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pharm exam > Pharm Final > Flashcards

Pharm Final Flashcards

1
Q

List common drugs that cover: MRSA

A

DVD TLC

Daptomycin,
Vancomycin
Doxycycline,
TMP-SMX (trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole)
Linezolid
Clindamycin,

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2
Q

List common drugs that cover: VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococcus)

A

AAPL DND

Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
Piperacillin-tazobactam
Linzolid
Doxycycline
Nitrofurantoin
Daptomycin

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3
Q

List common drugs that cover: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

PCC MIC LTG

Piperacillin-tazobactam,
Cefepime,
Ceftazidime,
Meropenem,
Imipenem-cilastatin,
Ciprofloxacin,
Levofloxacin,
Tobramycin,
Gentamicin

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4
Q

List common drugs that cover: CRE (carbapenem resistant enterobacterales)

A

CIM 2

Ceftazidime/avibactam,
Imipenem-cilastatin/relabactam,
Meropenem/vaborbactam

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5
Q

List common drugs that cover: Anaerobes

A

AAP CMC IME (Carbapenams)

Ampicillin/sulbactam,
Amoxicillin/clavulanate,
Piperacillin/tazobactam,
Cefotetan
Metronidazole,
Cefoxitin,
Carbapenems

Imipenem/cilastatin
Meropenem
Ertapenem

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6
Q

List common drugs that cover: Atypicals

A

TFM

Tetracyclines,
Fluoroquinolones,
Macrolides

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7
Q

List the drug of choice for the following: ESBLs (extended spectrum beta lactams)

A

carbapenems

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8
Q

List the drug of choice for the following: MSSA (Meticillin-Sensitive Staphylococcus aureus)

A

penicillinase-resistant penicillins (oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin), 1st generation

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9
Q

List the drug of choice for the following: Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

TMP-SMX

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10
Q

List the drug of choice for the following: Tick-borne illness

A

doxycycline

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11
Q

List the following: Drugs with only gram-negative coverage:

A

ACP
aztreonam, colistin, polymyxin B

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12
Q

List the following: Respiratory FQ (floroquinolones) (and why they are considered respiratory FQ):

A

MLG
Moxifloxacin,
Levofloxacin,
Gemifloxacin

Pneumonia?

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13
Q

List the following: Pathogens tigecycline doesn’t cover

A

P bugs (Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus. spp., Providencia spp.

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14
Q

Beta-lactams: Drug class most highly associated with seizures:

A

carbapenems

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15
Q

A patient has a history of an allergy to penicillin. What beta-lactam classes are safe to use in the following situations?
Reaction to penicillin was a rash:

A

Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Momnobactam

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16
Q

A patient has a history of an allergy to penicillin. What beta-lactam classes are safe to use in the following situations? Reaction to penicillin was anaphylaxis:

A

monobactam

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17
Q

Beta-lactam with potential for bleeding and/or disulfiram-like reactions:

A

cefotetan

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18
Q

Glycopeptide, cyclic glycopeptide and lipoglycopeptide: Most clinically significant adverse reaction with vancomycin:

A

nephrotoxicity

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19
Q

Glycopeptide, cyclic glycopeptide and lipoglycopeptide: If a patient is on DAPTOMYCIN, you must monitor CPK (creatine phosphokinase) weekly due to the risk of what toxicity:

A

myopathy/rhabdomyolysis

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20
Q

Glycopeptide, cyclic glycopeptide and lipoglycopeptide: Agents with risk of infusion reactions:

A

Telavancin,
Dalbavancin,
Oritavancin
Vancomycin

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21
Q

Glycopeptide, cyclic glycopeptide and lipoglycopeptide: Which agent has the potential to cause paresthesia’s and peripheral neuropathy?

A

daptomycin

22
Q

Cell membrane agents: Toxicity that limits the clinical use of colistin and polymyxin B:

A

nephrotoxicity

23
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Drug class with risk for psychiatric disturbances (especially in the elderly):

A

fluoroquinolones

24
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Drugs with increased risk of photosensitivity:

A

fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines, TMP-SMX

25
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: What is a unique side-effect of rifampin?

A

Red/orange discoloration of sweat/tears

26
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Antibiotic with highest risk of SJS/TENS:

A

TMP/SMX

27
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Drug class with greatest potential for hypo/hyperglycemia:

A

Hyper/hypo fluoroquino
fluoroquinolones

28
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Drug most highly associated with hepatotoxicity:

A

rifampin

LiveRifampin

29
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Drug with risk for CNS effects and peripheral neuropathy:

A

metronidazole,
fluoroquinolones

30
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors: Boxed warnings with fluoroquinolones:

A

tendonitis/tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS effects

31
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug class with highest risk of nephrotoxicity:

A

aminoglycosides

Nephro Oto Aminoglco

32
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug with a boxed warning for pseudomembranous colitis:

A

clindamycin

33
Q

Protein inhibitors: Class with potential for photosensitivity:

A

tetracyclines

34
Q

Protein inhibitors: Agent highly associated with arthralgias/myalgias:

A

quinupristin/dalfopristin

35
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug class with risk of thrombocytopenia, especially with 2+ weeks of therapy:

A

oxazolidinones

Thrombocyto opto neuro serotono oxazolo

36
Q

Protein inhibitors: Agent with highest rate of GI effects:

A

GI EYO
erythromycin

37
Q

Protein inhibitors: Why are tetracyclines contraindicated in children <8, as well as in pregnant/breastfeeding women?

A

Suppresses bone growth, skeletal development and permanently discolors teeth

38
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug class with potential for irreversible peripheral and optic neuropathies:

A

oxazolidinones

Thrombocyto opto neuro serotono oxazolo

39
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug class that may cause ototoxicity:

A

aminoglycosides

Nephrotox Ototox Aminoglox

40
Q

Protein inhibitors: Drug class that may cause skin hyperpigmentation:

A

tetracyclines

41
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Drug inactivated by pulmonary surfactant, and therefore shouldn’t be used for pneumonia:

A

daptomycin

42
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Why is unfractionated heparin contraindicated for up to 5 days after the administration of ORITAVANCIN?

A

Artificially prolongs aPTT (can’t clot)

43
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Drug classes that have the potential to cause QTc prolongation, and therefore should be used cautiously with other QTc prolonging drugs:

A

QT? FML
Telavancin
Fluoroquinolones,
Macrolides,
Lefamulin,

44
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Rifampin is a strong inducer of what isoenzymes?

A

CYP 3A4, 1A2, 2C9 and 2C19

45
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: This intravenous agent rapidly distributes into the periphery and should not be used for the treatment of bacteremia:

A

tigecycline

46
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: These drug classes should be separated from agents containing Ca, Fe, Mg, Al containing compounds due to potential for decreased absorption:

A

tetracyclines
fluoroquinolones

47
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Drug classes have the potential to increase the effects of warfarin:

A

Penicillins,
Cefotetan, and then from fluoroqinalones down to macrolides

Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole
TMP-SMX
Tetracyclines
Tigecycline
Macrolides

48
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Agents that should not be used (or used cautiously) in patients with G6PD deficiency:

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin

49
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Which agents have very long half-lives, allowing for infrequent administration (one or two doses for entire treatment course):

A

dalbavancin, oritavancin

50
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: This agent has the potential to cause hyperkalemia, and should therefore be used cautiously with agents that may also cause hyperkalemia:

A

TMP-SMX

51
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: Drug class labeled with a risk of serotonin syndrome (though evidence refutes it):

A

oxazolidinone

Thrombocyto opto neuro serotono oxazolo

52
Q

Drug Interactions/Unique PK: This drug can be used orally for C. difficile infection, but due to minimal systemic absorption the IV formulation must be used for all other infections:

A

vancomycin

pharm exam (3 decks)

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