Pharm test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why might we use antitussives with caution for therapy?

A

They are narcotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the order of administration for Syrup of Ipecac and Activated Charcoal and the rationale that supports it.

A
  1. syrup of ipecac should be administered first.
  2. wait ~20 minutes since it has to pass through into the small intestine to act as an irritant
  3. animal vomits
  4. administer activated charcoal now to adsorb any remaining toxin left
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the term “up-regulation” as it pertains to β – blocking drugs used to heart disease, and the implications and concerns for the administration of these types of drugs?

A

Indicates that the body has responded to receptor activity being blocked so receptors have been taken up by the drug and therefore the body responds by producing more receptors needing an alteration increase in drug dose

The concern is that if the medication were to be stopped suddenly, all of the receptors – original ones AND now the additional ones will function and the result would be an extreme tachycardia event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For the two emetics, Xylazine and Apomorphine, which species do they work best in?

A

Xylazine = Better in cats because they have more alpha 2 receptors
Apomorphine = Dogs because they have more dopamine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are receptors of the Sympathetic –> Adrenergic system

A

Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are neurotransmitters of the Sympathetic –> Adrenergic system

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are receptors of the Parasympathetic-> Cholinergic system

A

Muscarinic
Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are neutrotransmitters of the Parasympathetic-> Cholinergic system

A

Actylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do the Cholinergic system do

A

Slow HR
Increase blood flow to the GI tract
Decreases bronchiole diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the adrenergic system do

A

Increase HR and force contraction
Elevated BP
Decreased activity of GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for hyperosmolar laxatives

A

Are hypertonic salts that are poorly absorbed but they do create a strong osmotic force which attracts water into the bowel lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for Locally acting emetics

A

Iritating the GI tract, distending the stomach, and/or stimulating parasympathetic nerves to send signals to the emetic center in the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Briefly explain the mechanism of action for Anti bloat medications

A

Designed to reduce gas buildup or facilitate the removal of gas from the rumen. Normal rumen and reticulum contractions allow partially digested plant food (the cud) to be regurgitated up the esophagus into the mouth, where it is chewed and swallowed (rumination or “chewing the cud”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain why propranolol, an antiarrhythmic drug, may contribute to dyspnea ( difficult breathing) in animals with respiratory disease.

A

its antagonist effect means this drug also has the capacity to block stimulation of β2 receptors cause bronchodilation which affects breathing for patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does vasoconstriction occur as a consequence of heart failure, and how can it make heart failure worse?

A

CHF leads to decreased BP which Baroreceptors are BP sensors. When BP decreases the baroreceptors don’t send the signal to the brain to stop SNS from working, so the brain activates the SNS activity leading to vasoconstriction.
Makes it worse because in congenital heart failure, the heart is already weak to begin with. So even though vasoconstriction increases the blood pressure, it makes the heart work much harder to pump the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the steps by which the renin-angiotensin system produces vasoconstriction and water retention?

A

1.Decreases arterial BP due to dehydration, blood loss, shock
2. That causes a decrease in BP with the blood flow to the kidneys and decreases urine filtration
3. Kidneys sense the BP decrease and start to produce renin in the blood
4. Renin convert angiotensinogen into angiotensitin 1
5. Moving Angiotensin 1 throughout the bloodstream and into the lungs comes across ACE
6. ACE enzyme converts Angiotensin 1 into Angiotensin 2 which is now the potent vasodilator
7. Angiotensin 2 stimulates adrenal glands that produce aldosterone which now causes increased reabsorption of sodium making blood volume increase
8. Vasoconstriction and increase blood volume will now raise the arterial blood pressure to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are three possible complications of treatment with a loop diuretic?

A

Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Getting prescribed nitroglycerin, what precautions should owners take when treating this drug topically?

A

Drug can be absorbed through skin including owners, always wear gloves and tell everyone who is around that the cream is put on, as well as application of the patch should be changed with each dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What unique method may apomorphine be administered?
Why is apomorphine administered this way? What is the aim of this route of administration?

A

Conjunctival sac
Going in the bloodstream it will take some time to diffuse across the barrier to reach the emetic center so it must achieve high blood concentrations quickly, so the CRTZ can be stimulated to produce emesis

It dissolves quickly and is rapidly absorbed through the mucous membranes, after desired effect the tablet is removed and the residue is flushed away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why does enalapril cause vasodilation in animals with heart failure but have little effect in normal animals?

A

This drug is an ACE inhibitor that have a marked beneficial effect in animals with congestive heart failure
Normal animals show little response to these drugs because they have not activated the renin-angiotensin system, so there is no ACE present to inhibit with an ACE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

you overhear the veterinarian telling the owner of a cat with cardiomyopathy to administer aspirin. However, you remember that aspirin must be used with caution in cats. Is the doctor wrong to recommend aspirin for this cat?

A

Aspirin can be used in cats, but it must be used at doses that are lower than those used in dogs. The drug is designed to decrease the stickiness of platelets and therefore reduce natural clot formation often associated with feline cardiomyopathy.
Usually a 48 hr dose interval so the cat can metabolize and eliminate the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does furosemide lessen the nosebleeds that racehorses experience during exertion?
What drug can be used?

A

Salix® –> Furosemide
Shifts fluid volume from the pulmonary circulation to the systemic circulation there by minimizing the pressure and reducing any hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When animals vomit, they become dehydrated from the loss of fluid in the vomitus and because they are not ingesting food or water. Why should an extremely dehydrated animal not receive a phenothiazine tranquillizer as an antiemetic before its dehydration is corrected with intravenous fluids?

A

Phenothiazines block alpha receptors, blocking the α1 receptor can block the body’s attempt to raise dropping blood pressure by blocking the vasoconstriction needed to do so. For this reason, animals hypotensive low BP should have the hypotensive state corrected before phenothiazine antiemetic therapy is initiated to prevent further decreases in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between a ruminatorics and an antibloat medication?
Which category does neostigmine belong to? What about docusate sodium succinate (DSS)?

A
  1. Prokinetic drug Stimulate an atonic rumen Not working properly that stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system to increase the motility of the GI tract.
  2. Anti-bloat is to free gas or frothy bloat
  3. Neostigmine is a ruminator drug that combines with the enzyme acetylcholinesterase and prevents it from breaking down the parasympathetic nervous system neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
  4. DSS is an anti-bloat medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the major difference between an ACE inhibitor and nitroglycerin?

A
  1. Nitroglycerin is a drug that is specifically treated on the vasodilators, and its site of action is on the venous side of the circulatory system.
  2. Ace inhibitors are drugs which work on the arterial side of the circulatory system and venous side!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is preload

A

the pressure on the myeloid site in the walls of the ventricles with the volume of blood just before contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is afterload

A

the pressure that the ventricles must now create in order to eject the blood out of the chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Conduction cells

A

Special cardiac cells passing along a depolarization wave through the heart, resulting a coordinated contraction
you are conduction something which also means coordination, in charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is automaticity

A

ability of certain heart cells to depolarize spontaneously on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Whats the SA node

A

Pacemaker of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Whats the P wave

A

Part of the ECG that represents artrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Whats the AV node

A

Depolarization waves in the atria must pass to get to the ventricles, delaying depolarization was as it passes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Whats the PR interval

A

Movement of depolarization wave through AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Whats the QRS complex

A

Represents ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Whats the T wave

A

represents ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Whats potassium

A

an ion that is mostly concentrated on the inside of the cell when cardiac cell is resting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Whats sodium

A

Initiate depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Whats sodium-potassium ATPase pump

A

Maintains concentrations of sodium & potassium in their respective locations during the polarized resting sate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Whats calcium

A

Ion that produces the plateau phase of cardiac muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Whats Arrhythymia

A

Any abnormal or irregular heart rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Whats norepinephrine & Epinephrine

A

2 catecholamines (collection of chemicals) released by the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Whats beta 1 do

A

Stimulation of this receptor increases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Whats beta 2 do

A

Stimulation of this receptor causes bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do cholinergic (muscarnic) do?

A

Stimulation of receptors slows HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

whats A1 receptors do

A

Stimulation of receptor does peripheral vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is nebulization or aerosol therapy

A

Drug administration by a mist being inhaled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The active ingredient in Ventiplumin is?

A

Clenbuterol
not given to production animals
Beta 2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which category of drugs produce bronchodilation and mild diuresis

A

methylxanthines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following drugs will liquefy and dilute the viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions?
drug name?

A

expectorants
Guailaxin —> Guaifenesin

50
Q

Identify the specific drug which may be used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs and for analgesia and preanaesthesia in dogs and cats

A

butorphanol tartrate

51
Q

Stimulation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system produces bronchodilation

A

Sympathetic

52
Q

When foreign particles manage to get past the upper cilia they are trapped by mucus in the trachae; particles which may manage to get to the lower airways will be phagocytized by which of the following immunoglobulins?

A

IgA

53
Q

Identify which of the following, when irritated, will produce a cough reflex from the cough centre in the brainstem.

A

All of the above

54
Q

Which cardiovascular drug should be monitored for toxicity levels through blood testing?

A

Didgoxin –> Lanoxin™

55
Q

Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitors

56
Q

The use of vasodilators in treating heart disease is believed to

A

Decrease preload

57
Q

Vetmedin, pimobendan is known as an ______

A

as an inodilator

58
Q

The SA node is commonly referred to as the pacemaker of the heart and as such will determine heart rate and ultimately influence heart rhythmn. Arrhythmias are often caused by cells known as:

A

ectopic foci

59
Q

if a veterinarian were to thread a catheter into the heart by way of the jugualr vein into the anterior vena cava and then into the heart, what would be the first chamber of the heart the catheter would enter?

A

Right atrium

60
Q

If a veterinarian were to thread a catheter up the femoral artery to the dorsal aorta and into the aorta itself, what chamber of the heart would the catheter enter?

A

Left ventricle

61
Q

Loop diuretics inhibits the tubular reabsorption of

A

Sodium

62
Q

Drug –> Category
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
c. Enalapril
d. Propranolol

Osmotic diuretic, Loop diuretc, ACE inhibitor, Beta blocker

A

A. Furosemide = Loop diuretc
B. Mannitol = Osmotic diuretic
c. Enalapril = ACE inhibitor
d. Propranolol = Beta blocker

63
Q

What drug is used for rumen atony

A

Neostigmine

64
Q

What part of the kidney is responsible for reabsorption of the secretion of certain substances

A

Tubules

65
Q

What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics

A

Potassium

66
Q

Which drug are contraindicated in a patient that has a history of hypotension and seizures

A

Acepromazine

67
Q

Which hormone regulates sodium reabsorption from the urine?

A

Aldosterone

68
Q

What drug is used primarily to reduce cerebral edema with head trauma

A

Mannitol

69
Q

Furosemide may cause _____ in patients

A

Hypokalemia

70
Q

Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid

A

Extracellular

71
Q

Enalapril is an ___ (drug category)

A

Ace inhibitor

72
Q

How do diuretics work?

A

Removing extracellular fluid, by increasing volume and sodium excretion and decreasing hypertension

73
Q

What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A

Spironolactone

74
Q

Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic?

A

Inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium

75
Q

3 basic control mechanisms of the GI tract

A

Autonomic nervous system
Hormonal control
Chemical control

76
Q

what are 4 H2 receptors

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine
Ranitidine

77
Q

this is the mechanism that traps inhaled particles in a mucous layer and moves it up and out of the respiratory tree

A

Mucociliary apparatus

78
Q

This is the term that describes the narrowing of the terminal bronchioles.

A

bronchoconstriction

79
Q

The type of drug that chemically breaks apart mucus

A

Mucolytic

80
Q

The type of drug that suppresses cough.

A

Antitussive drug

81
Q

The type of drug that does not break apart mucus but increases watery secretions in the lungs

A

expectorant

82
Q

The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes peripheral vasoconstriction in the skin and mucous membranes.

A

Alpha - 1

83
Q

The receptor through which histamine produces its inflammatory effects

A

Histamine type 1

84
Q

This term means “dried out.”

A

Inspissated

85
Q

This is the enzyme that degrades cAMP

A

Phosphodiesterase

86
Q

This is the cellular compound that causes the smooth muscles of bronchioles to relax

A

cAMP

87
Q

Expectorant; works by irritating the gastric lining. **DRUG

A

guaifenesin

88
Q

Drug name for
Centrally acting opioid antitussive; the only Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved veterinary product for cough

A

Butorphanol

89
Q

Same drug group as caffeine and theobromine (in chocolate); a bronchodilator that contains 80% active ingredient and 20% salt

A

Aminophylline

90
Q

Used in patients in which the inflammatory process is life threatening; not to be used with respiratory fungal disease; stabilizes cellular membranes more than antihistamines.

A

Glucocorticoid

91
Q

Mucolytic that breaks apart sulfhydryl bonds (SS)

A

acetylcysteine

92
Q

Drug type
Prophylactic anti-inflammatory that decreases inflammatory response only if it is at the site of inflammation before the inflammation starts.

A

Antihistamine

93
Q

Type of drug used to decrease pulmonary edema

A

Diuretic

94
Q

Also used as an intravenously (IV) administered muscle relaxant for equine patients.

A

guaifenesin

95
Q

Also used as an antidote in cats with acetaminophen toxicosis

A

acetylcysteine

96
Q

Active ingredient of aminophylline

A

theophylline

97
Q

Human prescription opioid antitussive that is widely used in human medicine, often in conjunction with other cold or flu medications; a strongly abused opioid; not used much in veterinary medicine

A

Codeine

98
Q

Common antitussive ingredient in over-the-counter (OTC) cold preparations; not a controlled substance; not very effective in veterinary patients.

A

dextromethorphan

99
Q

Bronchodilator that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase

A

Methylxanthines: theophylline and aminophylline

100
Q

Why are antihistamines useful as antiemetic medications?

A

Because there are H1 receptors in the CRTZ.

101
Q

Syrup of Ipecac is a centrally acting emetic?

A

False

102
Q

Apomorphine is a centrally acting emetic

A

True

103
Q

Trade name –> Drug name
Vetmedin
Optimmune
Rompun
Flagyl
Inderal

A

xylaxine
metronidazole
cyclosporin
propanolol
pimobendan

104
Q

Which of the following is a venodilator:
nitroglycerin , lidocaine , quinine

A

Nitroglycerin

105
Q

What concern do we have when an animal is on beta blocking drugs?

A

That the body will upregulate the number of receptors.

106
Q

Angiotensinogen II is a potent vasoconstrictor.

A

True

107
Q

Are beta blockers intended to work on beta one or beta two receptors?

A

Beta 1

108
Q

Do beta blockers also work on beta two receptors?

A

yes

109
Q

What drug form is lidocaine available in?
Why?

A

Injectable only
Undergoes significant first pass effect

110
Q

What is the active ingredient in SALIX

A

Furosemide

111
Q

Which of the following are functions of the kidney?

A

Removal of waste products

112
Q

Furosemide is most effective in the early stages of kidney disease. WHY?

A

Active Transport Req

113
Q

Which of the following may be effective in lessening motion sickness?

A

Benadryl

114
Q

What do agonists do

A

Triggers receptors

115
Q

What do antagonists do

A

Blocks receptors

116
Q

what is albuterol trade name?
What is it used for
What do we do first?

A

Ventolin
Used for dilating bronchioles by direct B2 receptors
Warm up before use

117
Q

What beta blocker drug is highly selective for beta 1

A

Atenolol

118
Q

what beta blocker drug is Short acting

A

Esmolol

119
Q

What beta blocker drug is unselective?

A

Propranolol

120
Q

Whats the trade name for Digoxin?

A

Lanoxin™

121
Q

What are Digoxin drugs?
Whats a caution with Digoxin?

A

positive inotropic
causing toxicity in the bloodstream if getting kicked out

122
Q

What are the ACE inhibitor drugs

A

Prilium®
ENACARD® –> Enalapril
FORTEKOR® –> Benazepril
Nitroprusside