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PHARMACOLOGY > Pharm Exam Review 2021 > Flashcards

Pharm Exam Review 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

Main IV drugs for anesthetics?

A

Amobarbital, lorazepam, ketamine, propofol

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2
Q

Pyridoxine (B6) in doses greater than 10mg will reverse the effects of which drug?

A

Levodopa (anti-parkinsons)

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3
Q

Why should a client on Levodopa avoid chicken, nuts, fish, green beans, field salad, wheat germ and liver?

A

They are high in B6 which will reverse the effects of Levodopa (anti-parkinsons)

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4
Q

Which drug may darken a clients urine and sweat?

A

Levodopa (anti parkinsons)

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5
Q

what are the 3 catecholamine neurotransmitters?

A

norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine

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6
Q

Ventolin (albuterol sulfate) is used primarily as what?

A

a bronchodilator/antiasthmatic for acute bronchoconstriction or bronchospasm

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7
Q

What drug class is Ventolin? (albuterol sulfate)

A

B-adrenergic/sympathomimetic/adrenergic agonist

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8
Q

What are sympathomimetic side effects?

A

Drying effects and hypertension & tachycardia

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9
Q

what is the mechanism of action for adrenergic blockers? (Simple)

A

direct competition with Norepinephrine & epinephrine. Block SNS response.

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10
Q

Methyldopa, ergotamine tartrate and prazosine hydrochloride are examples of which drugs class?

A

Alpha-Blockers (Adrenergic Blockers)

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11
Q

Propanolol, atenolol, and metaprolol are examples of which drug class?

A

Beta blockers (adrenergic Blockers)

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12
Q

Cholinergic drugs mimic the effect of which neutrotransmitter?

A

Acetylcholine

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13
Q

Donepezil, bethanechol, and galantamine are examples of which drug class?

A

Cholinergics/Parasympathomimetics

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14
Q

Which drug is the antidote for cholinergics?

A

Atropine - a cholinergic blocker

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15
Q

Atropine is used to treat emergency ______?

A

emergency bradycardia to increase HR.

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16
Q

Which drug is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine (a cholinergic blocker)

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17
Q

Term: drugs that affect force or energy of muscular contraction in heart

A

inotropic

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18
Q

Term: drugs that affect rate of heartbeat

A

chronotropic

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19
Q

Term: drugs that affect conduction of electrical impulses in heart

A

Dromotropic

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20
Q

cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors are example of positive _____ agents

A

positive inotropic agents

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21
Q

Digoxin is an example of which drug class?

A

Cardiac glycosides

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22
Q

What are normal K+ levels?

A

3.5-5.5 mmol/L

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23
Q

What are normal Na+ levels?

A

135-145 mmol/L

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24
Q

What is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity?

A

Digiband

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25
Q

Why should you avoid a high-fiber diet while giving digoxin?

A

Fiber binds with the drug making it not effective

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26
Q

nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate are examples of which drug class?

A

Nitrates (anti-anginal drugs)

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27
Q

Why isn’t nitroglycerine given orally PO?

A

Due to its large first-pass effect. Sublingual instead= no liver metabolism.

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28
Q

What are the 3 main side effects of Nitros?

A

Headache, tachycardia & postural hypotension due to vasodilation

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29
Q

Which drug can not be used if the client is taking Viagara?

A

Nitroglycerine (anti-anginal)

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30
Q

Why should anti-hypertensives not be stopped suddenly?

A

Risk of rebound hypertensive crisis

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31
Q

captopril, lisinopril, and ramipril are examples of which drug class?

A

ACE inhibitors (Anti-hypertensives)

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32
Q

A dry, non-productive cough is a side effect of which anti-hypertensive drug class?

A

ACE inhibitors. Will reverse when discontinued.

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33
Q

minoxidil, hydralizine, and diazoxide are examples of which drug class?

A

Vasodilators

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34
Q

Furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are examples of which drug class?

A

Loop diuretics

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35
Q

Amiloride, Spironolactone, Aldactone are examples from which drug class?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics

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36
Q

What is the #1 side effect of postassium-sparing diruetics?

A

hyperkalemia (too much potassium)

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37
Q

hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) & trichlormethiazide are examples of which drug class?

A

Thiazide diuretics

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38
Q

chlorthalidone & metolazone are examples from which drug class?

A

Thiazide-like diuertics

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39
Q

Foods high in potassium include bananas, oranges, dates, raisins, plums, fresh vegetables, potatoes, meat, and fish should be consumed for which diuretics?

A

Thiazides and thiazide-like, loop diuretics, and osmotic diuretics. NOT potassium-sparing.

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40
Q

Why should Clients taking diuretics along with a digitalis preparation should be taught to monitor for digitalis toxicity?

A

Digoxin toxicity is made worse by hypokalemia. Diuretics promote K excretion.

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41
Q

Diabetic clients who are taking which diuretic classes should be told to monitor blood glucose and watch for elevated levels?

A

taking thiazide and/or loop diuretics

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42
Q

Excessive consumption of licorice can lead to an additive hypokalemia in clients taking which class of diuretics?

A

thiazides

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43
Q

K+ levels are managed by which hormone?

A

Aldosterone

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44
Q

Heparin sodium is an example of which drug class?

A

Anticoagulants

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45
Q

which drug is monitored by activated partial thromboplastin times (aPTTs)?

A

heparin sodium

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46
Q

What is the antidote to heparin sodium?

A

Protamine sulfate

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47
Q

Enoxaparin & Dalteparin are examples from which drug class?

A

low-molecular weight heparins

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48
Q

Which drug is monitored by INR (International normalization ratio)?

A

Warfarin

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49
Q

What is the antidote to warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

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50
Q

Aspirin, dipyridamole (aggrenox), pentaoxifylline (trental) are examples from which drug class?

A

Antiplatelet drugs

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51
Q

Streptokinase, urokinase, tissue plasminogen activator, anisolyated plasminogen-streptokinase activator complex (APSAC) are examples from which drug class?

A

Thrombolytic Drugs

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52
Q

Tranexamic acid & desmopressin are examples from which drug class?

A

Antifibrinolytics/Hemolytic drugs

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53
Q

What is the main purpose of hemolytic drugs?

A

promote clot formation

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54
Q

Clients should avoid foods high in vitamin K when taking which drug class?

A

Hemolytics/Antifibrinolytics

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55
Q

What is the main purpose of anticoagulants?

A

Prevent clot formation

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56
Q

What is the main purpose of anti-platelet drugs?

A

to inhibit platelet aggregation/plugs

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57
Q

What is the main purpose of thrombolytic drugs?

A

lyse existing clots

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58
Q

What is the main purpose of HMG-CaA Reductase Inhibitors or Statins?

A

reduced production of cholesterol

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59
Q

Lovastatin, pravastatin, simvastatin, and atorvastatin are examples from which drug class?

A

HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors, or Statins

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60
Q

What is the first line drug class for lowering cholesterol?

A

Statins

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61
Q

What is the main purpose of bile acid sequestrants?

A

Prevent reabsorption of bile acids in the small intestine causing liver to make more bile acid out of cholesterol

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62
Q

Cholestyramine resin, colestipol hydrochloride, and colesevelam are examples from which drug class?

A

Bile acid sequestrants

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63
Q

What is a major side effect of bile acid sequestrants?

A

tinnitus

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64
Q

What is the main purpose of Nicotinic acid?

A

reduce LDLs or increase HDLs

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65
Q

Nicotinic acid is also which vitamin?

A

vitamin B3

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66
Q

What is the main purpose of Fibric Acid derivatives?

A

Lower LDL levels

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67
Q

Clofibrate, gemfibrozil, fenofibrate, and bezafibrate are examples from which drug class?

A

Fibric Acid Derivatives

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68
Q

Risk of gallstones and prolonged prothrombin time are side effects of which drug class?

A

Fibric acid derivatives

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69
Q

clients on long term therapy of which major drug classes might need supplemental fat-soluble vitamins? (A, D, & K)

A

Antilipemics

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70
Q

What is the main purpose of B-adenergic agonists as respiratory drugs?

A

to reduce airway constriction during asthma attack

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71
Q

What drug should be used during the acute phase of an asthma attack to restore airflow?

A

Ventolin (albuterol)

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72
Q

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an inhaler from which drug class?

A

Anticholinergics

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73
Q

What is the main purpose of anticholinergics as respiratory drugs?

A

Prevent bronchospasm in COPD

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74
Q

What is the main purpose of Xanthine derivatives?

A

prophylactic/prevent asthma attack

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75
Q

Theophylline and Aminophylline are examples from which drug class?

A

Xanthine derivative

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76
Q

What is the main purpose of leukotriene receptor agonists (antileukotrienes)?

A

Block inflammation in airways caused by leukotrienes

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77
Q

Montelukast and Zafirlukast are examples of which drug class?

A

Antileukotrienes

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78
Q

What is the main purpose of corticosteroids as a respiratory drug?

A

Stabilize cells that release bronchoconstricting substances & increase response to ventolin

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79
Q

True or false: corticosteroids as resp. drugs have immediate results

A

false. Can take several weeks.

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80
Q

True or false: corticosteroids have many drug interactions

A

true: aspirin, anticoagulants, antidiabetic drugs

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81
Q

Why should corticosteroids never be discontinued abruptly?

A

They can cause an addisonian crisis due to adrenal suppression from taking the drug

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82
Q

Prednisone, budesonide, fluticasone, salmeterol are examples from which drug class?

A

corticosteroids

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83
Q

What is the main purpose of Mast Cell Stabilizers?

A

Prevent release of substances that cause bronchospasms

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84
Q

Cromoglycate, Nedocromil, Ketoifen fumarate are examples from which drug class?

A

mast cell stabilizers

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85
Q

Ketoconazole, cimetidine, and erthyromycin may increase concentrations of which antihistamine drug?

A

Loratadine (claritin)

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86
Q

Pseudoephedrine is an example of which drug class?

A

Decongestants

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87
Q

What are the 3 classes of drugs in “decongestants”?

A

adrenergics, anticholinergics, corticosteroids

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88
Q

What are the indications for using an antitussive?

A

non-productive coughing

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89
Q

Dextromethorphan (nyquil, robitussin) is an example of which drug class?

A

non-opioid antitussive

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90
Q

Guaifenesin is an example of which drug class?

A

expectorants

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91
Q

iodine-containing products, iodinated glycerol, and potassium iodide are examples from which drug class?

A

expectorants

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92
Q

What is “mycosis”

A

an infection caused by a fungus

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93
Q

Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for what?

A

Systemic fungal infections

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94
Q

The “shake and bake” and other adverse effects (renal toxicity, neurotoxicity, seizures, paresthesia, etc) are from which drug?

A

Amphotericin B

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95
Q

Fluconazole (Diflucan), Nystatin, and amphotericin B are from which drug class?

A

Antifungals

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96
Q

Tissue extravasation from which drug at the IV site may lead to tissue necrosis?

A

Fluconazole (antifungal)

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97
Q

Tuberculosis is the medical diagnosis of any infectious disease caused by what?

A

Mycobacterium

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98
Q

Isoniazid (INH), ethambutol, pyrazinamide (PZA), rifampin, streptomycin are examples from which drug class?

A

Primary antitubercular drugs

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99
Q

Capreomycin, cycloserine, ethionamide, kanamycin, para-aminosalyicyclic acid are examples from which drug class?

A

Secondary antitubercular drugs

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100
Q

Isoniazid (INH) is the drug of choice for what?

A

tuberculosis infections

101
Q

Pyridoxine deficiency, liver toxicity, and peripheral neuritis are adverse effects from which TB drug?

A

Isoniazid (INH) (primary)

102
Q

Neuritis and blindness are adverse effects of which TB drug?

A

Ethambutol (primary)

103
Q

Hepatitis & orange discolouration of urine and stool are adverse effects of which TB drug?

A

Rifampin (primary)

104
Q

Therapy of antitubercular drugs may last how long?

A

up to 24 months

105
Q

Why should diabetic clients taking INH monitor blood glucose?

A

INH may cause hyperglycemia

106
Q

Which TB drugs may cause oral contraceptives to be ineffective?

A

INH and rifampin

107
Q

What is the main function of antiviral drugs?

A

to treat infections caused by viruses other than HIV

108
Q

What is the main function of antiretroviral drugs?

A

to treat infections caused by HIV

109
Q

Acylovir, amantadine, oseltamivir, and ribavirin are examples from which drug class?

A

Antivirals

110
Q

True or false: antiviral drugs have many drug interactions

A

true

111
Q

Which drug is the treatment of choice for the chicken pox and shingles?

A

Acyclovir

112
Q

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) detects what kind of virus?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus

113
Q

What is a candidiasis?

A

a fungal infection caused by yeast

114
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and fusion inhibitors are examples from which drug class?

A

antiretrovirals

115
Q

Aspirin & Indomethacin (Indocin) are examples of which drug class?

A

Acetic acid derivatives (NSAIDS)

116
Q

Ibuprofen & Naproxen are examples from which drug class?

A

Proprionic acids (NSAIDS)

117
Q

Celecoxib (Celebrex) is an example of which drug class?

A

COX-2 Inhibitors (NSAIDS)

118
Q

Which major drug class is analgesic, anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic, and anti-rheumatic?

A

NSAIDs

119
Q

True or false, NSAIDS are indicated for people with Vitamin K deficiencies, peptic ulcer disease, kidney/liver disease, and hemorrhagic stroke

A

FALSE - they are contraindicated for these conditions

120
Q

Salicylates are not to be given to children under the age of 12 for what reason?

A

The risk of Reye’s syndrome

121
Q

Reye’s syndrome is associated with which drug consumption by children with viral diseases such as chicken pox?

A

Aspirin

122
Q

Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Enterococci are examples of gram positive or gram negative bacteria?

A

gram postive

123
Q

What term describes antibiotic treatment based on signs and symptoms?

A

empiric therapy

124
Q

what term describes antibiotic treatment based on results of culture and sensitivity?

A

Specific therapy

125
Q

Trimethoprim, sulfisoxazole are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

Sulfonamides

126
Q

Which antibiotic classes are bacteriostatic?

A

Sulfonamides, Macrolides, & Tetracyclines

127
Q

Which antibiotic classes are bactericidal?

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, & Quinolones

128
Q

Which antibiotic class reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

A

Sulfonamides

129
Q

Any client taking which antibiotic class should be monitored for 30 minutes after administration?

A

Penicillins due to allergy

130
Q

Amoxicillin, cloxacillin, piperacillin sodium are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

penicillins

131
Q

Cephalexin (keflex), cefozitin, cefuroxime are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

cephalosporins

132
Q

The effectiveness of which antibiotic is decreased when taken with caffeine, citrus juice, citrus cola, or tomato juice?

A

Penicillins

133
Q

Erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

macrolides

134
Q

Why can macrolides cause hepatotoxicity and jaundice?

A

They are metabolized in the liver (and inhibit cytochrome p450?)

135
Q

Demeclocycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

Tetracyclines

136
Q

This class of antibiotics bind to Ca, Mg, and Al ions.. therefore dairy products, antacids, and irons salts should be avoided.

A

Tetracyclines

137
Q

Gentamycin, neomycin, steptomycin, trobramycin are examples from which antibiotic class?

A

Aminoglycosides

138
Q

Which antibiotic class has NO PO forms?

A

Aminoglycosides due to poor absorption

139
Q

What are the 2 most significant adverse effects of aminoglycosides?

A

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Monitor peak and trough levels of blood for prevention

140
Q

True or False: Quinolones should be taken with 3L of water per day

A

True

141
Q

Intake of ALKALINE foods such as antacids, peanuts and sodium bicarbonate should be limited with which antibiotic class?

A

Quinolones

142
Q

What specific antibiotic is taken for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

143
Q

What specific antibiotic is taken for C. diff and STIs?

A

Metronidazole - good for anaerobes

144
Q

Redman’s syndrome is caused by what? (related to antibiotic)

A

Rapid infusion of vancomycin. Should be infused over 60 minutes

145
Q

Fever, perineal itching, coughing, lethargy, or any unusual discharge may be signs & symptoms of what? (related to antibiotics)

A

superinfection

146
Q

Oversecretion of adrenocorticol hormones could result in what syndrome?

A

Cushings syndrome

147
Q

Dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, and prednisone are examples of which drug class?

A

Glucocorticoids

148
Q

Fludrocortisone acetate is an example from which drug class?

A

Mineralocorticoids

149
Q

Ketoconazole is an example of which drug class?

A

Antifungal, although can be used as adrenal steroid inhibitors (used to tx cushings syndrome)

150
Q

Serious infections including septicemia, systemic fungal infections, and varicella are contraindications for which drug class?

A

Adrenal corticosteroids

151
Q

Cosyntropin, somatotropin, and octreotide are examples from which drug class?

A

Anterior Pituitary Drugs

152
Q

Vasopressin and desmopression are examples from which drug class?

A

Posterior Pituitary Drugs

153
Q

Corticotropin is used to diagnose what insufficiency?

A

adrenocortical insufficiency

154
Q

Which pituitary drug is a synthetic growth hormone to stimulate skeletal growth?

A

somatotropin

155
Q

Which pituitary drug reduces the severe diarrhea, flushing, and life-threatening hypotension that may occur with a carcinoid crisis?

A

Octreotide (inhibits GH release)

156
Q

Which pituitary drug may cause alterations in blood glucose levels?

A

Octreotide

157
Q

Which pituitary drug is a potent vasoconstrictor used in hypotensive emergencies?

A

vasopression

158
Q

Which pituitary drug is used for hemophilia A and Type I von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Desmopressin

159
Q

true or false: pituitary drugs can be stopped abruptly

A

false, may lead to addisonian crisis

160
Q

What is the value for optimal PLASMA glucose?

A

4.0-6.0 mmol/L

161
Q

Aspart & lispro are examples of this type of insulin

A

Rapid acting insulin

162
Q

Regular, humulin R, and toronto are examples of this type of insulin

A

Short acting insulin

163
Q

Humulin N and NPH are examples of this type of insulin

A

intermediate acting insulin

164
Q

glargine and lente are examples of this type of insulin

A

long acting insulin

165
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of rapid acting insulin?

A

onset 10-15minutes, peak 1-2 hours, duration 3-5 hours

166
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of short acting insulin?

A

onset 30 min, peak 2-3 hours, duration 6.5 hours

167
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of intermediate acting insulin?

A

onset 1-3 hours, peak 5-8 hours, duration up to 18 hours.

168
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of long acting insulin?

A

onset 90 minutes, no peak, duration 24 hours

169
Q

What is the first line drug for antihyperglycemic drugs?

A

Metformin (Biguanide)

170
Q

How does Metformin (biguanides) work? Why doesn’t metformin cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Decreases hepatic glucose production in T2D. No hypoglycaemia because no insulin-release stimulation

171
Q

metallic taste and reduced B12 levels are an adverse effect of which antihyperglycemic drug?

A

Metformin (Biguanides)

172
Q

Glyburide is an example of which antihyperglycemic drug class?

A

Sulfonylureas

173
Q

Why is hypoglycemia an adverse effect for Sulfonylurea drugs?

A

They stimulate insulin release in the pancreas, could produce too much insulin

174
Q

Actos is an example from which antihyperglycemia drug class?

A

thiazolidinediones (glitazones)

175
Q

How do thiazolidinediones work as an antihyperglycemic?

A

they enhance the sensitivity of insulin receptors through gene regulation to promote skeletal uptake of glucose

176
Q

Acarbose (precose) is an example of which antihyperglycemic drug class?

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

177
Q

Which class of antihyperglycemic drugs works in the small intenstine?

A

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. Could cause flatulence, diarrhea, abdominal pain

178
Q

If a client is NPO for a procedure and they are have orders for antihyperglycemic drug therapy, what must be done?

A

call the physician to clarify the order

179
Q

What is the correct way to mix intermediate and short acting insulin?

A

Air in long vial, air in short vial, with draw short, withdraw long. Clear before cloudy.

180
Q

Levothryoxine and liothyronine are examples from which drug class?

A

Thyroid replacement drugs

181
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias, tachycardia, palpitations, angina, menstrual irregularities, and weight loss are all adverse effects of which thyroid replacement drug?

A

Levothyroxine

182
Q

Liver and bone marrow toxicity are adverse effects of what drug therapy?

A

antithyroid drug therapy for hyperthyroidism (Antithyroid drugs: thioamide derivatives: methimazole, propylthiouracil (PTU))

183
Q

Clients taking this medication should avoid foods high in iodine (seafood, soy sauce, tofu)

A

Antithyroid medications (methimazole, PTU)

184
Q

How do antiemetic and antinausea drugs work?

A

Block GI tract, labyrinth of inner ear, and cerebral cortex from activating the CTZ (chemoreceptor trigger zone)

185
Q

For clients receiving chemotherapy, how far in advance should antiemetics be given?

A

half an hour to 3 hours before the chemotherapy agent

186
Q

How do adsorbents & bulk forming agent work as an antidiarrheal?

A

They coat the walls of the GI and bind with the causative agent

187
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate and activated charcoal are examples from this drug class

A

Adsorbents & bulkforming antidiarrheals

188
Q

Atropine can you be used as an antidiarrheal, true or false

A

true. It can act as an antispasmodic to decrease peristalsis of GI tract

189
Q

Diphenoxylate (lomotil) and loperamide (imodium) are examples of this antidiarrheal class?

A

opiates. Decrease bowel motility to increase bowel transit time

190
Q

L. acidophilus is an example of this class of antidiarrheal?

A

Intestinal flora modifiers (probiotic)

191
Q

Dark stools, blue gums, and tinnitus are adverse effects from which drug class?

A

Adsorbents & bulk forming antidiarrheals

192
Q

Adsorbents decrease absorption of many drugs, true or false

A

true - interfere with digoxin, clindamycin, quinidine, and hypoglycemic agents

193
Q

true or false, adsorbents cause increase bleeding time with anticoagulants

A

true

194
Q

Psyllium, methylcellulose, polycarbophil are examples from which drug class?

A

bulk forming laxatives

195
Q

polyethylene glycol, sorbitol, glycerine, and lactulose are examples from which drug class?

A

hyperosmotic laxatives

196
Q

magnesium sulfate, magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, and sodium phosphate are examples from which drug class?

A

saline laxatives

197
Q

castor oil, senna, cascara, dulcolax, and ex-lax are examples from which drug class?

A

stimulant laxatives

198
Q

magnesium toxicity with renal insufficiency is an adverse effect from which laxative group?

A

salines

199
Q

Almagel, Maalox, Mylanta are examples of what kind of antacids?

A

aluminum salts - have constipating effects

200
Q

Gaviscon and Milk of Magnesia are examples of what kind of antacids?

A

Magnesium salts - can cause diarrhea

201
Q

What antacids are contraindicated for renal failure?

A

Magnesium salts - cannot excrete extra Mg

202
Q

TUMs and Rolaids are examples of what kind of antacids?

A

Calcium salts

203
Q

Cimetidine (Tagamet), Famotidine (Pepcid), and Ranitidine (Zantac) are examples of which drug class?

A

Histamine (H2) Antagonists

204
Q

What is the main purpose of H2 Antagonists?

A

to suppress acid secretion in the stomach

205
Q

True or false, all H2 antagonists may inhibit the absorption of drugs that require a basic GI environment for absorption

A

false - inhibit drug absorption for drugs that require an acidic environment. H2 antagonists suppress acid release

206
Q

pantoprazole, lansoprazole (prevacid) and omerprazole (losec) are examples from which drug class?

A

proton pump inhibitors. Total inhibition of gastric acid secretion

207
Q

Name the act….
Protect consumers from drugs that are contaminated, adulterated, or unsafe to use. To address drugs that are labeled falsely and those with misleading or deceptive labeling

A

Food and Drug Act 1953

208
Q

Name the act….

Regulates the possession, sale, manufacture, disposal, production, import, export, and distribution of certain drugs

A

Controlled Drug and Substances Drug Act 1997

209
Q

true or false, morphine, codeine and heroin are natural stubstances

A

false, heroin is semi-synthetic

210
Q

When does narcotic withdrawal begin? What is the peak?

A

beings 8-12 hours after last use. Peaks 48-72 hours.

211
Q

true or false, narcotic withdrawal is life threatening

A

false

212
Q

true or false, constant yawning, runny nose, and tremors are a sign of narcotic withdrawal

A

true

213
Q

Drugs that are psychosis generating are termed…

A

psychotogenic

214
Q

Drugs that are mind manifesting are termed…

A

psychedelics

215
Q

true or false, tolerance is developed with hallucinogens

A

false

216
Q

What is the peak for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Minor: 24-36 hours
Major: 50 hours

217
Q

buspirone (BuSpar) is an example from which drug class?

A

Anxiolytic. Interacts with SSRIs and MAOIs

218
Q

alprazolam (xanax) is most commonly used as what kind of medication?

A

as an anxiolytic

219
Q

which benzodiazepine is good for management of alcohol withdrawal and reversal of status epilepticus?

A

diazepam (valium)

220
Q

true or false, many anxiolytics interfere with oral contraceptives

A

true - xanax and valium

221
Q

lithium carbonate and lithium citrate are examples from which drug class?

A

mood stabilizing drugs. can be used in combination with many other

222
Q

What is the drug of choice for mania?

A

Lithium.

223
Q

What is therapeutic serum level range for lithium?

A

maintenance 0.6-1.2mmol/L
acute mania - 1-1.5 mmol/L
anything over 2.0 is toxicity

224
Q

What is the most serious effect of using lithium?

A

cardiac dysrhythmia

225
Q

long term treatment of which drug may cause hypothyroidism?

A

lithium

226
Q

tricyclics, tetracyclics, and MAOIs are examples of first generation antidepressants, true or false

A

true

227
Q

amitriptyline (Elavil) is an example of which drug?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

228
Q

How is a tricyclic antidepressant overdose managed?

A

No antidote. Decrease absorption using activated charcoal, speed elimination by alkalinizing urine, provide BLS

229
Q

phenelzine sulphate, tranylcypromine sulphate, and selegiline hydrochlore are examples of which drug class?

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

230
Q

Client should avoid foods high in tyramine (cheeses, smoked foods, yeast extracts, red wine etc) when using this drug class

A

MAOIs. Could result in hypertensive crisis leading to stroke, coma, death

231
Q

Trazodone (oleptro), bubpropion (wellbutrin) and SSRIs are second generation antidepressants, true or false

A

tru

232
Q

delirium, agitation, tachycardia, myoclonus, and tremors are symptoms of what syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome - too much serotonin

233
Q

What are the drug interactions for Cymbalta?

A

SSRIs, Triptans, and alcohol. Can increase risk of serotonin syndrome and liver injury

234
Q

What is the mechanism of action for antipsychotics? (simple)

A

block dopamine receptors in the brain to decrease dopamine levels. = tranquilizing effect

235
Q

agranulocytosis, NMS, EPS, tardive dyskinesia and hemolytic anemia are adverse effects for which drug class?

A

antipsychotics

236
Q

What herbal product can be used for depression, anxiety, sleep disorders and nervousness?

A

St Johns Wort

237
Q

drug names that end in -prazole are typically…?

A

proton pump inhibitors

238
Q

drug names that end in -ase are typically…?

A

thrombolytics

239
Q

drug names that end in -azine are typically…?

A

antiemetics

240
Q

drug names that end in -terol/-phylline are typically…?

A

bronchodilators

241
Q

drug names that end in -arin are typically…?

A

anticoagulants

242
Q

drug names that end in -vir are typically…?

A

antivirals

243
Q

drug names that end in -cycline are typically…?

A

tetracyclines

244
Q

drug names that end in -mycin are typically…?

A

aminoglycosides

245
Q

drug names that end in -floxacin are typically…?

A

quinolones

246
Q

drug names that end in -triptyline are typically…?

A

tricyclics

247
Q

drug names that end in -pram/-ine are typically…?

A

SSRIs

248
Q

Diltiazem, verapamil, nifedipine are examples from which drug class?

A

calcium channel blockers

PHARMACOLOGY (1 decks)

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