Pharm pre test Flashcards

1
Q

what are common fungal infections requiring treatment?

A

yeasts, molds, athletes fooot, oral candidiasis

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2
Q

what is it called when candidiasis occurs in the mouth?

A

oral candidiasis/thrush

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3
Q

what medications treats oral candidiasis/thrush?

A

nystatin

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4
Q

what makes women at highher risk for vaginal candidiasis?

A

oral contraceptives, pregannacy

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5
Q

what medications treat vaginal candidiasis?

A

fluconazole

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6
Q

what is the difference between systemic and cutaneous/subcutaneous fungal infections?

A

systemic can be life-threatening because it involves the body systems, whereas the other is not

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7
Q

what antifungals are used to treat systemic mycoses?

A

amphotericin B, fluconazole, nystatin, terbinafine, ketonazole

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8
Q

when are topical antifungals used?

A

treatment of dermatomycoses, oral and vaginal mycoses

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9
Q

What are side effects of amphotericin B? (SABA)
a. dysrhythmias, neurotixcity
b. renal toxicity, pulmonary infiltrated
c. fever, child
d. headache, hypotension, GI prob.
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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10
Q

how are amphotericin B effects reduced?

A

by diluting it

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11
Q

What are nursing indications for IV antifungals?

A

monitor vital signs every 15 minutes once IV has started, tissue extravasation of fluconazole at the IV site lead to tissue necrosis therefore, check the site hourly and document the assessment

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12
Q

What drug is used for ophthalmic use?

A

natamycin

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13
Q

which drug can pass into the CSF and treat cryptococcla meningitis?

A

fluconazole

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14
Q

where are onychomycoses infections typically seen in the body?

A

skin, hair, nails

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15
Q

tineapedis

A

athletes foot

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16
Q

tineacrusis

A

jock itch

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17
Q

tineacorporis

A

ringworm

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18
Q

What are concerns related to the P-450 enzyme?

A

dysrhythmias, pregannacy = fetal harm; category D

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19
Q

which medicayiton can cause optic neuritis?

A

ethambutol

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20
Q

optic neuritis

A

blindness

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21
Q

what medications cause bodily fluids, waste, and contact lenses to turn red-orange-brown in color?

A

rifabutin, rifampin, rifapentine

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22
Q

what do women of child brearing age need to be taught regarding medication effectiveness?

A

reduce effectiveness of oral contraceptive

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23
Q

why should a patient’s uric acid level be monitored

A

monitor uric acid levels during therapy, and advise patients to report any symptoms of gout

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24
Q

What are the symptoms of gout?

A

hot painful, or swollen joints of the big toe, knee, or ankle

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25
what medications are related to uric acid?
PZA (Pyranzimide)
26
What are adverse reactions for antitubercular drugs?
ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, vision problems, GI problsm, feve,r jaundice
27
what is the black bow warninig for INH?
pyrodixone adn liver toxicity
28
what vitamin becomes low when taking INH?
vitamin B6
29
what are the initial goals of treatment for antitubercular drugs?
reduction of cough reduction of infectious pateint
30
How long until the transmission process of antitubercular last?
2 weeks
31
what are the two primary mechanisms of action for TB drugs?
inhibiting protein synthesis inhibiting cell wall synthesis, or other mechanisms
32
how does treatment change when teh culture results are received?
once drug susceptibility results are available, the regimen is adjusted accordingly
33
What are the four common drugs started prior to culture results?
isoniazid rifampin pyrazinamide (PZA) ethambutol or streptomycin
34
what drug is given for TB prophylaxis?
INH
35
what are the classes of antitubercular drugs?
INH (first-line drug) rifampin (second-line drug)
36
what minority groups are at high risk of getting TB?
white, hispanic, asian - those in third world countries
37
MRD-TB
resistant both (INH) and rifampin
38
XDR-TB
drug resistant, rare
39
how is TB transmitted?
through human, cattle, or birds
40
how do hospitals contain the transmission?
droplet precautions and medication antibiotics for 2 weeks until not contagious any more
41
What is PPD?
TB skin test
42
who should not get a PPD test?
pregnancy, HIV people, those younger than 6 months
43
What is tuberculosis?
medical diagnosis for any infetions caused by a bacterial belie known as mycobacterium
44
where are common sites for infeciton and why?
lungs (granulomas), lymph nodes, brain (cerebral cortex), bone (growing ends)
45
what are less common sites for infections of TB?
liver, kidney, GI
46
is every patient that has TB sick?
no, varies depending on the person
47
what are common protozoal infections?
malaria, emabiasis, giardiasis
48
how are protozoal infections transmitted?
person-to-person contact, ingestion of contaiminated water or food, direct contact with the parasite, bite of an insect (mosquitor/tick)
49
what are the classic symptoms of malaria?
malaria paroxysm
50
malaria paroxsym
fever of 104 and diaphoresis, leading to extreme fatigue and prolonged sleeping
51
What are the life cycle of malaria
asexual (exoerythrocytic) sexual (erythrocyticphase)
52
asexual cycle (out)
outside aka tissue phase
53
sexual cycle (in)
aka blood phase
54
how does this affect medications given for prophylaxis?
when used for prophylaxis, drugs should be started 1-2 weeks before potential exposure to malaria and 4-8 hours after. - medications are taken weekly with 8 oz of water
55
which drug works during both phase sof the life cycle?
primaquine
56
what adjunct drugs are typically used with antimalarial drugs?
antibiotics: sulfonamides, tetracycline, clindamycin
57
why are ajdunct drugs used?
used in combination with antimalarials for synergistic effect
58
what drug has antibacterial, antiprotozoal, and anthelmintic properties?
metronidazole
59
what drug has antibacterial, antiprotozoal, and anthelmintic properties?
metronidazole
60
what drug has antibacterial, antiprotozoal, and anthelmintic properties?
mentronidazole
61
how long should alcohol be avoided when using metronidazole
24 hours before therapy and 48 hours after last dose
62
what antimalarial drug is used for RA and SLE?
hydroxychloroquine
63
why is hydroxychloroquine helpful for RE and SLE (lupus) treatment?
has antiinflammatory effects
64
how is giardiadid and trichomonad transmitted?
person-to-person contact, ingestion of contaminated water or food, direct contact with the parasite, and bite of an insect
65
cestodes
tapeworms
66
nematodes
roundworms
67
trematodes
flukes
68
platyhelminthes
flatworm
69
what are common anthelminitc drugs?
praziquantel, pyrantel, albendazole, ivermectin
70
praziquantel
treat fluke infections and tapeworms
71
pyrantel
treat rounworms
72
adverse effects of anthelmintics drugs
gi prob., headache
73
what patient teaching is relevant with anthelmintic drugs?
take with food take as prescribed some drugs can cause asparagus-like odor or unusual skin color, or metallic taste be sure to warn the patient ahead of time,