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Pharm Final Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Which group of drugs selectively binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membrane?

A

polyenes

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2
Q

What group of drugs selectively blocks ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting lanosterol?

A

azoles

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3
Q

What group of drugs is converted by the fungus to inhibit DNA synthesis?

A

flucytosine

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4
Q

What drug binds to microtubules and disrupts mitotic spindles in fungal cells?

A

griseofulvin

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5
Q

Which group of drugs inhibit squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis in fungi?

A

allylamines

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6
Q

Which fungal drug inducts CYP450 enzymes?

A

griseofulvine

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7
Q

What 2 fungal drugs inhibit CYP450 enzymes?

A

imidazoles, triazoles

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8
Q

What fungal drug gets rapid emergence of resistance and should be used with amphotericin B?

A

pyrimidine analogue

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9
Q

Which fungal drug groups are hepatotoxic?

A

Triazoles, echniocandins, allylamines

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10
Q

Which fungal drug inhibits PgP?

A

imidazoles

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11
Q

Zidovudine, stampidine, and lamivudine all belong to what drug group?

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

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12
Q

What viruses are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors used for?

A

FeLV, FIV, BLV

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13
Q

What anti viral drug group needs viral enzymes to become active?

A

DNA polymerase inhibitors (acyclovir)

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14
Q

What anti viral drug is also used in the treatment of pain in dogs?

A

amantadine (M2 - ion channel inhibitor)

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15
Q

What viruses do M2-ion channel inhibitors effect?

A

influenza A

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16
Q

What anti viral drug group has cell to cell amplification?

A

recombinant interferon

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17
Q

Which diuretic drugs affect Na/K/Cl symport?

A

loop diuretics

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18
Q

Which diuretic drugs affect just Na channels?

A

K sparing

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19
Q

What urine pH increases weak acid excretion?

A

high pH

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20
Q

What urine pH increases weak base excretion?

A

low pH

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21
Q

What do carnivores have a delayed elimination of?

A

drugs w/ low pKa

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22
Q

What diuretic drugs inhibit Na/Cl transport and cause metabolic alkalosis?

A

thiazides

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23
Q

What diuretic drug causes diabetes insipidus and vasodilation?

A

thiazide diuretics

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24
Q

What kind of receptor is the external urethral sphincter?

A

nicotinic

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25
What kind of receptor is the urethra muscle?
alpha 1
26
What receptors are for the detrusor muscles?
parasymp - M3 (Ach) | symp - B2 (NA)
27
What ocular drugs affect trabecular outflow?
muscarinic agonists
28
What ocular drugs affect uveoscleral outflow?
prostaglandin agonists
29
What 3 drugs affect aqueous humor inflow?
beta blockers alpha 2 agonists CAIs
30
What is the spectrum of clindamycin?
anerobic gram - and toxoplasma gondii
31
How are sulfonamides metabolized?
acetylation (low solubility - deposits in renal)
32
How is chloramphenicol metabolized?
glucoronidation - cats
33
What antibiotic causes arthropathy?
fluoroquinolones
34
What antibiotic causes teeth mottling and chelates calcium?
tetracyclines
35
What antibiotic has nephrotoxicity and neuromuscular blockade?
aminoglycosides
36
What antibiotics are dobermans sensitive to?
sulfonamides
37
What antibiotic can accumulate in intracellular phagocytic cells?
fluoroquinolones
38
What antibiotic acts on DNA gyrase?
fluoroquinolones
39
What antibiotic inhibits DNA syntheisis?
metronidazole
40
What antibiotic is used for colitis in dogs?
sulfasalazine
41
What are the toxicities of sulfonamides?
KCS, hepatic necrosis, doberman pinschers, thyroid
42
What is the best sulfa and trimethoprim combinaton?
5 parts sulfa and 1 part trimeth
43
Which cephalosporin is given parentally?
cefazolin
44
Which cephalosporin is broad spectrum and beta lactamase stable?
cefepime
45
What beta lactam salt is given IM?
prokine salt (excitement in horses when given IV)
46
What beta lactam has low immunogenic profile?
astrenam
47
What is the broadest spectrum aminoglycoside?
amikacin
48
What aminoglycoside has antibacterial and antiprotozoal spectrum?
paramomycin
49
What type efficacy is aminoglycoside?
type 3 - single daily dose
50
What tetracycline is given to patients with renal failure?
doxy - excreted in feces
51
What is the MOA for chloramphenicol?
50s - peptidyl transferase, diffuse thru mito membrane
52
What are the SE for chloramphenicol?
reversible BM suppression
53
What drug is used for campylobacter jejuni in dogs?
erythromycin
54
What drug is good against mycoplasma?
tiamulin
55
What drug is fatal to horses?
tylosin
56
What lincosamide is lipid soluble and can get into CNS?
clindamycin
57
What is the toxicity of clindamycin?
colitis
58
What drug suppresses aldosterone but treats enteritis in swine?
carbadox
59
What antibiotic needs an acidic urinary pH for cystitis?
methenamine
60
What drug can be used orally to give abdominal sterilization before sx?
polymyxin
61
What antibiotics are contraindicated in food animals?
chloramphenicol, vancomycin, nitrofuran, metronidazle
62
Which anti secretory drug acts on proton pump?
omeprazole
63
What antisecretory is an H2 receptor antagonist?
famontidine
64
What antisecretory acts on prostaglandins and is cytoprotective?
misoprostol
65
What drug is used for apomorphine reversal?
metclopramide
66
What anti emetic acts on substance P?
maropitant citrate
67
Which cytoprotective drug needs acidic pH?
sucralfate
68
What heart drug is not distributed to fat?
digitalis
69
What pump does digitalis act on?
Na/K atpase
70
What are the 3 phosphodiesterase inhibitor drugs?
inaminone, milrinon, pimobendan
71
What drug do ACE inhibitors have an interaction with?
NSAIDs
72
What are the class 1 antiarrythmic drugs?
phenytoin, quinidine, lidocaine, procainamide
73
What are the class 3 antiarrythmic drugs?
bretylium, amiodorone (pure prolongss of action potential)
74
What are the class 4 antiarrythmic drugs?
calcium channel blockers
75
What antiarrythmic drug is most broad spectrum?
aprindine
76
What is the contraindication of bretylium?
halogenated anesthetics

Pharm Final (11 decks)

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