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FCPS Part 1 > Pharma > Flashcards

Pharma Flashcards

1
Q

Name the first generation antihistamine which are sedative

Remember CD3

A

chlorpheniramine

Diphenhydramine
dimenhydrinate
And doxylamine.

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2
Q

What are the clinical indication for first generation antihistamine?

A

Allergy
motion sickness
sleep aid.

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3
Q

Name the antihistamine which are less sedative

A

Loratadine
fexofenadine
desloratadine
cetirizine

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4
Q

Name the anti tussive which doesn’t suppress cough reflex

A

Guaifenesin (Expectorant-thins respiratory secretions)

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5
Q

Name the anti tussive which antagonizes NMDA glutamate receptors

A

Dextromethorphan

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6
Q

What is the anti tussive drug which cause serotonin syndrome if adds with serotonergic agents.

A

Dextromethorphan

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7
Q

What are the nasal decongestant drugs?

A

Pseudoephedrine

phenylephrine

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8
Q

Name the Pulmonary HTN drugs which causing jaw pain

A

Prostacyclin analogs (epoprostenol, iloprost)

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9
Q

Name the long acting beta agonist used as a prophylaxis in asthma

A

Salmeterol

formoterol

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10
Q

What is the first line therapy for chronic asthma?

A

Inhaled corticosteroid (Fluticasone, budesonide)

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11
Q

Name the Muscarinic antagonists used for asthma

A

Tiotropium

ipratropium

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12
Q

Name the medicine used for aspirin-induced and exercise-induced asthma

A

Montelukast

zafirlukast

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13
Q

Important information for Asthma

A

Anti-lgE monoclonal therapy Used in allergic asthma with increased IgE levels resistant to inhaled steroids and long-acting B2 agonists.

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14
Q

Name the medicine for Androgenetic alopecia (pattern baldness)

A

Minoxidil (Direct arteriolar vasodilator)

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15
Q

Important information

A

(blue-tinted vision) due to Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (Sildenafil)

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16
Q

On which receptor Tamsulosin acts?

A

Selective for a1A/D receptors (found on prostate) vs vascular a1B receptors.

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17
Q

Name the medicine used to t/m for Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide (Nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor at androgen receptors)

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ketoconazole To block androgen action?

A

Inhibits steroid synthesis (inhibits 17,20 desmolase/l 7a-hyd roxylase).

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Spironolactone To block androgen action?

A

Inhibits steroid binding, 17,20 desmolase/17 alpha hydroxylase

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20
Q

What are clinical use of Danazol?

A

Endometriosis

hereditary angioedema.

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21
Q

Name the drug which is partial agonist at androgen receptors

A

Danazol

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22
Q

What are side effects of Danazol?

A

Weight gain, edema
acne, hirsutism

masculinization, Decreases HDL levels, hepatotoxicity

idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

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23
Q

What are the tocolytics agent?

A

Beta receptor agonist
CCB (Nifedipine)
NASID (Indomethacin)

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24
Q

What are the clinical uses of Leuprolide?

Remember UP PIE

A

Uterine fibroids,
precocious puberty

prostate cancer
endometriosis
infertility.

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25
Q

What is the MOA of Leuprolide?

A

Act on GnRH receptor

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26
Q

What are the side effects of Leuprolide?

A

Hypogonadism
Decreases libido
erectile dysfunction

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27
Q

What are the contraindications of synthetic Estrogen?

A

ER positive breast cancer
history of DVTs
tobacco use in women> 35 years old.

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28
Q

What are the side effects of Synthetic estrogen?

A

Increase risk of endometrial cancer (when given without progesterone)
bleeding in postmenopausal women

clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina in females exposed to DES in utero

Increase risk of thrombi.

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29
Q

How Clomiphene uses for infertility due to anovulation ?

A

Prevents normal feedback inhibition and increase release of LH and FSH from pituitary, which stimulates ovulation.

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30
Q

Name the SERM agonist at bone?

A

Tamoxifen

Raloxifine

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31
Q

Difference b/w Raloxifine and Tamoxifen

A

Both are breast antagonist so use in breast cancer

But Raloxifine also use in endometrial cancer

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32
Q

Which SERM used for osteoporosis?

A

Raloxifine

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33
Q

What are d/f mechanism of Progestin?

A

Bind progesterone receptors
Decrease growth and increase vascularization of endometrium
thicken cervical mucus.

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34
Q

Name the antiprogestin used as emergency contraception

A

ulipristal

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35
Q

What are the contraindications of combined contraception?

A

smokers> 35 years old (increases risk of cardiovascular events),

  • patients with increased risk of cardiovascular disease (including history of venous thromboembolism, coronary artery disease, stroke}
  • migraine (especially with aura),
  • breast cancer
  • liver disease.
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36
Q

What contraceptive is effective emergency contraception?

A

Copper intrauterine device

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37
Q

What is the MOA of Copper intrauterine device?

A

Produces local inflammatory reaction toxic to sperm and ova,
preventing fertilization and implantation; hormone free.

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38
Q

What are the contraindications of Aliskiren?

A

Relatively contraindicated in patients already taking ACE inhibitors or ARBs

contraindicated in pregnancy.

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39
Q

What is the mechanism of action Aliskiren?

A

Direct renin inhibitor results no production of angiotensin 1

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40
Q

What is the MOA of Amiloride and Triamterene?

A

block Na+ channels in cortical collecting tubule

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41
Q

What are the clinical uses of Potassium soaring diuretics?

A

Hyperaldosteronism
K+ depletion

Heart failure 
hepatic ascites (spironolactone)
nephrogenic DI (amiloride}
antiandrogen.
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42
Q

What are the clinical uses of Thiazides?

A

Hypertension
HF
idiopathic hypercalciuria
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, osteoporosis.

Important information for thiazide
hyperGlycemia and hyperLipidemia

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43
Q

What are the contraindications of mannitol?

A

Anuria
Heart failure
Pulmonary Edema

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44
Q

What are the clinical uses of mannitol?

A

Drug overdose

elevated intracranial/intraocular pressure.

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45
Q

Name the diuretics given in altitude sickness and idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

Carbonic anhydrase Inhibitors

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46
Q

What are the d/f types of Laxatives?

Remember BOSE

A

B Bulk-forming laxatives
O osmotic laxatives
S stimulants
E Emollients

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47
Q

What is mechanism of Emollient (Docusate) as a laxatives?

A

Promotes incorporation of water and fat into stool

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48
Q

What is mechanism of Stimulants(Senna as a laxatives?

A

Enteric nerve stimulation results colonic contraction

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49
Q

Name the laxatives which causes melanosis coli

A

Stimulants (Senna)

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50
Q

What is mechanism of Bulk forming (Psyllium, methylcellulose) as a
Laxatives?

A

Soluble fibers draw water into gut lumen, forming a viscous liquid that promotes peristalsis

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51
Q

What is mechanism of Osmotic laxative as a laxatives?

A

Provides osmotic load to draw water into GI lumen

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52
Q

What are the d/f types of Osmotic laxatives?

A

Magnesium hydroxide
magnesium citrate
polyethylene glycol
lactulose

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53
Q

What is MOA of Aprepitant?

A

Blocks NK1 (neurokinin-1) receptors in brain.

Substance P antagonist

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54
Q

What is the clinical use of Aprepitant?

A

Antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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55
Q

Name the medicine given in post operative vomiting

A

Ondansetron serotonin receptor antagonist

Also given in chemotherapy induced vomiting

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56
Q

What are clinical use of Metoclopramide?

A

Diabetic and postoperative gastroparesis, antiemetic

persistent GERD.

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57
Q

What are the contraindications of Metoclopramide?

A

In patients with small bowel obstruction or

Parkinson disease (due to D2-receptor blockade).

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58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

A

Agonist at µ-opioid receptors result slowing gut motility

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59
Q

Important information of H2 blockers

A

Both cimetidine and ranitidine decrease renal excretion of creatinine.

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60
Q

What are the clinical uses of PPI?

A

Peptic ulcer
gastritis esophageal reflux

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

component of therapy for H pylori
stress ulcer prophylaxis

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61
Q

What renal side effects will occur if PPI used?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

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62
Q

Absorption of which ions will decrease if PPI used?

A

Calcium and Magnesium

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63
Q

What is the “common” side effects of all antacids?

A

Hypokalaemia

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64
Q

What are the clinical side effects of Aluminium hydroxide?

Remember CHOPS

A 
Constipation
Hypophosphatemia
Osteodystrophy
Proximal muscle weakness
Seizures
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65
Q

Why Bismuth and sucralfate not given with PPI and H2 blockers?

A

B/c both drugs need acidic environment to show their action

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66
Q

What are the clinical uses of Bismuth and Sucralfate?

A

Increase ulcer healing

Traveler diarrhoea

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67
Q

Name the drug given in NASID induced PUD

A

Misoprostol

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68
Q

What reproductive issues occur in Male with the usage of Sulfasalazine?

A

Reversible oligospermia

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69
Q

What are medication given for HTN in pregnancy?

A

hydralazine
labetalol
methyldopa
nifedipine.

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70
Q

What medication not to be used for HTN in asthma?

A

Non selective BB

ACEI

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71
Q

Important information for HTN with DM

A

B-blockers can mask hypoglycemia symptoms

use with caution.

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72
Q

Important information for HTN with Heart failure

A

B-blockers must be used cautiously in decompensated HF and

are contraindicated in cardiogenic shock.

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73
Q

Name the CCB used for Sub arachnoid Haemorrhage

A

Nimodipine used to prevent cerebral vasospasm

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74
Q

What CCB can be used for HTN urgency and emergency?

A

Nicardipine

clevidipine

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75
Q

What endocrine side effect will occur if Non dihydropyridines used?

A

Hyper prolactinemia

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76
Q

What medications can be used for HTN emergency?

A

clevidipine, fenoldopam,
labetalol, nicardipine,
nitroprusside.

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77
Q

What medication can be used to t/m post operative HTN?

A

Fenoldopam

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78
Q

What are the clinical uses of Nitrates?

A

Angina
acute coronary syndrome
pulmonary Edema

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79
Q

Important information for Nitrates

A

Contraindicated in right ventricular infarction.

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80
Q

What is the MOA of Ranolazine?

A

Inhibits the late phase of sodium current thereby reducing diastolic wall tension and oxygen consumption

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81
Q

What is the clinical use of Ranolazine?

A

Angina refractory to other medical therapies

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82
Q

Important information for Milrinone

A

It’s positive chronotropy and inotropy

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83
Q

What is the MOA of Sacubitril?

A

Prevents degradation of natriuretic peptides, angiotensin II, and substance P by neprilysin
Result increases vasodilation, And decrease ECF volume.

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84
Q

What is the clinical use of Sacubitril?

A

Used in combination with an ARB (valsartan) for treatment of HFrEF

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85
Q

Why Sacubitril not used with ACEI?

A

B/c of angioedema

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86
Q

What lipid lowering agent can cause delirium, dementia, other neurocognitive effects?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors Alirocumab, evolocumab

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87
Q

Important information of lipid lowering agents

A

Only Nacin increases HDL in significant amount

All decreases LDL except fibrates

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88
Q

What medications decreases the clearance of Digoxin?

A

verapamil
amiodarone
quinidine

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89
Q

What is the MOA of lvabradine?

A

prolongs slow depolarization (phase “IV”) by selectively inhibiting “funny” sodium channels

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90
Q

What is the clinical use of Ivabradine?

A

Chronic stable angina in patients who cannot take Bblockers.
Chronic HFrEF.

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91
Q

What is the MOA of Rasburicase?

A

Catalyzes metabolism of uric acid to allantoin

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92
Q

What is the clinical use of Rasburicase?

A

Prevention and treatment of tumor lysis syndrome.

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93
Q

Name the medications given in Malignant melanoma

A

Dabrafenib

vemurafenib

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94
Q

What is the MOA of Dabrafenib?

A

Small molecule inhibitors of BRAF oncogene positive melanoma

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95
Q

How to t/m HER2 positive breast Cancer?

A

Trastuzumab

96
Q

Which GIT cancer can be t/m by Trastuzumab?

A

Gastric cancer

97
Q

What cardiac side effects occur with the usage of Trastuzumab?

A

Cardiotoxicity Viz dilated cardiomyopathy

98
Q

What is the side effects of Rituximab?

A

Increases risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

99
Q

Name the medication given in CML and GIST

A

lmatinib

dasatinib

100
Q

Name the medication which are monoclonal antibody against EGFR

A

Cetuximab

panitumumab

101
Q

What are the clinical uses of Cetuximab and panitumumab?

A

Head and neck cancer

Stage 4 CRC wild type KRAS

102
Q

What is the MOA of Erlotinib?

A

EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor.

103
Q

What is the MOA of BeVacizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody against VEGF results Inhibits angiogenesis

104
Q

What are the clinical uses of BeVacizumab?

A 
Solid tumors (eg, colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma)
wet age-related macular degeneration.
105
Q

What is the MOA of Hydroxyurea?

A

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase result decrease DNA synthesis (S phase specific)

106
Q

What is the main side effect of Hydroxyurea?

A

Myelosupression

107
Q

Name the medications which block topoisomerase I and prevent DNA unwinding and replication

A

lrinotecan

topotecan

108
Q

What are the clinical uses of lrinotecan and topotecan?

A 
Colon cancer (irinotecan); 
ovarian and small cell lung cancers (topotecan)
109
Q

Name the medication which inhibits topoisomerase II Result increases DNA degradation

A

Etoposide

teniposide

110
Q

What is the main clinical use of Etoposide and teniposide?

A

Solid tumors (particularly testicular and small cell lung cancer)

111
Q

How to prevent nephrotoxicity occurs due to cisplatin or Carboplatin?

A 
amifostine (free radical scavenger)
And chloride (saline) diuresis.
112
Q

What is the clinical use of Busulfan?

A

Used to ablate patient’s bone marrow before bone marrow transplantation

113
Q

What is the MOA of Busulfan?

A

Cross-links DNA

114
Q

Name the alkylating agents which t/m Brain tumors (including glioblastoma multiforme).

A

Nitrosoureas (eg, carmustine, lomustine)

115
Q

What is the MOA of Nitrosoureas?

Require bioactivation.

A

Cross blood-brain barrier —>CNS.

Cross-link DNA

116
Q

Name the alkylating agent which cause disulfiram-like reaction

A

Procarbazine

117
Q

What is the MOA of Bleomycin?

A

Induces free radical formation—->breaks in DNA strands.

118
Q

What is the MOA of Dactinomycin (actinomycin D)?

A

Intercalates into DNA, preventing RNA synthesis.

119
Q

Name the childhood Tumors t/m by Dactinomycin

A

Wilms tumor
Ewing sarcoma
rhabdomyosarcoma

120
Q

Name the drug given in Hairy cell leukaemia

A

Cladribine

121
Q

Name the drug which produce palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia (hand-foot syndrome ).

A

5-fluorouracil

122
Q

What skin cancers t/m by 5 fluorouracil?

A

actinic keratosis

basal cell carcinoma (topical).

123
Q

Name the drug which inhibits Glycoprotein 2b/3A receptors on platelets
Remember TEA

A

tirofiban
eptifibatide,
Abciximab

124
Q

Clinical indications for Glycoprotein 2b/3A receptors on platelets inhibitors

A

Unstable angina

percutaneous coronary intervention.

125
Q

What is the MOA of Cilostazol and dipyridamole?

A

Increase in cAMP in platelets, resulting in inhibition of platelet aggregation; vasodilators.

126
Q

Clinical uses of Cilostazol and dipyridamole

A

Intermittent claudication
coronary vasodilation (dipyridamole used for cardiac stress testing)
prevention of stroke or TIAs (combined with aspirin).

127
Q

Name the drugs which inhibits ADP receptor on platelets

Remember PCT

A

Clopidogrel
prasugrel
ticagrelor (reversible)
ticlopidine.

128
Q

Clinical uses of ADP receptors inhibitors on platelets

A

Acute coronary syndrome;
coronary stenting.
Decrease incidence or recurrence of thrombotic stroke.

129
Q

Clinical indications for Factor X inhibitors

A

Treatment and prophylaxis for DVT and PE;

stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation.

130
Q

Name the drug which inhibits thrombin

Remember BAD

A

Bivalirudin
Argatroban
Dabigatran

131
Q

What is the MOA of Ethosuximide?

A

Blocks thalamic T-type Ca2 channels

132
Q

What is the first line anti epileptic drug for Status epileptics?

A

Benzodiazepines

133
Q

How to t/m recurrent Status epileptics?

A

Phenytoin

Fosphenytoin

134
Q

What are the other uses of Gabapentin beside epilepsy?

A

peripheral neuropathy

postherpetic neuralgia

135
Q

What is the MOA of Gabapentin?

A

Primarily inhibits high-voltage activated calcium channels

136
Q

What is the MOA of lamotrigine?

A

Blocks voltage-gated Na• channel

inhibits the release glutamate

137
Q

Name the anti epileptic drugs causing hemophagocytic

A

lymphohistiocytosis

lamotrigine

138
Q

What is the MOA of Levetiracetam?

A

may modulate GABA and glutamate release, inhibit voltage-gated Ca2 channels

139
Q

What main side effects occur with the usage of Levetiracetam?

A

Neuropsychiatric symptoms

140
Q

What is the MOA of Phenytoin?

A

Block Sodium channels

141
Q

What are the side effects of phenytoin?

Remember PHENYTOIN

A 
P-450 induction
Hirsutism
Enlarged gums
Nystagmus
Yellow-brown skin
Teratogenicity (fetal hydantoin syndrome), Osteopenia
Inhibited folate absorption
Neuropathy
142
Q

What is the MOA of Topiramate?

A

Block sodium channels

Increases GABA action

143
Q

What are the side effects of Topiramate?

6S

A 
Sedation
slow cognition,
stones in kidney
skinny (weight prophylaxis loss)
sight threatened (glaucoma)
speech (word-finding) difficulties
144
Q

What is the MOA of Valproic acid?

A

Increase sodium channel inactivation

Increases GABA concentration by inhibiting GABA transminase

145
Q

What are the main side effects of Valproic acid?

A

Neural tube defects
Tremors
Weight gain
Pancreatitis

146
Q

What is the MOA of Vigabatrin?

A

Increases GABA

Irreversible GABA transaminase inhibitor

147
Q

What is the main side effect of Vigabatrin?

A

Permanent vision loss

148
Q

Which type of seizure t/m by carbamazepine?

A

Partial seizure

149
Q

Name the two main anti epileptic drugs t/m generalised tonic clonic seizure

A

Phenytoin

Valproic acid

150
Q

What is the main contraindications of barbiturates?

151
Q

What are short acting benzodiazepines?

A

Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam

152
Q

What benzodiazepine can be used even patients have liver disease?
Remember LOT

A

Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Temazepam

153
Q

What is the MOA of Suvorexant?

A

Orexin (hypocretin) receptor antagonist.

154
Q

Clinical use of Suvorexant

155
Q

What is the first line medicines for Alzheimer’s disease?

A 
AChE inhibitor ( Donepezil 
rivastigmine, galantamine )
156
Q

What is the mechanism of Memantine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist; helps prevent excitotoxicity (mediated by Ca2+).

157
Q

How Riluzole t/m ALS?

A

Decrease neuron glutamate excitotoxicity.

158
Q

Name the medication given in Huntington disease?

A

Tetrabenazine ( Inhibit vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT) —> decreases dopamine vesicle packaging and release )

159
Q

What is the MOA of ketamine?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist.

160
Q

Name the IV anaesthetic which increases cerebral blood flow and cause vivid dreams

161
Q

Name the IV anaesthetic which can be used as ICU sedation

162
Q

Name the IV anaesthetic which can cause anterograde amnesia

163
Q

Why adrenaline is given with local anaesthesia?

A

To decrease bleeding

And increased anaesthesia at site of action by vasoconstriction

164
Q

Name the local anaesthesia which cause CVS toxicity

A

bupivacaine

165
Q

Name the local anaesthesia which cause methemoglobinemia

A

benzocaine

166
Q

How to reverse the action of Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs?

A

ACEI with atropine or glycopyrrolate(to prevent muscarinic effects such as bradycardia)

167
Q

What is the MOA of Baclofen?

A

GABA (B) receptor agonist in spinal cord

168
Q

What are the clinical uses Baclofen?

A

Multiple sclerosis
Dystonia
Muscle spasticity

169
Q

What is the MOA of Cyclobenzaprine?

A

Acts within CNS mainly at the brain stem

170
Q

What is the MOA of Tizanidine?

A

Alpha2 agonist act centrally

171
Q

Clinical uses of Tizanidine

A

Muscle spasticity
multiple sclerosis
ALS
cerebral palsy.

172
Q

Name the full agonist opioid

A

morphine, heroin
meperidine, methadone
codeine.

173
Q

Name the partial agonist opioid

A

buprenorphine

174
Q

Name the Mixed agonist/antagonist opioid

A

nalbuphine
pentazocine
butorphanol.

175
Q

Name the Antagonists of opioids

A

naloxone
naltrexone
methylnaltrexone.

176
Q

Name the side effects of opioid to which tolerance doesn’t develop

A

Miosis

Constipation

177
Q

All opioid cause miosis except;

A

meperidine

178
Q

What are the contraindications of Suvorexant?

A

Narcolepsy

Liver diseases

179
Q

What is the MOA of Ramelteon?

A

Melatonin receptor agonist; binds MT1 and MT2 in suprachiasmatic nucleus.

180
Q

Clinical use of Ramelteon

181
Q

Name the drug which decreases phosphate absorption from GI tract

182
Q

What is the use of Sevelamer?

A

Hyperphosphatemia in CKD

183
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Cinacalet?

A

Sensitizes Ca2+_sensing receptor (CaSR) in parathyroid gland to circulating Ca2+ results in decrease of PTH

184
Q

Clinical indications for Cinacalet

A

2o hyperparathyroidism in CKD, hypercalcemia in 1o hyperparathyroidism (if parathyroidectomy fails)
or
in parathyroid carcinoma.

185
Q

What are the uses of Desmopressin?

A

Central DI,
von Willebrand disease,

sleep enuresis,
hemophilia A.

186
Q

Main uses of Regular insulin

A

DKA (IV),
hyperkalemia (+glucose),
stress hyperglycemia.

187
Q

Name the injectable insulin which doesn’t achieve peak

A

Long acting (no real peak)
detemir,
glargine

188
Q

Name the drugs which Inhibit intestinal brush-border a-glucosidases

A

Acarbose,
miglitol
*Remember not given if kidneys are impaired

189
Q

Name the drugs which inhibit Sodium Glucose Co transporter 2 in kidneys

A

Canagliflozin,
dapagliflozin,
empagliflozin

190
Q

What are the side effects of “Gliflozin”?

A 
Glucosuria
UTis
vaginal yeast infections
hyperkalemia
dehydration (orthostatic hypotension), weight loss.
191
Q

Name the oral drugs for diabetes avoided in Heart failure patients

A

Glitazones/ thiazolidinediones

192
Q

Name the oral drugs for diabetes which inhibits Inhibit DPP-4 enzyme that deactivates GLP-I
Remember Gliptin

A

Linagliptin
saxagliptin
sitagliptin

193
Q

What nutritional deficiency would occu with the usage of Metformin?

A

B12 Deficiency

194
Q

Drugs included in 1st generation sulfonylureas

A

1st generation:

chlorpropamide, tolbutamide

195
Q

Drugs included in 2nd generation
Sulfonylureas
Remember 3Gs

A

2nd generation:
glimepiride,
glipizide
glyburide

196
Q

Which generation of sulfonylureas causes disulfiram-like reactions and Hypoglycemia?

A

First generation causes disulfiram-like reactions

2nd generation cause hypoglycemia

197
Q

Which oral drug for diabetes has same MOA as sulfonylureas?

A

Meglitinides:

Nateglinide, repaglinide

198
Q

What oral agents for diabetes would cause these actions?

Decrease glucagon release
decrease gastric emptying
increase satiety.

A

Amylin analogs (Pramlintide)
GLP-1 analogs (Exenatide, liraglutide)
DPP-4 inhibitors (Linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin)

199
Q

Name the oral agent for diabetes which causes “Weight Loss”

A

GLP-1 analogs (Exenatide, liraglutide)
And
Metformin

200
Q

Name the oral agent for Diabetes which causes “Weight Gain”

A

Glitazones

Sulfonylureas

201
Q

What medicine to use to reverse the bleeding cause by dabigatran?

A

idarucizumab

202
Q

What are the clinical uses of Anti TNF alpha Antibody drugs?

Remember PAIR

A

Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Rheumatoid arthritis

203
Q

Important point

A

Any kind of NASID will decrease excretionof uric acid in Low dose

204
Q

What is the MOA of Pegloticase?

A

6-MP. Recombinant uricase catalyzing uric acid to allantoin (a more water-soluble product).

205
Q

How Teriparatide helpful in Osteoporosis?

A

Increase osteoblastic activity when administered in pulsatile fashion

206
Q

What are the contraindications of Teriparatide?

A

Osteosarcoma

Past Hx of Cancer Or Radiation therapy

207
Q

What is the MOA of Bisphosphonate?

A

Bind hydroxyapatite in bone, inhibiting osteoclast activity.

208
Q

Clinical indications of Bisphosphonate

A

Osteoporosis
hypercalcemia

Paget disease of bone

metastatic bone disease
osteogenesis imperfecta

209
Q

Which enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis inhibit by Leflunomide?

A

Reversibly inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

210
Q

Name the NASID which only inhibits Celecoxib

211
Q

Name the NASID which ““irreversibly”” inhibit both COX 1 and COX2

212
Q

Important information regarding NASID

A

All NASIDS reversibily inhibit both enzyme COX 1 and 2 except ASPIRIN

213
Q

At what dose of aspirin inhibit platelets aggregation?

A

Less than 300mg/day

214
Q

At what dose aspirin act as antipyretics and analgesics?

A

300-2400mg/day

215
Q

At what dose aspirin act as anti- inflammatory?

A

2400-4000mg/day

216
Q

What are medications which decrease aqueous Humour production?
Remember BAD

A

B beta blocker
A alpha agonist
D Diuretic

217
Q

Name the beta blockers used for Glaucoma

A

Timolol
betaxolol
carteolol

218
Q

Name the alpha agonist drugs used for Glaucoma

A

Epinephrine (a1)

apraclonidine, brimonidine (a2)

219
Q

What medications are totally contraindicated in close angle glaucoma?

A

Drugs which increase the size of pupil (Mydriasis)

220
Q

How prostaglandins treat glaucoma?

A

Increase outflow of aqueous humor via decreasing the resistance of flow through uveoscleral pathway.

221
Q

Name the prostaglandins used for Glaucoma.

A

Bimatoprost

latanoprost

222
Q

What are the ocular side effects occur due to use of Prostaglandins?

A

Darkens color of iris (browning)

eyelash growth

223
Q

How Cholinomimetics agents treat glaucoma?

A

Increase outflow of aqueous humor via contraction of ciliary muscle and opening of trabecular meshwork

224
Q

Important information regarding pilocarpine

A

Use pilocarpine in acute angle closure glaucoma-very effective at opening meshwork into canal of Schlemm

225
Q

What is the MOA of Metronidazole?

A

Forms toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA

226
Q

Why Daptomycin not used in pneumonia?

A

Not used for pneumonia (avidly binds to and is inactivated by surfactant)

227
Q

What are the Clinical use of Daptomycin?

A

S aureus skin infections (especially MRSA), bacteremia
enclocarditis
VRE

228
Q

Name the Quinolones which can be used in Respiratory infections

A

gemifloxacin
levofloxacin
moxifloxacin.

229
Q

Clinical uses of Quinolones

A

Gram -ve rods of urinary and CI tracts (including Pseudomonas),
some gram +ve organisms
otitis externa.

230
Q

What are the contraindications of Quinolones?

A

pregnant women
nursing mothers
and children< 18 years old clue to possible damage to cartilage.
Some may prolong QT interval.

231
Q

Important information about Quinolones

A

Not to give this drug in patient taking steroids Or age more than >60 yrs because of risk of tendon rupture Or tendonitis

232
Q

What are the mechanism of resistance of Quinolones?

A

Chromosome-encoded mutation in DNA gyrase
plasmid mediated resistance
efflux pumps.

233
Q

How to avoid the hematological side effects of Trimethoprim?

A

Add leucovorin

234
Q

Against which organisms Trimethoprim can be used as prophylaxis?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Toxoplasmosis

235
Q

What antibiotic can cause methamaglobinemia?

236
Q

What are the different mechanisms of resistance of sulfonamide?

A

Altered enzyme (bacterial dihydropteroate synthase)
Deceased uptake,
Increase PABA synthesis.

FCPS Part 1 (1 decks)

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