Pharm test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why might we use antitussives with caution for therapy?

A

They are narcotics

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2
Q

Explain the order of administration for Syrup of Ipecac and Activated Charcoal and the rationale that supports it.

A
  1. syrup of ipecac should be administered first.
  2. wait ~20 minutes since it has to pass through into the small intestine to act as an irritant
  3. animal vomits
  4. administer activated charcoal now to adsorb any remaining toxin left
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3
Q

Explain the term “up-regulation” as it pertains to β – blocking drugs used to heart disease, and the implications and concerns for the administration of these types of drugs?

A

Indicates that the body has responded to receptor activity being blocked so receptors have been taken up by the drug and therefore the body responds by producing more receptors needing an alteration increase in drug dose

The concern is that if the medication were to be stopped suddenly, all of the receptors – original ones AND now the additional ones will function and the result would be an extreme tachycardia event.

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4
Q

For the two emetics, Xylazine and Apomorphine, which species do they work best in?

A

Xylazine = Better in cats because they have more alpha 2 receptors
Apomorphine = Dogs because they have more dopamine receptors

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5
Q

What are receptors of the Sympathetic –> Adrenergic system

A

Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2

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6
Q

What are neurotransmitters of the Sympathetic –> Adrenergic system

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

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7
Q

What are receptors of the Parasympathetic-> Cholinergic system

A

Muscarinic
Nicotinic

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8
Q

What are neutrotransmitters of the Parasympathetic-> Cholinergic system

A

Actylcholine

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9
Q

What do the Cholinergic system do

A

Slow HR
Increase blood flow to the GI tract
Decreases bronchiole diameter

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10
Q

What does the adrenergic system do

A

Increase HR and force contraction
Elevated BP
Decreased activity of GI tract

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11
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for hyperosmolar laxatives

A

Are hypertonic salts that are poorly absorbed but they do create a strong osmotic force which attracts water into the bowel lumen.

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12
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for Locally acting emetics

A

Iritating the GI tract, distending the stomach, and/or stimulating parasympathetic nerves to send signals to the emetic center in the central nervous system

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13
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for Anti bloat medications

A

Designed to reduce gas buildup or facilitate the removal of gas from the rumen. Normal rumen and reticulum contractions allow partially digested plant food (the cud) to be regurgitated up the esophagus into the mouth, where it is chewed and swallowed (rumination or “chewing the cud”)

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14
Q

Explain why propranolol, an antiarrhythmic drug, may contribute to dyspnea ( difficult breathing) in animals with respiratory disease.

A

its antagonist effect means this drug also has the capacity to block stimulation of β2 receptors cause bronchodilation which affects breathing for patients

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15
Q

How does vasoconstriction occur as a consequence of heart failure, and how can it make heart failure worse?

A

CHF leads to decreased BP which Baroreceptors are BP sensors. When BP decreases the baroreceptors don’t send the signal to the brain to stop SNS from working, so the brain activates the SNS activity leading to vasoconstriction.
Makes it worse because in congenital heart failure, the heart is already weak to begin with. So even though vasoconstriction increases the blood pressure, it makes the heart work much harder to pump the blood.

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16
Q

What are the steps by which the renin-angiotensin system produces vasoconstriction and water retention?

A

1.Decreases arterial BP due to dehydration, blood loss, shock
2. That causes a decrease in BP with the blood flow to the kidneys and decreases urine filtration
3. Kidneys sense the BP decrease and start to produce renin in the blood
4. Renin convert angiotensinogen into angiotensitin 1
5. Moving Angiotensin 1 throughout the bloodstream and into the lungs comes across ACE
6. ACE enzyme converts Angiotensin 1 into Angiotensin 2 which is now the potent vasodilator
7. Angiotensin 2 stimulates adrenal glands that produce aldosterone which now causes increased reabsorption of sodium making blood volume increase
8. Vasoconstriction and increase blood volume will now raise the arterial blood pressure to normal

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17
Q

What are three possible complications of treatment with a loop diuretic?

A

Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Dehydration

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18
Q

Getting prescribed nitroglycerin, what precautions should owners take when treating this drug topically?

A

Drug can be absorbed through skin including owners, always wear gloves and tell everyone who is around that the cream is put on, as well as application of the patch should be changed with each dose

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19
Q

What unique method may apomorphine be administered?
Why is apomorphine administered this way? What is the aim of this route of administration?

A

Conjunctival sac
Going in the bloodstream it will take some time to diffuse across the barrier to reach the emetic center so it must achieve high blood concentrations quickly, so the CRTZ can be stimulated to produce emesis

It dissolves quickly and is rapidly absorbed through the mucous membranes, after desired effect the tablet is removed and the residue is flushed away

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20
Q

Why does enalapril cause vasodilation in animals with heart failure but have little effect in normal animals?

A

This drug is an ACE inhibitor that have a marked beneficial effect in animals with congestive heart failure
Normal animals show little response to these drugs because they have not activated the renin-angiotensin system, so there is no ACE present to inhibit with an ACE inhibitor

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21
Q

you overhear the veterinarian telling the owner of a cat with cardiomyopathy to administer aspirin. However, you remember that aspirin must be used with caution in cats. Is the doctor wrong to recommend aspirin for this cat?

A

Aspirin can be used in cats, but it must be used at doses that are lower than those used in dogs. The drug is designed to decrease the stickiness of platelets and therefore reduce natural clot formation often associated with feline cardiomyopathy.
Usually a 48 hr dose interval so the cat can metabolize and eliminate the drug

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22
Q

How does furosemide lessen the nosebleeds that racehorses experience during exertion?
What drug can be used?

A

Salix® –> Furosemide
Shifts fluid volume from the pulmonary circulation to the systemic circulation there by minimizing the pressure and reducing any hemorrhage.

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23
Q

When animals vomit, they become dehydrated from the loss of fluid in the vomitus and because they are not ingesting food or water. Why should an extremely dehydrated animal not receive a phenothiazine tranquillizer as an antiemetic before its dehydration is corrected with intravenous fluids?

A

Phenothiazines block alpha receptors, blocking the α1 receptor can block the body’s attempt to raise dropping blood pressure by blocking the vasoconstriction needed to do so. For this reason, animals hypotensive low BP should have the hypotensive state corrected before phenothiazine antiemetic therapy is initiated to prevent further decreases in blood pressure

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24
Q

What is the difference between a ruminatorics and an antibloat medication?
Which category does neostigmine belong to? What about docusate sodium succinate (DSS)?

A
  1. Prokinetic drug Stimulate an atonic rumen Not working properly that stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system to increase the motility of the GI tract.
  2. Anti-bloat is to free gas or frothy bloat
  3. Neostigmine is a ruminator drug that combines with the enzyme acetylcholinesterase and prevents it from breaking down the parasympathetic nervous system neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
  4. DSS is an anti-bloat medication
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25
What is the major difference between an ACE inhibitor and nitroglycerin?
1. Nitroglycerin is a drug that is specifically treated on the vasodilators, and its site of action is on the venous side of the circulatory system. 2. Ace inhibitors are drugs which work on the arterial side of the circulatory system and venous side!
26
What is preload
the pressure on the myeloid site in the walls of the ventricles with the volume of blood just before contraction
27
what is afterload
the pressure that the ventricles must now create in order to eject the blood out of the chamber
28
What is Conduction cells
Special cardiac cells passing along a depolarization wave through the heart, resulting a coordinated contraction **you are conduction something which also means coordination, in charge**
29
What is automaticity
ability of certain heart cells to depolarize spontaneously on its own
30
Whats the SA node
Pacemaker of the heart
31
Whats the P wave
Part of the ECG that represents artrial depolarization
32
Whats the AV node
Depolarization waves in the atria must pass to get to the ventricles, delaying depolarization was as it passes
33
Whats the PR interval
Movement of depolarization wave through AV node
34
Whats the QRS complex
Represents ventricular depolarization
35
Whats the T wave
represents ventricular repolarization
36
Whats potassium
an ion that is mostly concentrated on the inside of the cell when cardiac cell is resting
37
Whats sodium
Initiate depolarization
38
Whats sodium-potassium ATPase pump
Maintains concentrations of sodium & potassium in their respective locations during the polarized resting sate
39
Whats calcium
Ion that produces the plateau phase of cardiac muscle cells
40
Whats Arrhythymia
Any abnormal or irregular heart rhythm
41
Whats norepinephrine & Epinephrine
2 catecholamines (collection of chemicals) released by the sympathetic nervous system
42
Whats beta 1 do
Stimulation of this receptor increases HR
43
Whats beta 2 do
Stimulation of this receptor causes bronchodilation
44
What do cholinergic (muscarnic) do?
Stimulation of receptors slows HR
45
whats A1 receptors do
Stimulation of receptor does peripheral vasoconstriction
46
What is nebulization or aerosol therapy
Drug administration by a mist being inhaled
47
The active ingredient in Ventiplumin is?
Clenbuterol **not given to production animals** **Beta 2 antagonist**
48
Which category of drugs produce bronchodilation and mild diuresis
methylxanthines
49
Which of the following drugs will liquefy and dilute the viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions? drug name?
expectorants Guailaxin ---> Guaifenesin
50
Identify the specific drug which may be used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs and for analgesia and preanaesthesia in dogs and cats
butorphanol tartrate
51
Stimulation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system produces bronchodilation
Sympathetic
52
When foreign particles manage to get past the upper cilia they are trapped by mucus in the trachae; particles which may manage to get to the lower airways will be phagocytized by which of the following immunoglobulins?
IgA
53
Identify which of the following, when irritated, will produce a cough reflex from the cough centre in the brainstem.
All of the above
54
Which cardiovascular drug should be monitored for toxicity levels through blood testing?
Didgoxin --> Lanoxin™
55
Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
ACE inhibitors
56
The use of vasodilators in treating heart disease is believed to
Decrease preload
57
Vetmedin, pimobendan is known as an ______
as an inodilator
58
The SA node is commonly referred to as the pacemaker of the heart and as such will determine heart rate and ultimately influence heart rhythmn. Arrhythmias are often caused by cells known as:
ectopic foci
59
if a veterinarian were to thread a catheter into the heart by way of the jugualr vein into the anterior vena cava and then into the heart, what would be the first chamber of the heart the catheter would enter?
Right atrium
60
If a veterinarian were to thread a catheter up the femoral artery to the dorsal aorta and into the aorta itself, what chamber of the heart would the catheter enter?
Left ventricle
61
Loop diuretics inhibits the tubular reabsorption of
Sodium
62
Drug --> Category A. Furosemide B. Mannitol c. Enalapril d. Propranolol Osmotic diuretic, Loop diuretc, ACE inhibitor, Beta blocker
A. Furosemide = Loop diuretc B. Mannitol = Osmotic diuretic c. Enalapril = ACE inhibitor d. Propranolol = Beta blocker
63
What drug is used for rumen atony
Neostigmine
64
What part of the kidney is responsible for reabsorption of the secretion of certain substances
Tubules
65
What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics
Potassium
66
Which drug are contraindicated in a patient that has a history of hypotension and seizures
Acepromazine
67
Which hormone regulates sodium reabsorption from the urine?
Aldosterone
68
What drug is used primarily to reduce cerebral edema with head trauma
Mannitol
69
Furosemide may cause _____ in patients
Hypokalemia
70
Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid
Extracellular
71
Enalapril is an ___ (drug category)
Ace inhibitor
72
How do diuretics work?
Removing extracellular fluid, by increasing volume and sodium excretion and decreasing hypertension
73
What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
Spironolactone
74
Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic?
Inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium
75
3 basic control mechanisms of the GI tract
Autonomic nervous system Hormonal control Chemical control
76
what are 4 H2 receptors
Cimetidine Famotidine Nizatidine Ranitidine
77
this is the mechanism that traps inhaled particles in a mucous layer and moves it up and out of the respiratory tree
Mucociliary apparatus
78
This is the term that describes the narrowing of the terminal bronchioles.
bronchoconstriction
79
The type of drug that chemically breaks apart mucus
Mucolytic
80
The type of drug that suppresses cough.
Antitussive drug
81
The type of drug that does not break apart mucus but increases watery secretions in the lungs
expectorant
82
The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes peripheral vasoconstriction in the skin and mucous membranes.
Alpha - 1
83
The receptor through which histamine produces its inflammatory effects
Histamine type 1
84
This term means “dried out.”
Inspissated
85
This is the enzyme that degrades cAMP
Phosphodiesterase
86
This is the cellular compound that causes the smooth muscles of bronchioles to relax
cAMP
87
Expectorant; works by irritating the gastric lining. **DRUG
guaifenesin
88
Drug name for Centrally acting opioid antitussive; the only Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved veterinary product for cough
Butorphanol
89
Same drug group as caffeine and theobromine (in chocolate); a bronchodilator that contains 80% active ingredient and 20% salt
Aminophylline
90
Used in patients in which the inflammatory process is life threatening; not to be used with respiratory fungal disease; stabilizes cellular membranes more than antihistamines.
Glucocorticoid
91
Mucolytic that breaks apart sulfhydryl bonds (SS)
acetylcysteine
92
Drug type Prophylactic anti-inflammatory that decreases inflammatory response only if it is at the site of inflammation before the inflammation starts.
Antihistamine
93
Type of drug used to decrease pulmonary edema
Diuretic
94
Also used as an intravenously (IV) administered muscle relaxant for equine patients.
guaifenesin
95
Also used as an antidote in cats with acetaminophen toxicosis
acetylcysteine
96
Active ingredient of aminophylline
theophylline
97
Human prescription opioid antitussive that is widely used in human medicine, often in conjunction with other cold or flu medications; a strongly abused opioid; not used much in veterinary medicine
Codeine
98
Common antitussive ingredient in over-the-counter (OTC) cold preparations; not a controlled substance; not very effective in veterinary patients.
dextromethorphan
99
Bronchodilator that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase
Methylxanthines: theophylline and aminophylline
100
Why are antihistamines useful as antiemetic medications?
Because there are H1 receptors in the CRTZ.
101
Syrup of Ipecac is a centrally acting emetic?
False
102
Apomorphine is a centrally acting emetic
True
103
Trade name --> Drug name Vetmedin Optimmune Rompun Flagyl Inderal
xylaxine metronidazole cyclosporin propanolol pimobendan
104
Which of the following is a venodilator: nitroglycerin , lidocaine , quinine
Nitroglycerin
105
What concern do we have when an animal is on beta blocking drugs?
That the body will upregulate the number of receptors.
106
Angiotensinogen II is a potent vasoconstrictor.
True
107
Are beta blockers intended to work on beta one or beta two receptors?
Beta 1
108
Do beta blockers also work on beta two receptors?
yes
109
What drug form is lidocaine available in? Why?
Injectable only Undergoes significant first pass effect
110
What is the active ingredient in SALIX
Furosemide
111
Which of the following are functions of the kidney?
Removal of waste products
112
Furosemide is most effective in the early stages of kidney disease. WHY?
Active Transport Req
113
Which of the following may be effective in lessening motion sickness?
Benadryl
114
What do agonists do
Triggers receptors
115
What do antagonists do
Blocks receptors
116
what is albuterol trade name? What is it used for What do we do first?
Ventolin Used for dilating bronchioles by direct B2 receptors Warm up before use
117
What beta blocker drug is highly selective for beta 1
Atenolol
118
what beta blocker drug is Short acting
Esmolol
119
What beta blocker drug is unselective?
Propranolol
120
Whats the trade name for Digoxin?
Lanoxin™
121
What are Digoxin drugs? Whats a caution with Digoxin?
positive inotropic causing toxicity in the bloodstream if getting kicked out
122
What are the ACE inhibitor drugs
Prilium® ENACARD® --> Enalapril FORTEKOR® --> Benazepril Nitroprusside