Pharm quizzes for Exam 1

Question 1

Which of these drug classes cause a significant decrease in cardiac output when they’re started?

angiotensin receptor blockers
dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors

Answer 1

beta blockers

Question 2

Bradycardia is most likely to be caused by which of these drugs?

losartan (Cozaar)
amlodipine (Norvasc)
lisinopril (Prinivil)
diltiazem (Cardizem)

Answer 2

Diltiazem (CCB)

Question 3

A chronic, dry, non-productive cough is a common reason for patients to discontinue which of these drugs?

non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
angiotensin receptor blockers
dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Answer 3

ACE inhibitors

Question 4

Beta-blockers impact stroke volume in what ways?

-Increased preload, Increased afterload, Increased contractility
-Decreased preload, Decreased afterload, and Decreased contractility
-Decreased preload, Mixed effects on afterload, Increased contractility
-Increased preload, Mixed effects on afterload, and Decreased contractility

Answer 4

Increased preload, mixed effects on afterload, and decreased contractility

Question 5

Concurrent use of NSAIDs and dehydration increase the risk for what adverse effect in patients being treated with an ACE inhibitor?

hypokalemia
bradycardia
acute renal failure
angioedema

Answer 5

acute renal failure

Question 6

Edema is an adverse effect most likely to be seen with which of these drugs?

ramipril (Altace)
verapamil (Calan SR)
valsartan (Diovan)
amlodipine (Norvasc)

Answer 6

amlodipine (CCB)

Question 7

The process by which drugs are made more water soluble so they can be removed from the body is known as what?

distribution
metabolism
absorption
elimination

Answer 7

metabolism

Question 8

Symptoms that are limited to swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat in a patient who is taking an ACE inhibitor is most likely what adverse reaction?

anaphylaxis
angioedema
upper esophageal spasms
these drugs do not cause reactions like this

Answer 8

angioedema

Question 9

Which of these is the best at significantly lowering LDL-cholesterol?

omega-3 fatty acids
fenofibrate (Tricor)
pravastatin (Pravachol)
gemfibrozil (Lopid)

Answer 9

pravastatin

Question 10

Bradycardia is an adverse effect most likely to be associated with which of these drugs?

furosemide (Lasix)
ezetimibe (Zetia)
atenolol (Tenormin)
simvastatin (Zocor)

Answer 10

Atenolol (BB)

Question 11

Which of these drugs can significantly increase serum calcium levels?

thiazide diuretics
beta-blockers
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
omega-3 fatty acids

Answer 11

thiazide diuretics

Question 12

An increased risk of bleeding or bruising is most of a concern with which of these drugs?

omega-3 fatty acids
fibric acid derivatives
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
loop diuretics

Answer 12

omega-3 fatty acids

Question 13

Which of these drugs is safest to use in a patient who has mild asthma?

carvedilol (Coreg)
metoprolol (Lopressor)
propranolol (Inderal)
all of these have identical risks

Answer 13

metoprolol (BB)

Question 14

Which of these drugs is most likely to substantially decrease serum triglyceride levels?

pravastatin (Pravachol)
fenofibrate (Tricor)
ezetimibe (Zetia)
simvastatin (Zocor)

Answer 14

fenofibrate

Question 15

Which of these drugs is less likely to work in patients with significantly decreased renal function?

hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
furosemide (Lasix)
torsemide (Demadex)
metoprolol (Lopressor)

Answer 15

hydrochlorothiazide (diuretic)

Question 16

Which of these is NOT a risk factor for muscle toxicity associated with statins?

-combined use with gemfibrozil
-use with drugs that interfere with statin metabolism
-higher doses
-female sex

Answer 16

female sex

Question 17

Which of these is NOT true regarding how older anti-seizure drugs compare with newer anti-seizure drugs?

-older agents tend to have more significant adverse effects
-older agents generally have a higher risk of causing drug interactions
-older agents are less effective
-older agents tend to be more complicated to use

Answer 17

older agents are less effective

Question 18

Patients of Asian heritage should get a genetic test before receiving what drug?

gabapentin (Neurontin)
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
levetiracetam (Keppra)
amiodarone (Cordarone)

Answer 18

Carbamazepine (Antiepileptic)

Question 19

Which of these drugs can cause hypo- and/or hyperthyroidism?

valproic acid (Depakote)
lamotrigine (Lamictal)
flecainide (Tambocor)
amiodarone (Cordarone)

Answer 19

amiodarone (anti- arrhythmic)

Question 20

Which of these can decrease serum potassium by causing potassium to move out of the extracellular space into cells?

amiodarone (Cordarone)
insulins
levetiracetam (Keppra)
flecainide (Tambocor)

Answer 20

insulins

Question 21

Which of these drugs can significantly prolong the QT interval and increase the risk for Torsades de Pointes (TdP), particularly in individuals with structural heart disease, making it not recommended for that population?

carbamazepine (Tegretol)
flecainide (Tambocor)
oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
amiodarone (Cordarone)

Answer 21

flecainide

Question 22

Metabolic acidosis and kidney stones are risks associated with which of these drugs?

topiramate (Topamax)
lamotrigine (Lamictal)
gabapentin (Neurontin)
valproic acid (Depakote)

Answer 22

topiramate (anti-epileptic)

Question 23

Which of these insulins has the LONGEST DURATION of insulin activity?

insulin glargine (Lantus)
regular insulin
insulin lispro (Humalog)
insulin aspart (Novolog)

Answer 23

insulin glargine

Question 24

Flecainide has a half-life (T1/2) of approximately 20 hours. After a patient stops taking it, approximately how long will it take for the drug to be completely (>95%) removed from their body?

48 hours
20 hours
100 hours
20 months

Answer 24

100 hours