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Pharm Final > Pharm Final Review > Flashcards

Pharm Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which group of drugs selectively binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membrane?

A

polyenes

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2
Q

What group of drugs selectively blocks ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting lanosterol?

A

azoles

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3
Q

What group of drugs is converted by the fungus to inhibit DNA synthesis?

A

flucytosine

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4
Q

What drug binds to microtubules and disrupts mitotic spindles in fungal cells?

A

griseofulvin

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5
Q

Which group of drugs inhibit squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis in fungi?

A

allylamines

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6
Q

Which fungal drug inducts CYP450 enzymes?

A

griseofulvine

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7
Q

What 2 fungal drugs inhibit CYP450 enzymes?

A

imidazoles, triazoles

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8
Q

What fungal drug gets rapid emergence of resistance and should be used with amphotericin B?

A

pyrimidine analogue

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9
Q

Which fungal drug groups are hepatotoxic?

A

Triazoles, echniocandins, allylamines

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10
Q

Which fungal drug inhibits PgP?

A

imidazoles

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11
Q

Zidovudine, stampidine, and lamivudine all belong to what drug group?

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

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12
Q

What viruses are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors used for?

A

FeLV, FIV, BLV

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13
Q

What anti viral drug group needs viral enzymes to become active?

A

DNA polymerase inhibitors (acyclovir)

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14
Q

What anti viral drug is also used in the treatment of pain in dogs?

A

amantadine (M2 - ion channel inhibitor)

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15
Q

What viruses do M2-ion channel inhibitors effect?

A

influenza A

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16
Q

What anti viral drug group has cell to cell amplification?

A

recombinant interferon

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17
Q

Which diuretic drugs affect Na/K/Cl symport?

A

loop diuretics

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18
Q

Which diuretic drugs affect just Na channels?

A

K sparing

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19
Q

What urine pH increases weak acid excretion?

A

high pH

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20
Q

What urine pH increases weak base excretion?

A

low pH

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21
Q

What do carnivores have a delayed elimination of?

A

drugs w/ low pKa

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22
Q

What diuretic drugs inhibit Na/Cl transport and cause metabolic alkalosis?

A

thiazides

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23
Q

What diuretic drug causes diabetes insipidus and vasodilation?

A

thiazide diuretics

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24
Q

What kind of receptor is the external urethral sphincter?

A

nicotinic

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25
Q

What kind of receptor is the urethra muscle?

A

alpha 1

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26
Q

What receptors are for the detrusor muscles?

A

parasymp - M3 (Ach)

symp - B2 (NA)

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27
Q

What ocular drugs affect trabecular outflow?

A

muscarinic agonists

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28
Q

What ocular drugs affect uveoscleral outflow?

A

prostaglandin agonists

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29
Q

What 3 drugs affect aqueous humor inflow?

A

beta blockers
alpha 2 agonists
CAIs

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30
Q

What is the spectrum of clindamycin?

A

anerobic gram - and toxoplasma gondii

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31
Q

How are sulfonamides metabolized?

A

acetylation (low solubility - deposits in renal)

32
Q

How is chloramphenicol metabolized?

A

glucoronidation - cats

33
Q

What antibiotic causes arthropathy?

A

fluoroquinolones

34
Q

What antibiotic causes teeth mottling and chelates calcium?

A

tetracyclines

35
Q

What antibiotic has nephrotoxicity and neuromuscular blockade?

A

aminoglycosides

36
Q

What antibiotics are dobermans sensitive to?

A

sulfonamides

37
Q

What antibiotic can accumulate in intracellular phagocytic cells?

A

fluoroquinolones

38
Q

What antibiotic acts on DNA gyrase?

A

fluoroquinolones

39
Q

What antibiotic inhibits DNA syntheisis?

A

metronidazole

40
Q

What antibiotic is used for colitis in dogs?

A

sulfasalazine

41
Q

What are the toxicities of sulfonamides?

A

KCS, hepatic necrosis, doberman pinschers, thyroid

42
Q

What is the best sulfa and trimethoprim combinaton?

A

5 parts sulfa and 1 part trimeth

43
Q

Which cephalosporin is given parentally?

A

cefazolin

44
Q

Which cephalosporin is broad spectrum and beta lactamase stable?

A

cefepime

45
Q

What beta lactam salt is given IM?

A

prokine salt (excitement in horses when given IV)

46
Q

What beta lactam has low immunogenic profile?

A

astrenam

47
Q

What is the broadest spectrum aminoglycoside?

A

amikacin

48
Q

What aminoglycoside has antibacterial and antiprotozoal spectrum?

A

paramomycin

49
Q

What type efficacy is aminoglycoside?

A

type 3 - single daily dose

50
Q

What tetracycline is given to patients with renal failure?

A

doxy - excreted in feces

51
Q

What is the MOA for chloramphenicol?

A

50s - peptidyl transferase, diffuse thru mito membrane

52
Q

What are the SE for chloramphenicol?

A

reversible BM suppression

53
Q

What drug is used for campylobacter jejuni in dogs?

A

erythromycin

54
Q

What drug is good against mycoplasma?

A

tiamulin

55
Q

What drug is fatal to horses?

A

tylosin

56
Q

What lincosamide is lipid soluble and can get into CNS?

A

clindamycin

57
Q

What is the toxicity of clindamycin?

A

colitis

58
Q

What drug suppresses aldosterone but treats enteritis in swine?

A

carbadox

59
Q

What antibiotic needs an acidic urinary pH for cystitis?

A

methenamine

60
Q

What drug can be used orally to give abdominal sterilization before sx?

A

polymyxin

61
Q

What antibiotics are contraindicated in food animals?

A

chloramphenicol, vancomycin, nitrofuran, metronidazle

62
Q

Which anti secretory drug acts on proton pump?

A

omeprazole

63
Q

What antisecretory is an H2 receptor antagonist?

A

famontidine

64
Q

What antisecretory acts on prostaglandins and is cytoprotective?

A

misoprostol

65
Q

What drug is used for apomorphine reversal?

A

metclopramide

66
Q

What anti emetic acts on substance P?

A

maropitant citrate

67
Q

Which cytoprotective drug needs acidic pH?

A

sucralfate

68
Q

What heart drug is not distributed to fat?

A

digitalis

69
Q

What pump does digitalis act on?

A

Na/K atpase

70
Q

What are the 3 phosphodiesterase inhibitor drugs?

A

inaminone, milrinon, pimobendan

71
Q

What drug do ACE inhibitors have an interaction with?

A

NSAIDs

72
Q

What are the class 1 antiarrythmic drugs?

A

phenytoin, quinidine, lidocaine, procainamide

73
Q

What are the class 3 antiarrythmic drugs?

A

bretylium, amiodorone (pure prolongss of action potential)

74
Q

What are the class 4 antiarrythmic drugs?

A

calcium channel blockers

75
Q

What antiarrythmic drug is most broad spectrum?

A

aprindine

76
Q

What is the contraindication of bretylium?

A

halogenated anesthetics

Pharm Final (11 decks)

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