  Hypertension 
E.  Cycloplegia
A

D. Hypertension

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13
Q

Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine

A. Succinylcholine
B. Suxamethonium
C. Atracurium
D. Endrophonium

A

A. Succinylcholine

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14
Q

How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?

A. Decreased blood pressure – due to histamine release
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
C. Unusual mechanism
D. Combine reversibly with the esteratic site of the acetylcholineesterase enzyme rendering it inactive for about 30 minutes

A

B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane

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15
Q

What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases?

A.  Tachycardia 
B.  Bradycardia   
C.  Hypokalemia 
D.  Hyperkalemia 
E.  Arrhythmia
A

B. Bradycardia

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16
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?

A. Alpha-agonist
B. Alpha-blocker
C. Beta-agonist
D. Beta-blocker

A

B. Alpha-blocker

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17
Q

Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?

A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release

A

A. Stimulate NE release

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18
Q

In cats it is a useful emetic drug:

A. Xylazine
B. Clonidine
C. Medetomidine
D. Dexmedetomidine

A

A. Xylazine

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19
Q

Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females

A. Acepromazine
B. Detomidine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol

A

A. Acepromazine

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20
Q

Only effective according to IV application

A. Detomidine
B. Acepromazine
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol

A

D. Propofol

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21
Q

Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration?

A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental
D. Metomediate

A

A. Ketamine

22
Q

In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics

A. Sodium valproate
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Sodium bromide

A

B. Diazepam

23
Q

Contraindicated in epileptic patients:

A. Morphine
B. Acepromazine
C. Metohexital
D. Ketamine

A

B. Acepromazine

24
Q

In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well

A. Fentanyl
B. Codeine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol

A

C. Butorphanol

25
Q

Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs?

A. Dexamedetomidin
B. Phenycyclidine
C. Antipamezole
D. Flumazenil

A

D. Flumazenil

26
Q

Slower to act” transmitters in CNS

A. Dopamine
B. Endorphins
C. Enkephalins
D. Serotonine (5-HT)

A

C. Enkephalins

27
Q

Ultra-short acting barbiturates

A. Pentobarbital
B. Thiopental
C. Butobarbital
D. Venobarbital

A

B. Thiopental

28
Q

Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below:

A. O/W emulsion
B. W/O emulsion
C. Oil suspension
D. Real solution

A

?

29
Q

Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?

A. Homogenous
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
C. Cocoa-butter can be used as vehicle base
D. Does not contain solid particles

A

B. Does dissolve on body temperature

30
Q

How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows?

A. Every 3 hours
B. Every 6 hours
C. Every 12 hours
D. Only once

A

C. Every 12 hours

31
Q

It is a GSH-category?

A. Nutagenic
B. Non toxic for fish
C. Unknown mechanism of effect
D. Highly toxic

A

D. Highly toxic

32
Q

What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean?

A. Pain killing effect
B. Causes sleeping
C. Causes hallucinations
D. Causes catalepsy

A

B. Causes sleeping

33
Q

Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:

A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension

A

B. Emulsion

34
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties:

A. Chlorpromazine
B. Promethazine
C. Acepromazine
D. Thiethylperazine

A

A. Chlorpromazine

35
Q

Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:

A. Acute toxicity studies
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
C. Teratogenicity studies
D. Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations

A

B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies

36
Q

Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU:

A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Seuoflurane

A

A. Halothane

37
Q

Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses:

A. Romifidine
B. Detomidine
C. Nidazolam
D. Acepromazine

A

D. Acepromazine

38
Q

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy.

A. Diazepam
B. Acepromazine
C. Xylazine
D. Phenobarbital

A

B. Acepromazine

39
Q

Gels are dosage form with the following attribute:

A. High water content
B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins
C. Only oral application
D. None of these

A

B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins

40
Q

Duration of action of thiopental:

A. 5-10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 10-20 minutes

A

A. 5-10 minutes

41
Q

Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis).

A. Diazepam
B. Ketoprofen
C. Xylazine
D. Acepromazine

A

A. Diazepam

42
Q

Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals.

A. Azepromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Ketamine

A

A. Azepromazine

43
Q

Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?

A. Natoxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Xylometazoline
D. Glycopirrholate

A

B. Flumazenil

44
Q

Duration of action of propofol:

A. 5-8 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

A

A. 5-8 minutes

45
Q

How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies?

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

A

A. 2 years

46
Q

A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties:

A. Xylazine
B. Butorphanol
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol

A

B. Butorphanol

47
Q

In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?

A. Rat
B. Rabbit
C. Beagle
D. Mouse

A

B. Rabbit

48
Q

Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates:

A. Respiratory depression
B. Vomiting
C. Paralysis
D. Blindness

A

A. Respiratory depression

49
Q

Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus:

A. Rectal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular

A

A. Rectal

50
Q

Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary body:

A. Propranolol
B. Nadolol
C. Timolol
D. Metoprolol

A

D. Metoprolol

51
Q

Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT:

A. Tyramine
B. Guanethidine
C. Reserpine
D. Propranolol

A

D. Propranolol

52
Q

Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine?

A. Natoxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Xylometazoline
D. Glycopirrholate

A

D. Glycopirrholate

Pharmacology (1 decks)

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