Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharma MT > Pharma Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Pharma Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

define a central muscle relaxant

A

relative specific depressant action on CNS
(causing decreased motor activity or paralysis of voluntary muscles without loss of consciousness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which CNS inhibitory drug demonstrate the strongest muscle relaxant effect

A

Phenotiazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which CNS inhibitory drug demonstrate the weakest muscle relaxant effect

A

Anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the medical uses of muscle relaxant?

A
  • central myorelaxants can potentiate the effect of anesthetics drugs and combinations
  • used in control of certain spasmodic and painful disorders of skeletal (spinal) muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give the main central muscle relaxant drugs?

A
  • guaiphenesin
  • baclofen
  • Methocarbamol
  • Carisoprodol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the indication for Guaiphenesin ?

A
  • horse, cattle, sheep (with anaesthesia)
  • équine tetanus, strychnine poisoning in dogs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is baclophen mechanism of action ?

A
  • GABAb agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indication of Baclophen?

A
  • spasm of skeletal muscle
  • spinal cord injury and pain caused by injuries
  • use in dogs to treat urinary retention (reduces urethral resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is Carisoprodol used?

A

useful against various types of pain because of its potentiating effect on opioid analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indication for the use of Methocarbamol?

A

muscle inflammation, traumatic muscle spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which ligand bounds to the nicotinic receptor

A

Acetycholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the uses of neuromuscular blocking agents?

A
  • adjuvant in surgical anaesthesia
  • assist in intubation
  • corneal or retinal surgeries to obtain relaxation of extra ocular muscles
  • therapy of spastic disorder
    with an IV or systemic administration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give the main peripheral muscle relaxants?

A
  • Suxamethonium
  • Atracurium
  • Pancuronium
  • Rocuronium
  • Vecuronium
  • Tubocurarine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the undesirable side effects of depolarizing agents (peripheral muscle relaxants)?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • increased intra-ocular and intragastric pressure
  • Anaphylaxis or malignant hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 groups of competitive neuromuscular blocking agents?

A
  • Benzylisoquinoline (metabolised in blood plasma, HA release)
  • Aminosteroid (metabolised in Liver, no HA release)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

d- tubocurarine

A

long acting
HA release
excretion via urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atracurium

A

intermediate acting
safe in liver, kidney patients
not used in vet med

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympahtetic nervous system

A

fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest and digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transmitter for sympathetic nervous system?

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is the M2 muscarinic Ach receptors found, and what is its effect

A

heart
inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are the M1, M3 Ach receptor found and what do they do?

A
  • stomach, glands, bronchial smooth muscle, eye ciliary muscle (excitation)
  • vascular endothelium (inhibition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give an antagonist to Acetylcholine

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give a drug used against spasms

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

effect of parasympathomimetics on the heart

A

negative chronotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

effect of parasympathomimetics on the GI-tract

A

smooth muscle contraction
vomiting, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

effect of parasympathomimetics on the Resp tract

A

bronchoconstriction & increase bronchial secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

effect of parasympathomimetics on the urinary tract

A

bladder contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What Is the difference between direction and indirect parasympathomimetics

A

direct : binds to Ach receptors
indirect: inhibition of Ach-esterase -> Ach degradation is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which parasympathomimetics is not used therapeutically

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which parasympathomimetics is only used locally, applied in uterus in case of metritis , and in glaucoma therapy as eye drops?

A

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which parasympathomimetics is a M-Ach R selective and used for urinary bladder atony?

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which parasympathomimetics are M-Ach R selective?

A

Bethanechol
Methacholine
Mainly in human practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which parasympathomimetics are non-selective M-Ach R?

A

Acetylcholine
Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give a direct parasympathomimetic, what

A

Pilocarpine
Used in ophthalmology :
- glaucoma therapy
- Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give the indirect parasympathomimetics

A

Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which indirect parasympathomimetics has a very small therapeutic index systemically?

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which indirect parasympathomimetics is used as a myasthenia gravis treatment given IV or IM

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which indirect parasympathomimetics is used as a myasthenia gravis treatment given orally

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which indirect parasympathomimetics is an irreversible inhibitor of AchE

A

Organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which indirect parasympathomimetics is a competitive inhibition in neuromuscular junction and has a short effect

A

Edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are Parasympatholytics used in the cardiovascular system

A

to lift cholinergic blockade of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How are Parasympatholytics used for Resp tract

A

for bronchodilator and decrease mucus secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why are Parasympatholytics used as premedication before surgery?

A
  • antagonist bradycardia
  • decrease saliva production
  • decreasing bronchial secretion
  • earlier inhalation anaesthetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How can Parasympatholytics be used for therapy?

A
  • eye treatment (short and long acting)
  • bronchodilation (asthma)
  • antidote in case of toxicoses (organophosphate toxicosis)
  • antidiarrheal (ruminant)
  • antispasmodics (used in colic horses)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which specie is relatively resistant to atropine

A

Rabbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Give the active substances of Parasympatholytics

A
  • atropine (premedication)
  • glycopyrrolate (premedication)
  • homatropine (diagnostic eye exam)
  • tropicamide (diagnostic eye exam)
  • ipratropium (asthma)
  • benzethimid (antidiarrheal)
  • Butyl-scopolamine (antispasmodic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the action of a1 receptor once activated

A

Smooth muscle contraction
Vasoconstriction
Mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the a2 receptor action once activated

A

Inhibition of NA Release
GI relaxation
Inhibition of insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

B1 receptor action

A

Cardiac, positive inotropic and chronotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

B2 receptor action

A

Vasodilatation
Bronchodilatation
Uterus relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

B3 receptor action

A

Lipolysis in fat tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cardiovascular effects of Sympathomimetics

A

+ chronotropic
+ inotropic
Vasodilation (b2 agonist)
Vasconstriction (a1 agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gastrointestinal effect of Sympathomimetics

A

Smooth muscle relaxation
GI Atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Resp effects of Sympathomimetics

A

Bronchodilation
Decrease bronchial secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List the nonselective Sympathomimetics, and the receptors they act on

A
  • adrenaline (b1,2 < a)
  • noradrenaline (b1 and a1)
  • dopamine ( D1 < b1< a1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Give a Selective sympathomimetics for b1

A

Dobutamine, cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Give a Selective sympathomimetics for b receptors

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Give the b2 agonists

A

Clenbuterol
Salbutamole
Terbutaline
Salmeterole
Isoxsuprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens if a b2 agonist is used in higher dosage

A

Acts on b1 receptors, cardiac effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Indication to use b2 agonist

A

Horse RAO
feline asthma
Bronchitis, bronchopneumonia
Tracheal hypoplasia
Tracheal collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Give a Selective sympathomimetics of a1 R

A

Phenylephrine, vasoconstriction
Xylometazoline
Oxymetazoline
Naphazoline
Tetryzoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Give a Selective sympathomimetics of a1 used for urinary bladder sphincter constriction

A

Phenylpropanolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the a2 agonist

A

Sedate hypnotics
- xylasine
- detomidine
- medetomidine
- romifidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Give non selective a-antagonists

A
  • phenoxybenzamine (urethra sphincter relaxation)
  • phentolamine
  • tolazoline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Give a1 antagonist

A

Prazosine
Doxasozine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

a2 antagonist

A

Atipamezole
Yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

B receptor antagonist

A

Propranolol
Timolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

B1 R antagonists

A

Metoprolol
Atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where is cortisole made in the body

A

Adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is cortisol’s effect on the body

A

has a negative effect on Hypothalamus and hypophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the meaning of a glucocorticoid

A

glucose activated cortex steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Main physiological and pathological effect of glucocorticoid

A

stress hormone
diabetogenic
gluconeogenesis increase
muscle atrophy
decreased growth
polyuria/polydipsia
skin thinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids

A

anti inflammatory
antiallergic
immunosuppressive
antishock
neuroprotective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is the glucocorticoid’s receptor

A

intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids

A

inhibits (cytokines) or induces certain genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

For what treatment would glucocorticoids be used in cats and horses?

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which mechanisms do glucocorticoid inhibits?

A

lipoxygenase (asthma)
Cyclooxygenase
Epoxigenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How are glucocorticoids antiinflammatory and immunosuppressive drugs?

A

inhibits PLA2
inhibits expression of IL1-2-6
decrease TNF & IFN synthesis
apoptosis in lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How do glucocorticoid have a neuroprotective effect?

A

NOT FOR BRAIN TRAUMA
counteract lipidperoxidation and enhance microcirculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which drug has for active substance acetate? how long does it act for?

A

Prednisolone, 5-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which drug has for active substance dipropionate? how long does it act for?

A

Betamethasone, 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

List the Glucocorticoids according to their potency

A

cortisol
Prednisolone
Methyprednisolone
Triamcinolone
Betamethasone
Dexamethasone
Beclomethason
Fluticason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Side effects of glucocorticoids

A

HT - hypophysis - adrenal cortex axis inhibition
gastric ulcers
hepatopathy (ALKP increase)
Pancreatitis
Glaucoma
Thinning of skin, delayed wound
Appearing of tumor
Polyphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Why would glucocorticoid be used in a high dosage

A

Only once, IV if
shock
spinal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How could glucocorticoid Be used in an ADT

A

Using Prednisolone, methylprednisolone
every other day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How could glucocorticoid Be used in an ADT

A

Using Prednisolone, methylprednisolone
every other day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which pathway do NSAIDs inhibit

A

Cylcooxigenase (COX)
PGF, PGE, PGI, TX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what’s the main physiological role of PGE, TXA

A

Stomach: intestine protection
decrease acid secretion
Blood clotting
Kidney : increased blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the most important side effects of NSAIDs

A

renal toxicity
intestinal ulceration and ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

where can we find COX1 isoenzyme

A

stomach, kidney, platelets
(constitutive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Where can we find COX2 isoenzyme

A

Macrophages
(Induced by inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What other name is there for acetaminophen?

A

Paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the main effect of paracetamol and metamizole

A

analgesic
antipyretic
NO ANTI INFLAMMATORY EFFECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Ketoprofen and aspirin are also known as

A

Traditional NSAID drug
(mainly COX 1 inhibition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Meloxicam, Carprofen, Deracoxib, Firocoxib are inhibiting which isoenzyme

A

COX 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Give the drugs that act as COX 2 inhibition

A

Meloxicam, Carprofen, Deracoxib, Firocoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the pharmacological effects of NSAIDs

A

Anti Inflammatory
Analgesic
Antipyretic
Platelet aggregation inhibition (antiendotoxin, spasmolytic, antineoplastic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Example of antiendotoxin drug?

A

Meloxicam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Meloxicam has for pharmacological effect?

A

Antiendotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Example of spasmolytic NSAID drug?

A

Flunixin

102
Q

Flunixin has for pharmacological effect?

A

Spasmolytic

103
Q

Example of anti neoplastic drug?

A

Pyroxicam

104
Q

Pyroxicam has for pharmacological effect?

A

Anti neoplastic

105
Q

Give the loading dose and maintaining dose of Carprofen

A

LD: 4.4mg/Kg
MD: 2.2 mg/Kg

106
Q

Which NSAIDs can be given to cats with half of the dose?

A

Meloxicam

107
Q

can the fullness of the stomach have an effect on NSAIDs action?

A

Yes will affect the absorption

108
Q

Give the Loading dose and maintaining dose of Meloxicam?

A

LD: 0.2mg/Kg
MD: 0.1 mg/Kg

109
Q

What are all the side effects of NSAIDs?

A
  • GI ulceration
  • Kidney damage
  • Hepatotoxicity (rarely - NAPQI)
  • Platelet aggregation inhibition
  • Methaemoglobinaemia (NAPQI converts Fe2 ->Fe3)
  • cartilage damage
  • fetal damage
  • placental retention
110
Q

What is the active substance Acetysalycilic acid known as?

A

Aspirin

111
Q

Give the drugs from the Arilpropionic acid group

A

Ketoprofen
Vedaprofen
Carprofen (hepatopathy)

112
Q

Give the drugs under the Oxicams group

A

Piroxicam
Meloxicam (antiendotoxin)

113
Q

Which drug is considered as an Anilin derivates

A

Paracetamol

114
Q

Which drug is considered as Pyrazolines and what does it inhibit?

A

Metamizole sodium, COX3

115
Q

Give the drugs belonging to the coxib groups

A

Deracoxib
Firocoxib
Robenacoxib
Cimicoxib
Mavacoxib

116
Q

Compared to other NSAIDs what are the effects of Coxibs?

A

Low GI side effects
same side effects on kidneys
Higher cardiovascular effect than other NSAIDs

117
Q

Why are JAK inhibitors useful to use as anti-inflammatory?

A

After recognizing a cytokine, the receptor induces the transcription of inflammatory processes

118
Q

Most common JAK inhibitor

A

Oclacitinib

119
Q

What type of drug is Oclacitinib

A

JAK inhibitor

120
Q

Which indication is Oclacitinib most commonly used?

A

Atopic dermatitis

121
Q

What is the action of Oclacitinib?

A

Primary JAK 1 inhibitor
IL-4,13 and 31 inhibited

122
Q

What are the pharmacological effects of JAK inhibitors?

A

Anti inflammatory
Anti allergic
Anti pruritus

123
Q

How can JAK inhibitors be administered

A

Orally

124
Q

What is the mechanism of action of anti histamines

A

Inverse Agonist

125
Q

What is the difference between 1st and 2nd generation antihistamine

A

2nd G cannot cross the blood brain barrier

126
Q

1st generation of antihistamine drugs

A

Chloropyramin
Diphenhydramine
Cyproheptadine (can increase appetite)

127
Q

2nd generation anti histamine

A

loratadine
cetirizine
levocetirizine

128
Q

Side effects of 1st generation anti histamines?

A

CNS depression
Cardiac toxicity
Anticholinergic

129
Q

What are the 4 categories of drugs that can be used to act as immunosuppression?

A

Antimetabolites
Alkalating agents
Glucocorticoids
Cytokine gene expression inhibition

130
Q

Give a folic acid antagonist drug

A

methotrexate

131
Q

give a pyrimidine analogue drug

A

leflunomide

132
Q

Give a purine analogue drug

A

azathioprin

133
Q

Give a calcineurine inhibitor drug

A

cyclosporine

134
Q

Antimetabolites have which effects?

A

anti neoplastics

135
Q

How does folic acid antagonist act?

A

Apoptosis of activated T cells

136
Q

What type of drug is cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylating agent
angine-plastic agent, auto immune disorders

137
Q

How can cyclosporin be applied

A

Orally, and locally

138
Q

What could cause an arrhythmia?

A

ectopic impulse (anormal sinus rythme)
cardiomyopathy
re-entry
drugs
électrolyte imbalance

139
Q

What is the class I anti arrhythmia drugs

A

Na-Channel blockers

140
Q

What is the effect of lidocaine on the ERP

A

decreases

141
Q

what is the effect of Quinidine on the ERP

A

increases

142
Q

What are the major effects of Quinidine

A

Anti-Vagal effect
negative inotropic effect
(NOTTO BE USED IN HEART FAILURE)

143
Q

Which animal can quinidine be used PO or IV

A

Horses

144
Q

Examples of I. A. anti arrhythmia drugs:

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
Mexiletine

145
Q

In which situation is lidocaine used

A

Immediate treatment of life threatening ventricular arrhythmias

146
Q

What can be used in case of lidocaine overdose

A

Diazepam

147
Q

Mexiletine is used for which treatment?

A

ventricular arrhythmia at home
given orally

148
Q

what are class II antiarhythmic drugs

A

Beta receptor blocker

149
Q

What are the indication of Class II anti arrhythmic drugs

A

supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias
preventing sudden death
hyperthyroidism
methylxanthine poisoning

150
Q

what can be used in case of methylxanthine poisoning?

A

beta blockers

151
Q

What kind of drug is Propranolol

A

Beta blocker 1 and 2

152
Q

Example of beta blocker 1

A

metoprolol
atenolol
esmolol

153
Q

What is the Class III antiarrhytmic drugs?

A

K+ Channel blocker, ERP increase

154
Q

Class III drug that has a beta blocker effect and is excellent in boxer cardiomyopathy?

A

Solatol

155
Q

Which class II drug has class I, II, III, IV effects?

A

Amiodarone

156
Q

What is a Class IV antiarrhytmic drug?

A

Ca2+ channel blocker
Decreases Ca2+ influx –> decreases contraction and vasodilatation

157
Q

Which class IV drugs act on the heart with a negative inotropic effect ?

A

verapamil
diltiazem

158
Q

What is the effect of dihydropyridine type drug

A

dilate the vessels

159
Q

What heart condition mostly occurs in large dog breeds

A

hypertrophic / dilation cardiomyopathy

160
Q

What are the main factors affecting heart performance

A

Preload
Contractility
Afterload
Frequency

161
Q

What type of drug is used to lower the preload

A

diuretics

162
Q

Which drugs are used to increase frequency and which one is the best?

A

Adrenaline, Dobutamine ( the best only acts on b1)

163
Q

What are the treatment option to increase contractility

A

digitalis glycosides
PDE inhibitors

164
Q

What are the treatment option to decrease preload and afterload

A

ACE inhibitors
PDE inhibitors

165
Q

What are PDE inhibitors called

A

Inodilators

166
Q

How do we administer drugs in acute heart failure

A

IV

167
Q

Which drugs are used in case of chronic heart failure

A

Digitalis glycosides
Pimobendan

168
Q

Pharmacological effect of Digoxin?

A

+ inotropic
increases parasympathetic nervous system (heart will slow down)

169
Q

Cardiac drug level has to be measured after 3-5 days

A

Digoxin

170
Q

Why is Digoxin very toxic?

A

very small therapeutic index
accumulation in myocytes (take a break of 1 day in the treatment every week to avoid overdose)

171
Q

Digoxin antidote

A

Lidocaine

172
Q

Cardiac side effects of Digoxin

A

arythmias, bradycardia

173
Q

Digoxin contraindications

A

kidney failure,
outflow obstroction

174
Q

Effects of Pimobendan

A

+ inotropic
arterial/venous dilatation

175
Q

contraindication of Pimobendan

A

outflow obstruction

176
Q

Administration, side effects, contraindication of Pimobendan

A

twice daily orally, 1 hour before feeding
minimal side effects
outflow obstruction

177
Q

Broncho constriction , airway hyper responsiveness and airway inflammation is a characteristic of

A

Asthma

178
Q

RAO means

A

recurrent airway obstruction

179
Q

COPD means

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

180
Q

COPD is divided into 2 frequent diseases

A

emphysema
chronic bronchitis

181
Q

What types of drugs can be used as bronchodilators

A

beta 2 receptors drugs

182
Q

in which species is asthma more frequent

A

Cat

183
Q

In which species is RAO most common

A

Equine

184
Q

Which cells need to be blocked before the allergy starts ?

A

Mast cells

185
Q

The 4 types of drugs used in the respiratory system?

A

bronchodilators
respiratory antiinflammatory
antitussives
mucolytics, expectorants

186
Q

in which case should bronchodilators be used

A

anaphylaxis: adrenaline, GCsteroids
allergic bronchitis
asthma, RAO
pneumonia

187
Q

What are the bronchodilators

A

sympathomimetics
anticholinergic substances
Xanthine derivates

188
Q

What receptors do sympathomimetics act on for bronchodilation?

A

Beta 2

189
Q

What receptors do non-selective sympathomimetics act on like adrenaline?

A

beta 1,2 and alpha 1 R

190
Q

Which case can we use adrenaline as bronchodilators?

A

life threatening, IV, IM or intratracheal

191
Q

What other non selective sympathomimetics can be used for bronchodilaton?

A

Adrenaline
Ephedrine
Isoproterenol (doesn’t act on alpha 1)

192
Q

Selective sympathomimetics used as bronchodilators examples

A

short acting beta2 agonist:
Salbutamol (not for maintenance)
long acting beta2 agonists:
terbutaline (feline asthma)
clenbuterol (horse )
Salmeterol

193
Q

What can be a side effect of a sympathomimetics?

A

beta1: cardiac effect (tachycardia, arrhythmia)
beta2: skeletal muscle tremor
alpha1: vasoconstriction and hypertension

194
Q

What are the effects of parasympatholytics on the respiratory tract

A

bronchodilator and decreased mucous secretion

195
Q

Example of bronchodilators parasympatholytics drugs?

A

Atropine
Glycopyrrolate
Ipratropium (doesn’t crossBBB)

196
Q

Example of methylxanthine derivatives bronchodilators drugs

A

aminophyllin
propentophyllin
pentoxyfillin

197
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of methylxanthines

A

acute/chronic asthma that is unresponsive to beta-adrenoreceptor agonist

198
Q

What are the indications of respiratory antiinflammatories

A

asthma
RAO

199
Q

Which types of drugs can be used as respiratory antiinflammatories

A

inhalation glucocorticoids
chromones
leukotriene antagonists

200
Q

Which respiratory antiinflammatories is the most effective

A

inhalation glucocorticoids

201
Q

What are the effects of inhalation glucocorticoids

A

decreased mucous production
increasing diameter

202
Q

Which inhalation glucocorticoid is used in Eq?

A

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone

203
Q

Chromones are used as

A

prevention

204
Q

Zileuton is a

A

leukotrien synthesis inhibitor

205
Q

zafirlukast is a

A

leukotriene antagonists

206
Q

define antitussive

A

any medicine used to suppress or relieve
coughing

207
Q

define mucolytic

A

destroying or dissolving mucus

208
Q

define expectorants

A

drugs that loosen and clear mucus and phlegm from the respiratory tract

209
Q

What combination is used to treat asthma long term

A

Glucocorticoids and beta2 mimetics

210
Q

What are the central antitussives

A

morphine derivatives

211
Q

Main antitussives

A

Codein (NOT IN FE)
dihydrocodeine
hydrocodone
butorphanol
tramadol (safe in fe)
Dextrometorphan (safe in fe)

212
Q

Examples of mucolytics

A

N-Acetylcysteine
Carbocystein

213
Q

Example of expectorants

A

Bromhexin (Ambroxol)
Dembrexine
Guaifenesin

214
Q

What effects does Guaifenesin have?

A

muscle relaxant
expectorant

215
Q

Which expectorant is only used in horse

A

dembrexine

216
Q

What is the rule regarding treatment with expectorants

A

DO NOT combine antitussif and expectorant

217
Q

Which expectorant CAN be combined with antitussif

A

Guaifenesin

218
Q

indication of ACE inhibitors

A

heart failure (dog, horses)
hypertension ( dog, cats)
proteinuria

219
Q

Pharmacological effect of ACE inhibitors

A

vasodilation
ventilation
water excretion
Decrease preload/afterload

220
Q

Administration of ACE

A

orally

221
Q

ACE inhibitor safe for liver failure patients

A

lisinopril

222
Q

type of treatment of ACE inhibitors

A

onset action 4-6 hours so only long term treatment not acute

223
Q

ACE inhibitor excreted by kidney

A

Enalapril
ramipril

224
Q

ACE inhibitor excreted by bile and its dose

A

Benazepril
D: 0,25-0,5mg/Kg

225
Q

ACE inhibitors side effects

A

azotaemia
hypotension

226
Q

Angiotensin II receptor antagonists

A

Telmisartan

227
Q

What is organic nitrates’ pharmacological effect?

A

arterial and VENOUS dilation

228
Q

organic nitrates drug example

A

Nitroglycerin

229
Q

Indication & Administration of Organic nitrates

A

Acute heart failure of decompensated chronic heart failure
first pass effects, IV, sublingual
transdermal patch, ointment

230
Q

Ca2 channel blocker two main groups

A

dihydropyridines
non-dihydropyridines

231
Q

dihydropyridines drug

A

Amlodipine

232
Q

Amlodipine indication

A

arterial vasodilation

233
Q

Amlodipine side effect

A

cat hypertension

234
Q

alpha 1 antagonists used for urinary bladder release

A

Prazosin
Doxazosin

235
Q

Drug belonging to osmotic diuretics group

A

Mannitol

236
Q

Mannitol indication

A

life threatening edemas
acute renal failure
ophtalmology

237
Q

Administration of Mannitol

A

IV

238
Q

What are called the Natriuretics acting on the proximal tubule

A

Carboanhydrase inhibitors
(mild diuretics 10% of reabsorption)

239
Q

indication of carboanhydrase inhibitors

A

glaucoma
alkalizing urine

240
Q

Carboanhydrase inhibitors drugs and their administration

A

Acetazolamide (oral)
dorzolamide (eye drops)
brinzolamide (eye drops)

241
Q

Where do the loop diuretics act?

A

loop of Henle

242
Q

which are the most effective natriuretic

A

loop diuretics

243
Q

loop diuretics drug example

A

Furosemide (potassium complementation needed)

244
Q

Indication for furosemide

A

heart failure
edemas

245
Q

Side effect of furosemide

A

hypokalemia
hypotension (Fe)

246
Q

Doses of furosemide for max dose for Canine, Fe, Eq.

A

1-5 mg/kg
Ca: 8 mg/kg max
Fe: 4mg/kg max
Horse: 1-2 mg/Kg

247
Q

Which type of natriuretic act on the distal tubule

A

Thiazides

248
Q

Example of thiazides & drugs main usage

A

Hydrochlorothiazides
against Ca oxalate urolithiasis

249
Q

2 groups in the potassium sparing diuretics

A

Amiloride, triamterene
Aldosterone antagonists

250
Q

Indication of Spironolactone

A

antagonist aldosterone in CHF
preventing diuretic induced “aldosterone-escape”

Pharma MT (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions