Pharm Presentations Flashcards
Which of the following is not a class of diuretics Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors Thiazide Diuretics Osmotic Diuretics Aldosterone Agonists
aldosterone agonist
Which of the following drugs potentiate rocuronium administration? Furosemide Hydrochlorothiazide Amiloride Tolvaptan
furosemide
What is the appropriate dose and drug given for Malignant Hyperthermia? Dantrolene Sodydramine 2.5mg/kg Dantrolene Sodium 2.5mg/kg Dantrolene Sodium 25mg/kg Myfrienddan Sodium 25kg/kg
Dantrolene Sodium 2.5mg/kg
Which of the following is contraindicated with the administration of Dantrolene Sodium? Calcium Channel Blockers Nifedipine Nicardipine Felodipine All of the above
all of the above
Which vitamin deficiency prolongs neuromuscular blockade? Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin K Vitamin C
vitamin B
Which supplement could greatly reduce the effect of drug agents that are metabolized by CYP450? St. John’s Wort Vitamin K Ma Huang Valerian
st johns wort
Which medication does garlic interact with? Warfarin Erythromycin Epinephrine Zofran
warfarin
What can you give for warfarin-associated bleeding? Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin K Vitamin C
vitamin K
Which of the oral antacids is LEAST likely to be associated with pneumonitis if inhaled? A. Aluminum Hydroxide B. Calcium Carbonate C. Sodium Bicarbonate D. Sodium Citrate
sodium citrate
Prior to induction of anesthesia you administer 40mg of famotidine in the preoperative area to decrease the risk of aspiration pneumonitis in your patient. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?
A. Directly and irreversibly binds to the proton pump inhibiting gastric acid secretion
B. Prevents histamine release from enterochromaffin like cells
C. Reversibly binds and blocks parietal H2 receptors preventing H+ ion secretion
D. Increases sodium bicarb production from parietal cells
Reversibly binds and blocks parietal H2 receptors preventing H+ ion secretion
A patient with a 20 year history of Type II Diabetes presents to pre-op complaining of belching and bloating following meals. On several occasions, vomiting has occurred after a meal. Assessment reveals a diagnosis of diabetic gastroparesis with delayed gastric emptying. Which drug would be most useful in this patient? A. Famotidine B. Metoclopramide C. Omeprazole D. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
Select the following TRUE statements: 1. Protonix is the most potent PPI 2. Protonix must be administered the night before surgery to produce an effect 3. PPI’s are the most effective drugs available for controlling gastric acidity and volume 4. Protonix is an H2-Blocker A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 4 D. 3 & 4
1&3
Patients who have received bleomycin:
Should receive crystalloids for fluid replacement perioperatively
Are at risk for developing pulmonary fibrosis
Should receive high concentrations of oxygen perioperatively
Patients with renal dysfunction are not at increased risk for developing hypoxic pulmonary injury perioperatively
are at risk for developing pulmonary fibrosis
Which of the following statements regarding mechanism of action of chemotherapy drugs is correct?
Signal transduction modulators bind to DNA altering the helix to interfere with nucleic acids’ ability to serve as a template during replication
Topoisomerase inhibitors block enzymes responsible for correcting alterations in occurring during replication and transcription
Taxanes are antimitotic agents that inhibit microtubule formation
Vinca Alkaloids use hormones to disrupt growth factor receptor interactions responsible for production of cell proliferation molecules
Taxanes are antimitotic agents that inhibit microtubule formation
Which of the following side effects of chemotherapy are NOT related to myelosuppression? Anemia Alopecia Bleeding Risk Infection Risk
alopecia
Which of the following statements is true regarding administration and dosing of chemotherapeutics?
It is best to use one chemotherapeutic agent to minimize side effect profile
Chemotherapy is usually given in small doses over a long period of time
Myleosuppression is not a significant dose-limiting factor
Repetitive dosing cycles are most often necessary to reach complete eradication of malignant cells
Repetitive dosing cycles are most often necessary to reach complete eradication of malignant cells
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially fatal consequence of excessive CNS serotonergic activity which may occur with therapeutic doses of medications but is more likely attributable to overdose or drug–drug interactions which contribute synergistically to increased serotonergic activity. With respect to administration of analgesics, which of the following drugs is least likely to contribute to serotonergic activity?
A. Alfentanil
B. Meperidine
C. Morphine
D. Tramadol
C. Morphine
With respect to the administration of direct- or indirect-acting sympathomimetics in the perioperative period, which drug class has the least concern for cardiovascular instability?
A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Neurologic malignant syndrome is a rare side-effect which mimics malignant hyperthermia. Which of these medication classes is most responsible for this adverse effect?
A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
B. Antimanic medications
C. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
D. Antipsychotics
D. Antipsychotics
Which psychotropic medication can be smoked and therefore increase the incidence of a reactive airway? A. Cannabis B. Lithium C. Haldol D. None of the above
A. Cannabis
What drug causes “purple glove” syndrome?
a) Levetiracetam
b) Topiramate
c) Lorazepam
d) Fosphenytoin
d) Fosphenytoin
. What inhalation agent can provoke seizure-like activity?
a) Isoflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
Select all that apply to a FOCAL onset seizure.
a) It involves both brain hemispheres.
b) Begins in a local cortical site.
c) Awareness is impaired.
d) Consciousness is maintained
b) Begins in a local cortical site.
c) Awareness is impaired.
Select all the medications that produce myoclonus:
Select all the medications that produce myoclonus:
a) Etomidate
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Gabapentin
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
Niacin would be likely to exacerbate which of the following conditions A) COPD B) Gout C) CHF D) Rheumatoid arthritis E) Sickle cell
B) Gout
2. Which of the following drugs would be the best choice for a patient with liver disease? Gemfibrozil Fenofibrate Niacin D. Atorvastatin
D. Atorvastatin
3. What neuromuscular blocking drug is NOT recommended for patients on prolonged statin therapy? Succinylcholine Cisatracurium Vecuronium Rocuronium Curare
succinylcholine
4. Which drug has the most severe adverse effects including rhabdomyolysis? A. Omega-3 Fatty Acid B. Bezafibrate C. Ezetimibe D. Lovastatin
D. Lovastatin
What phase of immunosuppression would the CRNA most likely be involved in during organ transplantation? Anti-rejection Sequential Therapy Induction Introduction All of the above
Induction
Glucocorticoids are used for all of the following EXCEPT: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Organ Transplantation Acute Glomerulonephritis Diabetes Mellitus
Diabetes Mellitus
What are the most concerning side effects of cyclosporine? HTN and hyperglycemia Renal toxicity and myocardial depression Renal toxicity and HTN HTN and pilomotor spasm
Renal toxicity and HTN
Which medication is used in the induction phase of immunosuppression or for acute rejection? Azathropine Rabbit Antithymocyte globulin (RATG) Basiliximab Cyclosporine
Rabbit Antithymocyte globulin (RATG)
