Pharm NBDE II Flashcards

1
Q

what local anesthetics are esters

A

procaine, tetracaine, cocaine

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2
Q

where are amides metabolized?

A

liver

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3
Q

where are esters metabolized?

A

MAINLY esterase’s in the plasma

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4
Q

which class of drugs has the most consistency in structure?

A

local anesthetics
they differ only in their immediate chains (ester or amide) that connects the aromatic group to the tertiary amino terminus

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5
Q

what causes methemoglobinemia?

A

prilocaine and acetominophen at high doses

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6
Q

what does high systemic levels of local anesthetic lead to?

A

cardiovascular collapse due to DIRECT myocardial depression and hypotensive shock

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7
Q

how do local anesthetics work?

A

prevent the generation of nerve impulses by interfering with sodium transport into the neuron

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8
Q

what form of LA can penetrate tissue membrane?

A

non-ionized, free-base form

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9
Q

the duration of lidocaine is increased in the presence of what drug? and why?

A

propranolol
propranolol is a beta blower, slows heart, slows blood delivery to liver so that lido is not metabolized and remains in systemic circulation for longer also they compete for the same enzyme site

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10
Q

do esters or amides have longer half lives?

A

amides

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11
Q

what is the most probable cause of a serious severe LA toxic reaction?

A

excessive blood levels due to intravascular injection

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12
Q

initially high levels of LA lead to what?

A

depression of inhibitory neurons on the CNS ** aka cns stimulation (which can lead to convulsion) –> higher levels depress inhibitory and excitatory neurons which leads to overall cans depression which can lead to respiratory depression and death

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13
Q

what disease would make the patient most sensitive to epinephrine in LA?

A

Graves- hyperthyroidism results in high levels of circulating thyroid hormone which causes a hyper metabolic state and increases sympathetic activity which would lead to a hypertensive crisis

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14
Q

what is the only anesthetic that predictably produces vasoconstriction?

A

cocaine

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15
Q

given the pKa of a drug, if the pH of body tissue is less (more acidic from inflammation), which form of the drug will predominate?

A

the ionized (charged) form of the drug. This makes it harder for the drug to penetrate the membrane.

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16
Q

what form of LA blocks nerve conduction?

A

positively charged - LA penetrate as unionized into the neuron and then re-equibrilate back to charged and uncharged inside to block conduction

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17
Q

what are the AHA limits (in mg) of epi in cardiovascular disease vs. regular patients

A

0.04 mg for cardiovascular disease vs. 0.2 mg in healthy

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18
Q

why is penicillin G injected rather than take orally?

A

sensitive to acid degradation

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19
Q

which penicillin has the best gram negative spectrum?

A

ampicillin

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20
Q

hat drugs are cross-reactive with penicillin?

A

cephalosporin and ampicillin

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21
Q

which penicillin is useful against penicillanse-producing bugs like staph?

A

dicloxacillin

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22
Q

what Ab is good for pseudomonas infections?

A

carbenicillin because its extended spectrum

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23
Q

what is given prophylactically for dental procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis?

A

2g of amoxicillin - clindamycin if allergies

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24
Q

how do bactericidal agents work?

A

kill bacteria through inhibiting rapidly growing cell wall synthesis

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25
Q

how do bacteriostatic agents work?

A

interfere with protein synthesis on bacterial ribosomes - limit growth

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26
Q

how do antifungals work?

A

bing ergosterol on fungal cell walls to weaken the the wall

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27
Q

how to sulfonamides work?

A

sulfonamide is a bacteristatic ab that competes with PABA in folic acid synthesis, thus resulting in a folic acid deficiency

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28
Q

what symptoms are associated with penicillins?

A

dermatitis, stomatitis, bronchoconstriction and cardiovascular collapse

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29
Q

what ab produces upset stomach and pseudomonas colitis

A

clindamycin

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30
Q

what type of ab is most likely to cause superinfection? least likely?

A

broad spec most likely and narrow spec least likely

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31
Q

what side effect is associated with the ab chloramphenicol?

A

aplatic anemia

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32
Q

what side effect is associated with the ab tetracycline?

A

liver damage/hepatoxocicty and photosensitivity

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33
Q

what side effect is associated with the ab erythromycin?

A

allergic cholestatic hepatitis

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34
Q

what ab interactions cancel each other out

A

static/cidal

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35
Q

what alters the rate of renal clearance of penicillin?

A

probenacid

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36
Q

what reduces the effectiveness of tetracycline?

A

antacids or dairy products

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37
Q

what type of ab enhances the action of coumarin anticoag and why?

A

broad spec because they reduce vitamin K sources

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38
Q

what ab decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

A

ampicillin (maybe others?) due to suppression of normal GI flora that recycles steroids –> leads to excretion of steroids from the body

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39
Q

what type of ab inhibit the metabolism of drugs like seldane, digoxin?

A

macrolides like erythromycin

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40
Q

what is the antiviral used for herpes?

A

acyclovir

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41
Q

what antifungals treat candidasis?

A

fluconazole or ketoconazole - systemic

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42
Q

what ab achieves higher concentration in the bone than serum?

A

clindamycin

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43
Q

what ab achieves higher concentration in the gingival fluid than serum?

A

tetracycline

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44
Q

what side effect is associated with the ab streptomycin?

A

8th cranial nerve damage, affecting balance and hearing

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45
Q

what side effect is associated with the anti fungal amphotericin B

A

nephrotoxicity and hypokalemia

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46
Q

what are the 6 different classes of drugs that can act as hypertensive drugs?

A

diuretics, beta blockers, alpha 1 blockers, centralyl acting adrenergic drugs, neuronal blockers and ACE

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47
Q

what drugs can treat angina?

A

nitrogylcerin, propranolol, ca channel blockers

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48
Q

what drugs can treat arrhythmias?

A

lidocaine, phenytoin, quinidine, verapramil, digitalis, propranolol

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49
Q

what does phenytoin do for arrhythmias?

A

reverses the effect of digitalis

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50
Q

what drugs can treat CHF?

A

glycosides like digitalis, digoxin and ACE inhibitors

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51
Q

how does quinine work for antiarrythmatic drugs?

A

increases refractory period of the cardiac muscles

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52
Q

how does lidocaine help antiarrythmatics?

A

decreases cardiac excitability

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53
Q

how does digitalis help antiarrythmatics?

A

decrease the a-v conduction

54
Q

angina arises from what?

A

insufficient oxygen to meet the demand of the myocardium

55
Q

how does nitroglycerin help with angina attacks?

A

increases o2 supply to the heart by a direct vasodilatory action on the smooth mm. in the coronary arteries

56
Q

how does propranolol help with anginas attacks?

A

reduces the o2 demand by preventing chronotropic responses to endogenous epi, emotions and exercise

57
Q

how do calcium channel blockers help angina attacks?

A

decreaes o2 demands by reducing after load by reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation

58
Q

how do ace inhibitors work?

A

ace inhibitors like lisinopril and catopril block the enzyme which convert angiotensin I to II . Angiotensin II is a potent vasocontrictor

59
Q

how does methyldopa act as an antihypertensive?

A

by acting centrally as a false neurotransmitter stimulating alpha receptors to reduce sympathetic outflow resulting in vasodilation

60
Q

how does clonidine work as a antihypertensive drug?

A

selective agonist stimualtes alpha 2 receptors in the CNS to reduce sympathetic outflow outflow to peripheral vessels resulting in vasodilation

61
Q

how does propranolol work as an antihypertensive drug?

A

nonselective beta blocker that reduces cardiac output and inhibits renin secretion

62
Q

how does metoprolol work as an antihypertensive drug?

A

selective B 1 blocke, reduces cardiac output

63
Q

how do diuretics work as antihypertensive drugs?

A

decrease absorption of sodium, resulting in fluid loss and blood volume reduction. this decreases the work that the heart has to do

64
Q

types of diuretics

A

thiazides (chlorothiazide)
high-ceiling/loop (furosemide)
potassium sparing (spironalactone)

65
Q

how to cardiac glycosides work?

A

postive inotropic effect - increase the force of contraction of the heart by inhibiting the sodium, potassium aptase so more calcium can come in the cell

66
Q

what compensatory changes of CHF does digitalis help?

A

increased heart size, rate and edema

67
Q

what side effect is associated with high-ceiling diuretics?

A

ototoxicity with deafness

68
Q

what is the mechanism of the analgesic effects of NSAIDS?

A

inhibits the synthesis of prostglandins

69
Q

what is the mechanism of the antipyretic effects of NSAIDs?

A

inhibits P synthesis in the hypothalamic temperature regulation center

70
Q

what is the mechanism of the bleeding time in NSAIDs?

A

inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2 preventing platelet synthesis

71
Q

what are the therapeutic effects of aspirin?

A

pain relief, antipyretic effects, anti rheumatic and anti-inflammatory

72
Q

what are the adverse side effects of aspirin?

A

occult bleeding from GI tract, tinnitus, nausea and vommiting A/B disturbance or metabolic acidosis, decreased tubular reabsorption or uric acid, delirium and hypeventillation

73
Q

what are the differences in acetimenophen and aspirin?

A

no anti-inflamm, hepatoxocity and does not cause GI upsetness

74
Q

what is the difference in anti-infamy (like prednisone) and aspirin

A

since prednisone is a steroid they do not act by PG inhibition

75
Q

what is the difference in aspirin and ibuprofen?

A

ibuprofen does not irritate GI

76
Q

which drug should be avoided in feverish children? why?

A

aspirin due to reyes syndrome

tylenol is the drug of choice

77
Q

where is the temperature regulation center?

A

hypothalamus

78
Q

which analgesic has the longest half life?

A

diflunisal

79
Q

which drug is a mixed agonist-antagonist?

A

pentazocine and nalbuphine

80
Q

what is used to treat a morphine OD?

A

naloxone

81
Q

what is used to detox morphine addicts?

A

methadone

82
Q

side effects of morphine

A

respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, dysphoria, analgesia, constipation and urinary retention

83
Q

an overdose of opiates causes what

A

coma, miosis and respiratory depression

84
Q

what is opiates mechanism of respiratory depression?

A

loss of sensitivity to the medullary respiratory center to CO2

85
Q

what is demerol?

A

merperidine, and opiate (analgesiac)

86
Q

what surpasses the cough reflex best?

A

opiods - codeine

87
Q

how does atropine induce tachycardia?

A

blocks vagal reflex control of heart rate

88
Q

what are the 3 competitive muscarinic receptor blockers that can be used to control saliva?

A

atropine, scopolamine and proantheline

89
Q

what are antichlinesterase drugs?

A

physostigmine and neostigmine

90
Q

which anti cholinesterase acts only on the periphery?

A

neostigmine

91
Q

what drugs are direct acting cholinergic agonists?

A

pilocarpine, methacholine

92
Q

what do organophosphates and insecticides do?

A

irreversibly inhibit cholinesterase - potentiate cholinergic effect

93
Q

what is used in organophosphate toxicity?

A

parlidoxime - enzyme regenerator

94
Q

what is succinylcholine used to prevent?

A

laryngospasms

95
Q

what does succinylcholine do? how does it work?

A

depolarizing neuromuscular junction blocker

96
Q

what is d-turbocurarine?

A

a non-depolarizing neuromuscular junction blocker

97
Q

what are mecamylamine and hexamethonium?

A

ganglionic blockers that produce orthostatic hypotension

98
Q

cholinergic stimulation effects

A

SLUD
salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation

plus reduction in intraocular pressure, miosis, bronchoconstriciton, bradycardia, muscle weakness

99
Q

what type of anticholinergics have CNS effects and what are they

A

tertiary amines (like atropine)

restlessness, headache, excitement, hallucinations and delirium

100
Q

how do alpha and beta blockers like prazosin and propranolol work?

A

by competitive inhibition of adrenergic receptors

101
Q

how does reserpine work?

A

depletes NE by inhibiting re-uptake

102
Q

how does guantheidine work?

A

inhibits release of catecholaines

103
Q

how do amphetamine, tyramine and ephedrine work?

A

adrenergic drugs that work indirectly by stimulating the release of stored NE

104
Q

How do MAOI work?

A

block enzymatic degradation of adrenergic

105
Q

what is epinephrine reversal?

A

in the presence of an alpha blocker like parson (or chlorpromazine) epi will cause a decrease in BP rather than an increase because beta mediated vasodilation will predominate

106
Q

what is vagal reflex?

A

administering a pressor dose of NE may result in a decrease of HR due to activation of baroreceptors that stimulate vagal reflex to reduce heart rate

107
Q

what medication is given to parkinsons patients?

A

carbidopa and levadopa (carbidopa blocks decarboxylase activity in the periphery to allow the levodopa to pass through BBB)

108
Q

how to measure therapeutic index

A

lethal dose/effective dose

higher index, safer the drug

109
Q

what is the mechanism of action of benzos?

A

modulate the activity of the neurotransmitter GABA

110
Q

what are the advantages of benz over barb?

A

less addiction potential, less profound CNS depression, larger therapeutic index, less respiratory depression

111
Q

what can diazepam cause with IV injection?

A

irritation like thrombophlebitis due to the glycol propelene that dissolves the fluid

112
Q

are barbitutes analgesics?

A

NO - they actually might worsen the pain

113
Q

how is thiopental (a barbiturate) terminated?

A

rapid redistribution from the brain

114
Q

how would a barb overdose kill you?

A

resp depression

115
Q

what condition are barbs contraindicated in?

A

patients with porphyria - they enhance porphyria synthesis and aggravate the disease

116
Q

why are barbs problematic as anesthetics?

A

induce salivation and bronchial secretion - thus give an anticholinergic before

117
Q

example of anti psych drug

A

phenothiazines like chlorpromazine

118
Q

what is the mechanism of action of anti psych drugs

A

block dopamine

119
Q

what are the major side effects of anti psych drugs?

A

anticholinergic and extrapyramidal - results in tradeoff dyskinesia

120
Q

what is clozapine?

A

2nd generation anti psych
blocks dopamine and serotonin receptors
*no tardidive dysplasia

121
Q

what are the most commonly used antidepressant med?

A

TCA

122
Q

what is the drug of choice for a manic depressive?

A

lithium

123
Q

what influences the rate of induction of GA?

A

solubility
more soluble, more drub needs to be given to reach critical tension in the brain

onset of GA is inversely proportional to solubility of anesthetic in the blood

124
Q

what GA is associated with hepatotoxicity?

A

halothane

125
Q

what are the stages of GA

A

1- analgesia
2- delirium
3- surgical anesthesia
4- medullary paralysis

126
Q

what are antihistamines H1 useful for?

A

treating derm manifestations of an allergic response

pre-op medication for sedation, antiemetic properties and anticholinergic effects

for controlling parkinson symptoms - cholinergic and dopamine pathways interact in the brain so stopping the cholinergic pathways allows the dopamine to be uninterrupted

127
Q

what are antihistamine H2 useful for?

A

reduce gastric acid secretion (OTC heartburn med) - cimetidine

128
Q

what treats trigemminal neuralgia?

A

phenytoin and carbamazepine

129
Q

what is the best anticonvulsant?

A

diazepam (valium)

130
Q

what are the enteral routes of admin?

A

oral, sublingual, rectal

131
Q

how do you know if a patient is adequately sedated?

A

verills sign