PHARMA Flashcards

1
Q

An 86-year-old patient is being discharged to home on digitalis therapy and has very little information regarding the medication. Which statement best reflects a realistic outcome of patient teaching activities?
a. The patient and patient’s daughter will state the
proper way to take the drug.
b. The nurse will provide teaching about the drug’s
adverse effects.
c. The patient will state all the symptoms of digitalis
toxicity.
d. The patient will call the prescriber if adverse effects occur

A

A

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2
Q

A patient has a new prescription for a blood pressure medication that may cause him to feel dizzy during the first few days of therapy. Which is the best nursing diagnosis for this situation?
a. Activity intolerance
b. Risk for injury
c. Disturbed body image
d. Self-care deficit

A

B

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3
Q

A patient’s chart includes an order that reads as follows:
“Lanoxin 250 mcg once daily at 0900.” Which action by the nurse is correct?
a. The nurse gives the drug via the transdermal route.
b. The nurse gives the drug orally.
c. The nurse gives the drug intravenously.
d. The nurse contacts the prescriber to clarify the
dosage route

A

D

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4
Q

The nurse is compiling a drug history for a patient.
Which question from the nurse will obtain the most
information from the patient?
a. “Do you depend on sleeping pills to get to sleep?”
b. “Do you have a family history of heart disease?”
c. “When you have pain, what do you do to relieve it?
d. “What childhood diseases did you have?

A

c

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5
Q

A 77-year-old man who has been diagnosed with an
upper respiratory tract infection tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
a. “That’s to be expected—lots of people are allergic to penicillin.”
b. “This allergy is not of major concern because the drug is given so commonly.”
c. “What type of reaction did you have when you took penicillin?”
d. “Drug allergies don’t usually occur in older individuals because they have built up resistance.”

A

C

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6
Q

The nurse is preparing a care plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Put into correct order the steps of the nursing process with 1 being the first step and 5 being the last step.

  1. Implementation
  2. Nursing Diagnosis
  3. Assessment
  4. Evaluation
  5. Planning

a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 2,3,4,1,5
c. 3,2,5,1,4
d. 4,3,2,1,5

A

C

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7
Q

The nurse is reviewing new medication orders that have
been written for a newly admitted patient. The nurse will
need to clarify which orders? Select all that apply
a. Metformin (Glucophage) 1000 mg PO twice a day
b. Sitagliptin (Januvia) 50 mg daily
c. Simvastatin (Zocor) 20 mg PO every evening
d. Irbesartan (Avapro) 300 mg PO once a day
e. Docusate (Colace) as needed for constipation

A

b and e

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8
Q

An elderly woman took a prescription medicine to help
her to sleep; however, she felt restless all night and did
not sleep at all. The nurse recognizes that this woman
has experienced which type of reaction or effect?
a. Allergic reaction
b. Idiosyncratic reaction
c. Mutagenic effect
d. Synergistic effect

A

b

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9
Q

While caring for a patient with cirrhosis or hepatitis, the
nurse knows that abnormalities in which phase of
pharmacokinetics may occur?
a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Metabolism
d. Excretion

A

c

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10
Q

A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid
medications around the clock to “keep him comfortable”
as he nears the end of his life. Which term best
describes this type of therapy?
a. Palliative therapy
b. Maintenance therapy
c. Supportive therapy
d. Supplemental therapy

A

A

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11
Q

The nurse is giving medications to a patient in heart
failure. The intravenous route is chosen instead of
the intramuscular route. The nurse knows that the
factor that most influences the decision about which
route to use is the patient’s
a. altered biliary function
b. increased glomerular filtration
c. educed liver metabolism
d. diminished circulation

A

d

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12
Q

A patient has just received a prescription for an
enteric coated stool softener. When teaching the
patient, the nurse should include which statement?
a. “Take the tablet with 2 to 3 ounces of orange
juice.”
b. “Avoid taking all other medications with any
enteric coated tablet.”
c. “Crush the tablet before swallowing if you have
problems with swallowing.”
d. “Be sure to swallow the tablet whole without
chewing it.”A patient has just received a prescription for an
enteric coated stool softener. When teaching the
patient, the nurse should include which statement?
a. “Take the tablet with 2 to 3 ounces of orange
juice.”
b. “Avoid taking all other medications with any
enteric coated tablet.”
c. “Crush the tablet before swallowing if you have
problems with swallowing.”
d. “Be sure to swallow the tablet whole without
chewing it.”

A

d

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13
Q

A drug that delivers 500 mg has a half-life of 4 hours.
How many milligrams of drug will remain in the body
after 1 half-life?
a. 125 mg
b. 250 mg
c. 500 mg
d. 350 mg

A

b

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14
Q

The primary treatment for heart failure (HF) is
___________.
A. Increasing the heart rate so the heart can pump more
blood
B. Decreasing the heart rate so the heart can rest
C. Increasing contractility so the heart will be able to
pump more blood
D. Decreasing contractility to prevent muscle fatigue

A

c
Feedback
The complete answer would be to make the heart beat
efficiently, that is to increase its force of contraction
without increasing the heart rate. Through this, more
blood is pumped every beat without overwhelming the
heart because rate of contraction is not increased.

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15
Q

The most common cause of HF is ______________.
A. Hypertension
B. Valvular heart diseases
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Coronary artery disease (CAD)

A

d
Feedback
It accounts for 95% of HF cases. CAD results to
insufficient supply of blood in the heart. This leads to
hypoxia and loss of function of heart muscles

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16
Q

Digoxin was prescribed to a patient with ventricular
tachycardia. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the drug as ordered.
B. Discuss the order with the doctor.
C. Discontinue other intravenous medications before
administering digoxin.
D. Count apical pulse for one full minute before
administering

A

b
Feedback
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with ventricular
tachycardia and fibrillation because these are potentially
fatal arrhythmias and need to be treated with other
medications.

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17
Q

It is contraindicated in patients with ventricular
tachycardia and fibrillation because these are potentially
fatal arrhythmias and need to be treated with other
medications.

A

Digoxin

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18
Q

What is the antidote for digoxin intoxication?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Digoxin immune fab (Digibind, DigiFab).
D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

C
Feedback
Digoxin Immune Fab or DigiFab, DigiBind should be
administered for serum digoxin levels of >10 ng/mL and
serum potassium level of >5 mEq/mL.

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19
Q

An infant who is receiving cardiac glycosides has an
apical pulse of 80 beats per minute. Which is the best nursing intervention for this assessment
finding?
A. Administer drug as ordered.
B. Withdraw the drug and notify doctor.
C. Assess apical pulse every hour for the next five hours.
D. Decrease drug dose and administer.

A

b

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20
Q

What signals the novice nurse that intravenous
milrinone was combined to furosemide in
management of patients with heart failure?
A. Presence of bubbles
B. Pink discoloration of the solution
C. Formation of precipitates
D. No obvious sign. Solution is clear.

A

c
Feedback
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor-furosemide combination
should be avoided. Alternate lines should be used if both
of these drugs are given intravenously.

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21
Q

In severe cardiac glycoside toxicity, all of the
following should be in the bedside, except
_________.
A. Lidocaine
B. Phenytoin
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. A and B only

A

c
Feedback
Lidocaine and potassium salts are used to treat
arrhythmias. Phenytoin is for the treatment of seizures.
Other medications and equipment at the bedside include
atropine for treatment of increased heart rate, and a
cardiac monitor.

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22
Q

What is the therapeutic level for digoxin?
A. 0.5-2 ng/mL
B. 1.5-2 ng/mL
C. 0.5-1.5 mg/mL
D. 0.5-2 mg/mL

A

A (0.8-2 ng/mL)

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23
Q

Type of angina which involves spasm of the blood
vessels
A. Stable angina
B. Pre-infarction angina
C. Unstable angina
D. Prinzmetal angina

A

D
Feedback
It is an unusual type of angina that involves the spasm of
blood vessels and not just by narrowing of vessels.
Person with prinzmetal angina has angina at rest and
associated ECG changes.

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24
Q

Each statement describes a phase of pharmacokinetics. Put the statement in order, 1 as first 4 as last.

  1. Drug metabolites are secreted through passive glomerular filtration into the renal tubules.
    2 Enzymes in the liver transform the drug into an inactive metabolite
    3 A drug binds to the plasma protein albumin and circulates through the body
    4 A drug moves from the intestinal lumen into the mesenteric blood system

a. 4.2.3.1
b. 4.3.2.1
c. 4.1.2.3
d. 4.3.1.2

A

d

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25
Q

Contraction and relaxation in each cardiac cycle is
controlled by
A. autonomic nervous system
B. the heart
C. cranial nerves
D. central nervous system

A

B
Feedback
Contraction and relaxation is controlled by impulses
arising spontaneously in the SA node and transmitted via
a specialized conducting system to activate all parts of
the muscle almost simultaneously. These rhythmic and
continuous contractions are controlled by the heart itself.

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26
Q

All of the following can cause arrhythmia, except:
A. acidosis
B. respiratory depression
C. hyperkalemia
D. none of the above

A

D
Feedback
Electrolyte disturbances, hypoxic conditions, acidosis or
accumulation of waste products, and structural damage
of the conduction system can lead to arrhythmia.

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27
Q

Verapamil and diltiazem belong to which class
of antiarrhythmics?
1/1
A. Class IV
B. Class III
C. Class Ia
D. Class II

A

A
Feedback
Verapamil and diltiazem are calcium-channel blockers and
belong to Class IV antiarrhythmics

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28
Q

The conduction system of the heart include the
following:
A. Sinoatrial node
B. Bundle of Purkinje
C. His Fibers
D. Atriomyocardial node

A

A

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29
Q

What is the correct sequence of path of conduction in the heart?

a. SA node -> AV node -> Bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers.
b. Bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> SA node -> AV node
c. SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibers -> Bundle of His
d. SA node -> Bundle of His ->Purkinje Fibers -> AV node

A

A
Feedback
Path of conduction is as follows: SA node -> AV node ->
Bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers.

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30
Q

The phase of cardiac muscle cell action potential
characterized by calcium entering the cell and
potassium leaving the cell.
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4

A

b

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31
Q

Beta-adrenergic blockers belong to which class of
antiarrhythmics?
A. Class Ia
B. Class Ib
C. Class II
D. Class IV

A

B
Feedback
They depress phase 4 of action potential. Some examples
include acebutolol, propranolol, and esmolol

32
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks potassium
channels?
A. Class Ia
B. Class IV
C. Class Ib
D. Class III

A

D

33
Q

This is the preferred antiarrhythmic in Advanced
Cardiac Life Support protocol.
A. ibutilide (Corvert)
B. propranolol (Inderal)
C. procainamide (Pronestyl)
D. amiodarone (Cordarone)

A

D
Feedback
Within the framework of ACLS, amiodarone is used
primarily to treat ventricular fibrillation and ventricular
tachycardia that occurs during cardiac arrest and is
unresponsive to shock delivery, CPR, and vasopressors.
Amiodarone should only be used after
defibrillation/cardioversion and first line drugs such as
epinephrine and vasopressin have failed to convert VT/VF.
Amiodarone should not be used in individuals with
polymorphic VT as it associated with a prolonged QT
interval which is made worse with antiarrhythmic drugs.
The maximum cumulative dose in a 24 hour period should
not exceed 2.2 grams

34
Q

What is the difference between Class Ia and Ib
antiarrhythmics?
A. Ia depresses phase 0 and Ib depressed phase I.
B. Ia shortens the duration of action potential and Ib
prolongs the duration of action potential.
C. Ia prolongs the duration of action potential and Ib
shortens the duration of action potential.
D. Ia extremely slows down conduction and Ib has no
effect on conduction

A

C

35
Q

A patient who is receiving quinidine should avoid
the following foods, except:
A. skim milk
B. broccoli
C. Both A and B
D. none of the above

A

D
Feedback
Patients who are taking quinidine should avoid foods that
alkalinize the urine. Some examples include milk products,
antacids, vegetables, and citrus juices. These foods
increase risk of quinidine toxicity.

36
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of supraventricular
tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White
syndrome.
A. adenosine
B. verapamil
C. digoxin
D. lidocaine

A

A
Feedback
This is the drug of choice because of two reasons: 1) it
has a very short duration of action (15 seconds), after
which it will be picked up by the cells and delivered to the
liver for clearance; 2) it has very few adverse effects

37
Q

Lipid levels of individuals with coronary artery
disease (CAD) is usually high. All of the following
are factors of CAD, except:
A. Men
B. Gout
C. Untreated Chlamydia infections
D. None of the above

A

D
Feedback
The incidence of CAD in men is higher than
premenopausal women. Gout injures the blood vessels
because of accumulation of uric acid. Untreated bacterial
infections can also contribute to CAD.

38
Q

Antihyperlipidemic agent that is used to decrease
plasma cholesterol levels.
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
C. Bile acid sequestrants
D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitor

A

C
Feedback
Bile acid contains a lot of cholesterol and bile acid
sequestrants bind to them to form an insoluble complex
that is then excreted in the feces

39
Q

A pregnant woman needs a lipid-lowering agent.
What would be the best class of lipid-lowering agent
for pregnant women?
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
B. Bile acid sequestrants
C. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

B
Feedback
This is the drug of choice for women of childbearing age.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is pregnancy category X.

40
Q

The only statin with outcome data to show
effectiveness in decreasing CAD and incidence of
myocardial infarction.
A. atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. simvastatin (Zocor)
C. pravastatin (Pravachol)
D. fluvastatin (Lesco)

A

C
Feedback
Pravastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor that can
prevent first MI even in patients who do not have
documented increase in cholesterol concentration

41
Q

Which of the following medical conditions will
render antihyperlipidemics ineffective?
A. biliary obstruction
B. diabetes mellitus
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

A

A ( Feedback
This condition can interfere with the mechanism of action
of the drug, thereby reducing its effectiveness

42
Q

This drug works on the brush border of the
intestines.
A. ezetimibe
B. pitavastatin
C. gemfibrozil
D. colestipol

A

A
Feedback
It belongs to cholesterol absorption inhibitor class and by
acting on the brush border of the intestines, absorption of
cholesterol is not allowed.

43
Q

A patient who is taking a bile acid sequestrant
complains of abdominal distention and nausea.
What should the nurse do?
A. Document, withdraw drug, and notify doctor.
B. Provide comfort measures.
C. Prepare emergency equipment at bedside.
D. Dismiss the complaint.

A

B Feedback
GI discomforts as evidenced by abdominal distention,
nausea, and vomiting are common complaints by patients
taking bile acid sequestrants. The nurse should provide
comfort measures to help patients tolerate drug effects.

44
Q

What vitamin plays a role in lowering cholesterol
concentration?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B2

A

C
Feedback
Niacin is used as a treatment for hyperlipidemia that does
not respond to diet and weight loss.

45
Q

When should statins be taken to maximize its
therapeutic effects?
A. After meals
B. During meals
C. At night
D. In the mornings

A

C
Feedback
It is when the liver is processing the most lipids (midnight
to 5 AM).

46
Q

The doctor ordered atorvastatin for an obese client’s
hyperlipidemia. This patient is receiving
erythromycin for a toe infection at the same time.
The nurse knows that this combination should be
avoided because?
A. It increases risk of atorvastatin toxicity.
B. It can result to potentially fatal lipolysis.
C. It can result to breakdown of muscles.
D. It decreases the effectiveness of erythromycin.

A

b
Feedback
Rhabdomyolysis can occur if statins are combined with
erythromycin, cyclosporine, and antifungal drugs. Waste
products from this muscle breakdown injure glomeruli and
can lead to acute renal failure.

47
Q

Which organ(s) produce(s) clotting factors?
A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen and other lymphoid tissues
C. Liver
D. Both B and C

A

C
Feedback
The liver produces a cascade of clotting factors that
contributes to the process of coagulation by breaking
down fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads.

48
Q

What is the first reaction to a blood vessel injury?
A. Vasodilation and swelling
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Bleeding
D. Blood coagulation

A

B
Feedback
This is especially helpful for very small injuries to the
blood vessel because vasoconstriction can seal off any
break and allow the area to heal.

49
Q

Which of the following substances will alert the
nurse for an increased risk of bleeding in a patient
taking clopidogrel?
A. Chamomile tea
B. Orange juice
C. Candied mushrooms
D. Peanuts

A

A
Feedback
Increased bleeding with no other cause or link found
should lead to the possibility of herbal interactions with
drugs. Other herbal sources that can increase the risk of
bleeding in patients taking anticoagulants include
psyllium, turmeric, garlic, ginkgo, chestnut seed, and
goldenseal

50
Q

When administering oral iron tablets, the nurse should
keep in mind that the most appropriate substance, other
than water, to give with these tablets is
a pudding.
b an antacid.
c milk.
d orange juice.

A

D

51
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient about oral iron
supplements. Which statement is correct?
1/1
a “You need to take this medication on an empty
stomach or else it won’t be absorbed.”
b. “It is better absorbed on an empty stomach, but if that
causes your stomach to be upset, you can take it with
food.”
c. “Take this medication with a sip of water, and then lie
down to avoid problems with low blood pressure.”
d. “If you have trouble swallowing the tablet, you may crush
it

A

b

52
Q

What are the right steps on giving medication
1. Read medicine instruction
2. Check label
3. After preparing double check label
4. Check for clients name on wrist band (verify)
5. Check medication on bedside
6. Give medication with water
7. Documentation

a. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
b. 5,4,1,2,3,6,7
c.,4,5,1,2,3,6,7
d. 1,2,3,4,7,6,5

A

a

53
Q

What is the normal bp
a. 120/80
b. 110/70
c. 140/80
d. 120/90

A

b

54
Q

What is an elevated bp
a. 120/80
b. 110/70
c. 140/80
d. 120/90

A

a

55
Q

What is considered hypertensive (hypertensionstage 1)?
a. 120/80
b. 110/70
c. 140/90
d. 130/85

A

d

56
Q

What is considered hypertensive (hypertensionstage 2)?
a. 120/80
b. 110/70
c. 140/90
d. 130/85

A

c

57
Q

A post op with general anesthesia, what is the primary concern
a. airway
b. populary reflex
c. level of sensation
d. level of consciousness

A

a

58
Q

the process in which a
pharmaceutical substance is released from the
formulation it is delivered in, this must occur before the
drug can be absorbed into the body

a. liberation
b. absorption
c. distribution
d. metabolism
e. excretion

A

a

59
Q

process in which a
pharmaceutical substance is dispersed through the fluids
and tissues in the body the pharmacokinetic parameters
for distribution includes

a. liberation
b. absorption
c. distribution
d. metabolism
e. excretion

A

c

60
Q

is the process in which a process in which the pharmaceutical substance is transformed into other
substances they called it metabolites in the body to the
pharmacokinetic parameters from the metabolism
includes

a. liberation
b. absorption
c. distribution
d. metabolism
e. excretion

A

d

61
Q

this is the process in which the
pharmaceutical substance is removed from the body in
rare cases some drugs may never be completely excreted
from the body

a. liberation
b. absorption
c. distribution
d. metabolism
e. excretion

A

e

62
Q

the process in which a
pharmaceutical substance enters the blood circulation in
the body so the pharmacokinetic parameters for
absorption includes absorption rate, constant absorption
trait over amount of drug remaining to be absorbed.
Bioavailability is amount of drug absorbed over the jam
dose

a. liberation
b. absorption
c. distribution
d. metabolism
e. excretion

A

b

63
Q

For best results when treating severe pain associated with pathologic spinal fractures related to metastatic bone cancer, the nurse should remember that the best type of dosage schedule is to administer the pain medication

a. as needed.
b. around the clock.
c. on schedule during waking hours only.
d. around the clock, with additional doses for breakthrough pain

A

d pero no answer kay mam LOL

64
Q

A patient is receiving an opioid via a PCA pump as part of his postoperative pain management program. During rounds, the nurse finds him unresponsive, with respirations of 8 breaths/min and blood pressure of 102/58 mm Hg. After stopping the opioid infusion, what should the nurse do next?

a. Notify the charge nurse
b. Draw arterial blood gases
c. Administer an opiate antagonist per standing orders
d. Perform a thorough assessment, including mental status examination

A

c

65
Q

A patient with bone pain caused by metastatic cancer will be receiving transdermal fentanyl patches. The patient asks the nurse what benefits these patches have. The nurse’s best response includes which of these features?

a. More constant drug levels for analgesia
b. Less constipation and minimal dry mouth
c. Less drowsiness than with oral opioids
d. Lower dependency potential and no major adverse effects

A

a

66
Q

Intravenous morphine is prescribed for a patient who has had surgery. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication? (Select all that apply.)

a. Diarrhea
b. Constipation
c. Pruritus
d. Urinary frequency
e. Nausea

A

b

67
Q

Several patients have standard orders for acetaminophen as needed for pain. When the nurse reviews their histories and assessments, the nurse discovers that one of the patients has a contraindication to acetaminophen therapy. Which patient should receive an alternate medication?

a. A patient with a fever of 103.4° F (39.7° C)
b. A patient admitted with deep vein thrombosis
c. A patient admitted with severe hepatitis
d. A patient who had abdominal surgery 1 week earlier

A

c

68
Q

The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of morphine sulfate to a 48-year-old postoperative patient. The dose ordered is 3 mg every 3 hours as needed for pain. The medication is supplied in vials of 4 mg/mL. How much will be drawn into the syringe for this dose?

A

.75 ml

69
Q

An opioid analgesic is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient’s medical history knowing this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?

a. Renal insufficiency
b. Severe asthma
c. Liver disease
d. Diabetes mellitus

A

b

70
Q

The physician has requested “lidocaine with epinephrine.” The nurse recognizes that the most important reason for adding epinephrine is that:

a. helps to calm the patient before the procedure.
b. minimizes the risk of an allergic reaction.
c. enhances the effect of the local lidocaine.
d. reduces bleeding in the surgical area.

A

d

71
Q

The surgical nurse is reviewing operative cases scheduled for the day. Which of these patients is more prone to complications from general anesthesia?

a. A 79-year-old woman who is about to have her gallbladder removed
b. A 49-year-old male athlete who quit heavy smoking 12 years ago
c. A 30-year-old woman who is in perfect health but has never had anesthesia
d. A 50-year-old woman scheduled for outpatient laser surgery for vision correction

A

a

72
Q

Which nursing diagnosis is possible for a patient who is now recovering after having been under general anesthesia for 3 to 4 hours during surgery?

a. Impaired urinary elimination related to the use of vasopressors as anesthetics
b. Increased cardiac output related to the effects of general anesthesia
c. Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium for 2 to 4 days postoperatively
d. Impaired gas exchange due to the CNS depressant effect of general anesthesia

A

d

73
Q

A patient is recovering from general anesthesia. What is the nurse’s main concern during the immediate postoperative period?

a. Airway
b. Pupillary reflexes
c. Return of sensations
d. Level of consciousness

A

a

74
Q

A patient is about to undergo cardioversion, and the nurse is reviewing the procedure and explaining moderate sedation. The patient asks, “I am afraid of feeling it when they shock me?” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “You won’t receive enough of a shock to feel anything.”
b. “You will feel the shock but you won’t remember any of the pain.”
c. “The medications you receive will reduce any pain and help you not to remember the procedure.”
d. “They will give you enough pain medication to prevent you from feeling it.

A

c

75
Q

During a patient’s recovery from a lengthy surgery, the nurse monitors for signs of malignant hyperthermia. In addition to a rapid rise in body temperature, which assessment findings would indicate the possible presence of this condition? (Select all that apply.)

a. Respiratory depression
b. Tachypnea
c. Tachycardia
d. Seizure activity
e. Muscle rigidity

A

b

76
Q

A patient has been admitted to the emergency department because of an overdose of an oral benzodiazepine. He is very drowsy but still responsive. The nurse will prepare for which immediate intervention?

a. Hemodialysis to remove the medication
b. Administration of flumazenil
c. Administration of naloxone
d. Intubation and mechanical ventilation

A

b