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Pharma Recall > Pharma everything > Flashcards

Pharma everything Flashcards

1
Q

Cholinomimetic that only stimulates M1 - M3 receptors

A

Betanechol

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2
Q

Cholinomimetic that stimulates M and N receptors

A

Carbachol (carbon copy of Acetylcholine)

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3
Q

Cholinomimetic that stimulates M3 (2)

A

Pilocarpine, Cevimeline

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4
Q

Cholinomimetic that freely crosses BBB and is used to treat atropine overdose

A

Physostigmine

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5
Q

Pyridostigmine is used to treat:

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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6
Q

NMDA receptor blocker used for Alzheimer’s Dementia

A

Memantine

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7
Q

Antidote for the CNS manifestations of organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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8
Q

MOA of this drug is that it regenerates active acetylcholinesterase

A

Pralidoxime

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9
Q

Muscarinic anticholinergics used to reduce tremors in Parkinson’s

A

Biperiden, Benztropine, Trihexyphenidyl

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10
Q

Muscarinic receptor antagonist used for COPD that does not cross the BBB

A

Glycopyrronium

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11
Q

Competitively blocks M3 receptors; Used for IBS

A

Dicyclomine, Hyoscyamine

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12
Q

Competitively blocks M3 receptors; reduces detrusor tone and is used for urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin, Tolteradine

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13
Q

MOA of Ritodrine

A

Selectively activates B2 receptors

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14
Q

MOA of Midodrine

A

Selectively activates A2 receptors

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15
Q

Drugs that prevent NE and Dopamine reuptake (3)

A

TCAs, Cocaine, Atomoxetine

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16
Q

MOA of metyrosine

A

Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase

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17
Q

Drugs that promote adrenergic hormone release (2)

A

Amphetamine

Tyramine

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18
Q

Alpha 2 agonists used for glaucoma (2)

MOA: Increases aqueous humor production

A

Apraclonidine, brimonidine

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19
Q

Sympathomimetic that is used for nasal vasoconstriction and appetite suppression but may precipitate hemorrhagic stroke (already withdrawn from the USA)

A

Phenylpropanolamine

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20
Q

Beta blockers with ISA (partial agonist activity)

A

Pindolol

Acebutolol

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21
Q

Beta blockers with no local anesthetic activity

A

Timolol

Betaxolol

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22
Q

Thiazide with vasodilator abilities but no diuretic action

A

Diazoxide

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23
Q

Antidote to rebound hypertension after clonidine intake

A

Phentolamine

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24
Q

Diuretic that can aggravate hyperammonemia among chronic liver disease patients

A

Acetazolamide

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25
Q

Avoid reserpine and guanethidine in patients with a history of:

A

Depression (suicidal ideations as a side effect)

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26
Q

MOA of diazoxide

A

increases membrane permeability to K+, which relaxes vascular muscle cells

(Also acts like this on pancreatic beta cells, which decreases insulin release)

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27
Q

Dihydropyridine that prevents vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Nimodipine

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28
Q

D1 receptor agonist

A

Fenoldopam

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29
Q

Most hepatotoxic general inhalational anesthetic agent

A

Halothane

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30
Q

Most common adverse effects of methotrexate (2)

A

Nausea and mucosal ulcers

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31
Q

MOA of nesiritide

A

Synthetic form of BNP

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32
Q

MOA of milrinone

A

PDE inhibitor -> increases cAMP

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33
Q

MOA of sacubitril

A

Inhibits the enzyme neprilysin, which degrades ANP and BNP

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34
Q

Effect of Class I antiarrhythmics on the AP duration
IA
IB
IC?

A

IA: Prolongs AP
IB: Shortens AP
IC: No effect

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35
Q

Quinine reduces the clearance of:

A

Digoxin

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36
Q

DOC for ventricular arrhythmias post-MI

A

Lidocaine (Class IB)

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37
Q

Class 2 antiarrhythmics act on which phase of the action potential?

38
Q

Class 3 anti arrhythmics act on which phase of the action potential?

39
Q

This electrolyte derangement exacerbates toxicity of Class 1A antiarrhythmics

A

Hyperkalemia

40
Q

Antihistamine used for serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

41
Q

Receptor for serotonin seen in the area postrema; mediates vomiting

42
Q

Antidote for ergotamine overdose

A

Nitroprusside

43
Q

MOA of theophylline

A

Adenosine receptor antagonist and PDE3 inhibitor

44
Q

Antidote for tPA activator

A

Aminocaproic acid

45
Q

Tranexamic acid is contraindicated in this fatal disease:

46
Q

MOA of Anakinra

A

IL-1 pathway inhibitor

47
Q

Clearance of isoxazolyl penicillins

48
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins all have renal excretion except:

A

Ceftriaxone

Cefoperazone

49
Q

All 3rd gen cephalosporins penetrate the BBB except

A

Cefoperazone

Cefixime

50
Q

Organisms that are not covered by Gen 1-4 of Cephalosporins

A 
LAME
Listeria
Atypicals
MRSA
Enterococci
51
Q

Clavulanic acid is more active against this type of beta lactamase

A

Plasmid-encoded (Gonoccoci, Streptococci, E. coli, H. influenzae)

52
Q

Bacitracin is limited to topical use due to:

A

Nephrotoxicity

53
Q

This drug blocks the incorporation of D-ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan

A

Cycloserine

54
Q

Resistance to Clindamycin is due to:

A

Methylation of binding sites

55
Q

Neuromuscular blockade from aminoglycoside use is reversible using:

A

Calcium gluconate, neostigmine

56
Q

Fluoroquinolones enhance the toxicity of:

A

Methylxanthines

57
Q

Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase; Granted an orphan drug status for C. difficile

A

Fidaxomicin

58
Q

Has the least effect of all azoles on hepatic enzymes

A

Fluconazole

59
Q

Renal toxicity of Acyclovir

A

Crystalluria, interstitial nephritis

60
Q

Antidote for acute and chronic arsenic poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

61
Q

Antidote for arsine gas poisoning

A

Chelation has no value

62
Q

Antidote for chronic inorganic mercury poisoning

A

Succimer and unithiol (Dimercaprol must NOT be used)

63
Q

Abnormal sleep pattern that results from BZD use

A

Decreased REM sleep

64
Q

Lorazepam is a ____-acting BZD

A

Intermediate

65
Q

MOA of Etomidate

A

Modulates GABA-A receptors containing B3 subunits

66
Q

An ultra-short acting barbiturate

A

Thiopental

67
Q

Antibiotic which prevents the formation of n-acetyl muramic acid

A

Fosfomycin

68
Q

Fatal reaction occurs when selegiline is used with:

A

Meperidine

69
Q

Partial agonist at D3 receptors used for Parkinson’s that causes severe nausea. Trimethobenzamide is advised as pre-medication to prevent severe nausea

A

Apomorphine

70
Q

Local anesthetic that can cause methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

71
Q

Effect of thiopental on ICP

A

Decreases ICP

72
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker which can cause seizures due to conversion to laudanosine

A

Atracurium

73
Q

Only antipsychotic with fatal overdose

A

Thioridazine

74
Q

Only antipsychotic approved for use in schizophrenia in the youth and elderly

A

Risperidone

75
Q

Least sedating atypical antipsychotic

A

Aripiprazole

76
Q

Treatment for lithium overdose

77
Q

Codeine is metabolized by _____ to morphine

78
Q

Meperidine, when given with ______ can lead to hyperpyrexic coma

A

MAO inhibitors

79
Q

Fluvoxamine is approved only for:

80
Q

MOA of amoxepine and maprotiline

A

Strong NE reuptake inhibitors and weak serotonin reuptake inhibitors

81
Q

MOA of bupoprion

A

Inhibits neuronal reuptake of dopamine and NE

82
Q

Tolerance does not develop for these SEs of morphine:

A

Miosis, constipation

83
Q

Weak opioid agonist withdrawn due to fatal cardiotoxicity and is commonly used in suicides

A

Propoxyphene

84
Q

Examples of mixed agonist-antagonists of opioid receptors

A

Nalbuphine, buprenorphine, butorphanol, pentazocine, levallorphan

85
Q

Opioid antagonist used for alcohol, nicotine, and opioid dependence

A

Naltrexone

86
Q

A dual-acting opioid agonist (weak u agonist, inhibits 5HT and NE reuptak)

87
Q

Only opioid that does not cause miosis and biliary contraction

A

Meperidine

88
Q

MOA of glipizide

A

Increases insulin secretion by closing ATP-sensitive K+ channels -> depolarization of beta cells of pancreas

89
Q

MOA of pioglitazone

A

Binds to PPAR-a and PPAR-y -> increase tissue sensitivity

Rosiglitazone - PPAR-y only

90
Q

MOA of rimonabant

A

selectively blocks cannabinoid-1 receptors -> reduces appetite (for obesity)

91
Q

Cancer drugs selective for the M phase

A

Vinblastine, vincristine, paclitaxel

92
Q

MOA of cetuximab

A

Binds to EGFR and prevents signalling

Pharma Recall (1 decks)

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