Pharm Test COPY COPY

Question 1

The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client with depression on the psychiatric unit. Which information is most important for the nurse to assess?
A. Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine rich foods
B. Reports of nausea or vomiting
C. Therapeutic serum drug levels
D. Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose

Answer 1

Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine rich foods

Question 2

The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess thr client during the initial dose?
A. Bradykinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Somatization
D. Akathisia

Answer 2

Dystonia

Question 3

While reviewing the client’s electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the health care provider con- cerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply)
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)
B. Closed angle glaucome
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Crohn’s disease

Answer 3

Closed angle glaucome

Chronic hypertension

Question 4

A client prescribed ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A. Withhold the medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider
B. Give PRN medication for nausea and vomiting and evaluate client in 30 minutes
C. reassure client that the ipratropium given will alleviate the symptoms
D. Delay administration of ipratropium until the next maintenance medication is scheduled

Answer 4

Withhold the medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider

Question 5

A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer?
A. High dose methylprednisolone intravenously
B. Baclofen three times a day
C. Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally
D. Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically

Answer 5

High dose methylprednisolone intravenously

Question 6

The nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes about neutral protamine Hagedor (NPH) insulin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of how the medication works?
A. It facilitates the transport of glucose into the cells
B. It stimulates the function of beta cells in the pancreas
C. It increases the intracellular receptor site sensitivity
D. It delays the carbohydrate digestion and absorption

Answer 6

It facilitates the transport of glucose into the cells

Question 7

A client newly prescribed esomeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks the nurse how the medication will help. Which is the best explanation to provide the client?
A. It will promote rapid tissue healing
B. It will increase gastric emptying
C. It will improve esophageal peristalsis
D. It will neutralize gastric secretions

Answer 7

It will promote rapid tissue healing

Question 8

A nurse is providing medication education for a client prescribed a beta-blocking agent for treatment of glaucoma. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the mechanism of the medication?
A. It inhibits the aqueous humor production
B. It enhances the aqueous humor outflow
C. It increases the intraocular pressure
D. It prevents extraocular infection

Answer 8

It inhibits the aqueous humor production

Question 9

A nurse is planning a teaching session for a client newly pre- scribed a miotic drug for the treatment of glaucoma. Which infor- mation should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A. The medication enhances the aqueous humor outflow
B. The medication inhibits the aqueous humor production
C. The medication dilates the pupils
D. The medication prevents extraocular infection

Answer 9

The medication enhances the aqueous humor outflow

Question 10

The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes a medication for an older adult client who is reporting insomnia, and the HCP instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription?
A Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime
B. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime
C. Temazepam (Restoril) 7.5 milligrams orally at bedtime
D. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 8 milligrams orally at bedtime

Answer 10

Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime

Question 11

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a pre- scription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction?
A. Drink fluids between meals to relieve gastric distress
B. Monitor for an increase in blood pressure during therapy
C. Dissolve capsule contents in fruit juice for easier ingestion
D. Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal

Answer 11

Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal

Question 12

A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which in- formation in the client history requires special emphasis by the nurse?
A. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream
B. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin
C. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends
D. works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool

Answer 12

works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool

Question 13

The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who re- cently received a prescription for clozapine (Clozaril). Which in- struction should be included in this client’s teaching plan?
A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
B. Rise slowly from a lying position
C. Do not eat any aged cheese
D. Take as needed for anxiety

Answer 13

Rise slowly from a lying position

Question 14

Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontin- ues the current prescription for another broad spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client re- ceived the broad spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Obtain peak and trough serum levels so the aminoglycoside antibiotic can be initiated
B. Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as
soon as possible
C. Withhold antibiotic administration until the healthcare provider clarifies the prescriptions
D. Schedule the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic for the following day

Answer 14

Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as
soon as possible

Question 15

A client prescribed sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

A. Rash
B. Diarrhea
C. Hematuria
D. Muscle cramping

Answer 15

Rash

Question 16

A client receives a new prescription for nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
A. Take the medication at least an hour before every meal
B. Monitor your pulse for 60 seconds before administration
C. Place under the tongue as needed every 5 minutes up to 3
times
D. Resume normal activities after chest pain relief is obtained

Answer 16

Place under the tongue as needed every 5 minutes up to 3
times

Question 17

Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who
is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) following neurosurgery? (select all that apply)
A. Mood swings
B. Decreased appetite
C. Increased weight gain
D. Serum glucose level of 65 mg/dl
E. Delayed incisional wound healing
F. Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl

Answer 17

Mood swings
Increased weight gain
Delayed incisional wound healing
Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl

Question 18

What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil (Viagra)? (select all that apply)

A. Frequent use can lead to the development of hypertension
B. Most effective if taken after at least 6 hours of REM sleep
C. Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation
D. Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more
E. Can cause facial flushing and headache

Answer 18

Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation
Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more
Can cause facial flushing and headache

Question 19

A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by He- licobacter pylori. Which medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe for the client? (select all that apply)
A. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
B. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
C. Misoprostol (cytotec)
D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
E. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
F. Sucralfate (Carafate)

Answer 19

Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Question 20

A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondnsetron (zofran). Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. headache
B. dry mouth
C. impaired taste
D. blurred vision

Answer 20

headache

Question 21

The nurse is preparing to administer esomeprazole to a client
for the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which finding in the client’s history should the nurse hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider?
A. Eats spicy food three times a week
B. treatment for deep vein thrombosis
C. drinks 2 alcoholic beverages on weekends
D. Family history of diabetes mellitus

Answer 21

treatment for deep vein thrombosis

Question 22

Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication?

A. tinnitus and hearing loss
B. Photosensitivity and nervousness
C Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia
D. Hyperventilation and central nervous system effects

Answer 22

tinnitus and hearing loss

Question 23

A client experiencing ventricular dysrhythmias is admitted to the intensive care unit status post a myocardial infarction. The nurse should anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe which med- ication?
A. Diltiazem
B. Bretylium
C. Amiodarone
D. Adenosine

Answer 23

Amiodarone

Question 24

A client receives a prescription for tetracycline (sumycin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client’s teaching?
A. Take the medication with a glass of orange juice
B. Avoid over-the-counter medications containing alcohol
C. Avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication
D. Do not use teeth whitening agents during the treatment regimen

Answer 24

Avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication

Question 25

A client who is recently diagnosed with myastheniagravis receives a prescription for pyridostigmine (Mestinon), a cholinergic agent. Which information should the nurse instruct the client to implement when taking this medication?
A. Always take with meals to avoid GI distress
B. Plan the doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect
C. Take the medication at least 30 minutes before eating meals
D. Avoid dairy products two hours before and after taking medica- tions

Answer 25

Take the medication at least 30 minutes before eating meals

Question 26

A mother of a child prescribed methylphenidate hydrochloride for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) informs the school nurse she administers the medication at bedtime. Which instructions should the nurse recommend?

A. continue administering the medication dose at bedtime
B. Give the medication when the child arrives at school
C. The medication should be taken with meals
D. Administer the medication at least 6 hours before bedtime

Answer 26

Administer the medication at least 6 hours before bedtime

Question 27

A client prescribed risperidone 10 mg/day for the past 3 months is being admitted to the hospital. Which physical assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A anorexia
B. Drowsiness and lethargy
C. Tremors and muscle twitching
D. Dry mouth, and constipation

Answer 27

Tremors and muscle twitching

Question 28

A client prescribed clindamycin hydrochloride intravenously asks the nurse why blood has to be drawn before the third dose and one hour after the completion of the administration of the medication. Which information should the nurse provide the client to answer the question?
A. the onset action for the medication occurs very quickly
B. A small margin exists between safe and toxic plasma levels
C. Bioavailability is significantly reduced by the first-pass effect
D. Standard dosage is needed for the medication to be effective

Answer 28

A small margin exists between safe and toxic plasma levels

Question 29

A pediatric client diagnosed with partial seizures receives a pre- scription for topiramate. Which information should the nurse provide to the child’s parents?

A. do not crush the tablet prior to administration
B. Give the medication with 8 oz of orange juice
C. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight
D. Administer the tablet an hour before meals

Answer 29

do not crush the tablet prior to administration

Question 30

Which statement by a client warrants further instruction by the nurse about the changing insulin needs of a diabetic client during pregnancy?
A. “Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months”
B. “I will increase my insulin dosage by 5 units each month during the first trimester”
C. “Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters”
D. “Breastfeeding will decrease my insulin needs to lower than my prepregnancy levels”

Answer 30

“I will increase my insulin dosage by 5 units each month during the first trimester”

Question 31

A client experiencing pain from metastatic cancer is prescribed morphine. Which route of administration should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to administering the medication?
A. Oral
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Intravenous

Answer 31

Oral

Question 32

A client with chronic gouty arthritis prescribed allopurinol is ex- periencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis. The healthcare provider prescribes concurrent low-dose colchicine. Which infor- mation should the nurse provide the client that best explains the action of the colchicine?
A. It acts like aspirin to relieve pain
B. It facilitates the excretion of uric acid
C. It reduces the inflammation at the affected site
D. It prevents the formation of uric acid crystals

Answer 32

It reduces the inflammation at the affected site

Question 33

The healthcare provider prescribes oral antifungal therapy for a client with onychomycosis. Which information should the nurse provide the client?
A. A single dose of the oral antifungal agent is usually sufficient to treat the infection
B. The infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months
C. Complete eradication is important because of the risk of a systemic infection
D. Prolonged therapy provides no benefit and increases the risk of adverse effects

Answer 33

The infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months

Question 34

A client who is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant staphylococ- cus aureus receives a prescription for vancomycin (Vancocin). Which assessment should the nurse perform to identify a potential adverse effect?
A. Whisper test
B. Romberg test
C. Tactile discrimination
D. Skin turgor

Answer 34

Whisper test

Question 35

A client with chronic pancreatitis receives a new prescription for pancrelipase (Pancrease). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s teaching?
A. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight
B. Stay away from products containing alcohol
C. Ingest 8 oz of grapefruit juice with the medication
D. Take the medication when consuming food

Answer 35

Take the medication when consuming food

Question 36

A client is beginning therapy with montelukast (Singulair) PO 10 mg once a day in the evening. The client asks the nurse, “When should I begin to feel better?” How should the nurse respond?
A. Immediately
B. Within 24 hours
C. in about 12 hours
D.30 mins to 1 hr

Answer 36

Within 24 hours

Question 37

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a prescription for minocycline (minocin). Which side effect is most important for the nurse to instruct the client to report?
A. Loss of balance and dizziness
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Headache and mouth sores
D. Abdominal pain and diarrhea

Answer 37

Loss of balance and dizziness

Question 38

A client’s prescription of prednisone for the management of asth- ma is to be discontinued. Which information is important for the nurse to give the client?
A. The remaining capsules in the medication bottle should be taken until empty
B. The medication should be stopped immediately
C. the dose of the medication should be tapered over the course of 7 to 10 days
D. The medication should be taken if wheezing and stridor occurs

Answer 38

the dose of the medication should be tapered over the course of 7 to 10 days

Question 39

A client prescribed cyclosporine for the past nine months to pre- vent renal allograft rejection has a blood urea nitrogen level of 36 mg/dL. Which additional finding should the nurse notify the healthcare provider?
A. Hemoglobin level of 16.8 g/dL
B. White blood cell count level of 10,000
C. Creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL
D. Potassium of 4.2 mEq/L

Answer 39

Creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL

Question 40

A client prescribed danazol (Danocrine) for endometriosis calls the clinic nurse and reports having a dark swollen and painful leg. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the client?
A. Wear support stockings
B. Elevate both legs and apply heat
C. Proceed to the closest emergency room
D. Walk for 20 to 30 minutes to reduce the pain and edema

Answer 40

Proceed to the closest emergency room

Question 41

A client prescribed a statin and gemfibrozil (Lopid) for hyperlipidemia reports an onset of muscle pain and weakness. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to evaluate?
A. Serum liver enzymes
B. T3 and T4 blood levels
C. Bowel function
D. Peripheral sensation

Answer 41

Serum liver enzymes

Question 42

An older client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) PO 2.5 mg twice a day. Which laboratory value should the nurse identify as a therapeutic response of the medication?
A. INR of 2 to 3
B. PT of 4 seconds
C. PTT of 20 seconds
D. aPTT of 3 times normal

Answer 42

INR of 2 to 3

Question 43

A client prescribed furosemide for the past six months is scheduled to receive digoxin for heart failure. Which laboratory serum levels should the nurse review before administering the digoxin?
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Furosemide

Answer 43

Potassium

Question 44

The nurse is planning discharge instructions for a client newly pre- scribed amitriptyline for depression. Which instruction is important for the nurse to include in the client’s teaching?
A. Do not ingest foods with tyramine
B. Avoid the consumption of alcohol
C. Obtain daily blood pressure readings
D. Take with a glass of orange juice

Answer 44

Avoid the consumption of alcohol

Question 45

A client at 30 weeks gestation in labor receives two 12 mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly 12 hours apart. The clients asks the nurse why she is receiving the betamethasone. Which explanation should the nurse give the client?
A. The medication suppresses uterine contractions
B. the medication stimulates fetal surfactant production
C. The medication reduces maternal and fetal tachycardia
D. The medication maintains adequate maternal respiratory effort

Answer 45

the medication stimulates fetal surfactant production

Question 46

The mother of a newborn refuses to have her newborn administer the vitamin K injection. Which information should the nurse pro- vide the mother?
A. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the new- born’s intestinal tract
B. Oral vitamin K impedes the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver
C. The maternal diet is often deficient in vitamin K, so the newborn is deficient in the vitamin K
D. The synthesis of vitamin K is inadequate for 3 to 4 months in the newborn

Answer 46

Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the new- born’s intestinal tract

Question 47

An end-stage terminally ill client being cared for at home is receiv- ing morphine via a patient-controlled pump for intractable cancer pain. When the hospice nurse visits, the client awakens, moans in severe pain, and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. The client’s heart rate is 80 beats/minute, respirations are 10 breaths/minute, and the blood pressure is 102/68 mHg. Which is he best action for the nurse to implement?
A. Titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief
B. Suggest to the family that they can also give the client ibuprofen, a non-narcotic analgesic
C. Hold additional morphine until the client’s respirations are at least 16 per minute
D. Inform the client that an increased dose of morphine increases side effects without additional pain control

Answer 47

Titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief

Question 48

The nurse is performing a physical assessment for a client who received fentanyl via an epidural infusion eight hours ago. Which finding should the nurse anticipate?
A. headache
B. Agitation
C. Urinary retention
D. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea

Answer 48

Urinary retention

Question 49

A client is being treated with imipramine, an anti-depressant for chronic cancer pain asks the nurse, “What is the reason for the antidepressant medication?” Which explanation should the nurse provide the client?

A. Increases pain threshold by stimulating opiate receptors in the CNS to release of endogeneous enkephalins
B. Decreases perception of pain by blocking opiate receptors in the brain and descending inhibitory nerves
C. Decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses
D. Increases pain tolerance through relief of depression by increasing the amounts of norepinephrine in the brain

Answer 49

Decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin
and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses

Question 50

The nurse should implement which action to provide analgesic titration for a client in pain?
A. teach the client to increase the time range between doses of pain medicatin
B. Monitor the effects of continuous intravenous infusion of nar- cotic analgesics
C. Plan with the client how to use a specific total dose of analgesic over a 24-hour period
D. Determine the optimal analgesic dosage required that causes the least side effects

Answer 50

Determine the optimal analgesic dosage required that causes the least side effects

Question 51

The nurse receives a unit of blood from the blood bank for a postoperative client who is currently in the X-ray department. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Return the blood to the blood bank for refrigeration within 30 minutes
B. Hang the blood transfusion as soon as the client returns to the unit
C. Store the blood bag in the nursing unit’s refrigerator until the client returns
D. take the unit of blood to the X-ray department to initiate the transfusion

Answer 51

Return the blood to the blood bank for refrigeration within 30 minutes

Question 52

A client is admitted for atrial fibrillation, and the healthcare provider prescribes disopyramide (Norpace). After explaining the action of the antidysrhythmic agent, which complaint should the nurse instruct the client to report?
A. Joint pain
B. Dizziness of muscle weakness
C. Daily weight gain of 2 pounds
D. dry mouth

Answer 52

Daily weight gain of 2 pounds

Question 53

When assessing a client prior to the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin, APO-digoxin), which data is most important for the nurse to consider?
A. Presence of a grade 2 murmur
B. Nail bed capillary refill of 5 seconds
c. Irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87
D. Bilateral lower extremity dependent rubor

Answer 53

Irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87

Question 54

A client with Paget’s disease is started on calcitonin (Calcimar) 500 mcg subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, what is the priority nursing action?
A. Assess the injection site for inflammation
B. Evaluate the client’s level of pain
C. Monitor the client’s alkaline phosphatase levels
D. Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity

Answer 54

Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity

Question 55

A 38-year-old gravida 2 para 2 is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis 9-months postpartum. A prescription is written for metronidazole (Flagyl). Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client before initiating treatment?
A. Sexual history
B. Use of oral contraceptives
C. Method of infant feeding
D. Possibility of pregnancy

Answer 55

Method of infant feeding

Question 56

A resident of a long-term care facility is taking lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat bipolar disorder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client’s caregivers?
A. Offer the morning dose of the medicine before breakfast
B. Have the client chew the pill if it is difficult to swallow
C. Encourage high energy fluid intake by providing sports drinks or sodas
D. Report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation

Answer 56

Report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation

Question 57

A 48-year-old client is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to an injection of contrast media. Which pharmacologic agent is of greatest use in this situation?
A. Dopamine (Intropin)
B. Loratadine (Claritin)
C. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Answer 57

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Question 58

A client calls the clinic and states that she forgot to take her oral contraceptives for the past two days. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide this client?
A. Take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days
B. Quit the pills for this cycle, use an alternate method of contraception, and resume pills on the fifth day of menstruation
C. Take one extra pill per day for the rest of this cycle, then resume taking pills as usual next cycle
D. Take 4 pills now and use an alternate method of contraception for the rest of this cycle

Answer 58

Take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days

Question 59

The nurse is instructing a client to avoid which product while taking carisoprodol for muscle spasms. The client verbalizes an understanding of instructions if they state they will not consume which type of product?
A. Coffee and teas
B. Grapefruit and juices
C. Alcoholic beverages
D. Dairy-based drinks

Answer 59

Alcoholic beverages

Question 60

A healthcare provider prescribes cefadroxil (Duricef) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycins
D. Sulfonamides

Answer 60

Penicillins

Question 61

An emergency department triage nurse is interviewing a female client has a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures controlled by phenytoin (Dilantin). Which information is most significant in planning this client’s care?
A. She has missed 2 menstrual periods
B. She has had no dental care for several years
C. She ran out of her medication 4 days ago
D. she has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 10 yers

Answer 61

She ran out of her medication 4 days ago

Question 62

The nurse is planning discharge instructions for a client prescribed pyridostigmine bromide tablets for myasthenia gravis (MG). Which instruction should the nurse include in the instructions?
A. Increase activity in the afternoon when the medication is most effective
B. Take the medication 30 to 45 minutes before eating
C. Use PRN dose for increasing muscular weakness or fascicu- lations
D. Maintain a diet that consists of low-protein foods

Answer 62

Take the medication 30 to 45 minutes before eating

Question 63

A client receives a new prescription for pentazocine (Talwin), a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist, after an opioid agonist is dis- continued. What is the advantage for the client when the new prescription is implemented?
A. tolerance does not occur
B. less agitation is experienced
C. The analgesic ceiling is higher
D. Respiratory depression is less

Answer 63

Respiratory depression is less

Question 64

A client is prescribed cefadroxil (Duricef) for a urinary tract infection. The client informs the nurse that she is currently aking oral contraceptives. Which client information should the nurse provide?
A. The antibiotic may be less effect while taking OCP
B. The medication combination potentiates the risk of adverse
reactions
C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking the antibiotic
D. Use an additional form of contraception until your menstrual cycle

Answer 64

Use an additional form of contraception until your menstrual cycle

Question 65

A client receives a new prescription for and ACE inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use?

A. Asthma
B. Heart failure
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Coronary artery disease

Answer 65

Renal artery stenosis

Question 66

A client receives a prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (septra) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
A. Ingest food prior to taking the antibiotic
B. Drink at least 8 glasses for water a day
C. take the medication with grapefruit juice
D. avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight

Answer 66

Drink at least 8 glasses for water a day

Question 67

A male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime (Claforan) IV and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor (Ceclor) or cefadroxil (Duricef), that he has taken before infections. How should the nurse respond when considering the actions of cephalosporins?
A. Cefazolin (Ancef) is another IV antibiotic that can be prescribed
B. Cefaclor (Ceclor) is a good alternative to suggest to the health-
care provider
C. Cefadroxil (Duricef) is usually prescribed when the IV is dis-
continued
D. Cefotaxime (Claforan) provides therapeutic CNS concentrations

Answer 67

Cefotaxime (Claforan) provides therapeutic CNS concentrations

Question 68

A client is administered an injection of medroxyprogesterone acetate (deop-provera). Which physical finding should the nurse instruct the client is an expected side effect of the medication?
A. leg or calf pain
B headaches or visual changes
C. Vaginal bleeding or spotting
D. Jaundice or angioedema

Answer 68

Vaginal bleeding or spotting

Question 69

The nurse administers the initial dose of a fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch to a client. Which assessment finding should the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A. The absence of seizures
B. The increase in lactation
C. The presence of bowel sounds
D. The number on the numeric pain scale

Answer 69

The number on the numeric pain scale

Question 70

The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?
A. Colchicine (Mitigare, Colcrys)
B. Erythromycin (E-mycin)
C. Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn)
D. Labetolol (Normodyne)

Answer 70

Colchicine (Mitigare, Colcrys)

Question 71

The nurse administers 30 mL of lactulose for a client with stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding would indi- cate the medication is being therapeutic?
A. A decrease in blood ammonia levels
B. A softening in the stools
C. An increase in glucose absorption D. A suppression of gut acidification

Answer 71

A decrease in blood ammonia levels