Pharm Exam Review 2021 Flashcards
1
Q
Main IV drugs for anesthetics?
A
Amobarbital, lorazepam, ketamine, propofol
2
Q
Pyridoxine (B6) in doses greater than 10mg will reverse the effects of which drug?
A
Levodopa (anti-parkinsons)
3
Q
Why should a client on Levodopa avoid chicken, nuts, fish, green beans, field salad, wheat germ and liver?
A
They are high in B6 which will reverse the effects of Levodopa (anti-parkinsons)
4
Q
Which drug may darken a clients urine and sweat?
A
Levodopa (anti parkinsons)
5
Q
what are the 3 catecholamine neurotransmitters?
A
norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine
6
Q
Ventolin (albuterol sulfate) is used primarily as what?
A
a bronchodilator/antiasthmatic for acute bronchoconstriction or bronchospasm
7
Q
What drug class is Ventolin? (albuterol sulfate)
A
B-adrenergic/sympathomimetic/adrenergic agonist
8
Q
What are sympathomimetic side effects?
A
Drying effects and hypertension & tachycardia
9
Q
what is the mechanism of action for adrenergic blockers? (Simple)
A
direct competition with Norepinephrine & epinephrine. Block SNS response.
10
Q
Methyldopa, ergotamine tartrate and prazosine hydrochloride are examples of which drugs class?
A
Alpha-Blockers (Adrenergic Blockers)
11
Q
Propanolol, atenolol, and metaprolol are examples of which drug class?
A
Beta blockers (adrenergic Blockers)
12
Q
Cholinergic drugs mimic the effect of which neutrotransmitter?
A
Acetylcholine
13
Q
Donepezil, bethanechol, and galantamine are examples of which drug class?
A
Cholinergics/Parasympathomimetics
14
Q
Which drug is the antidote for cholinergics?
A
Atropine - a cholinergic blocker
15
Q
Atropine is used to treat emergency ______?
A
emergency bradycardia to increase HR.
16
Q
Which drug is the antidote for organophosphate poisoning?
A
Atropine (a cholinergic blocker)
17
Q
Term: drugs that affect force or energy of muscular contraction in heart
A
inotropic
18
Q
Term: drugs that affect rate of heartbeat
A
chronotropic
19
Q
Term: drugs that affect conduction of electrical impulses in heart
A
Dromotropic
20
Q
cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors are example of positive _____ agents
A
positive inotropic agents
21
Q
Digoxin is an example of which drug class?
A
Cardiac glycosides
22
Q
What are normal K+ levels?
A
3.5-5.5 mmol/L
23
Q
What are normal Na+ levels?
A
135-145 mmol/L
24
Q
What is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity?
A
Digiband
25
Why should you avoid a high-fiber diet while giving digoxin?
Fiber binds with the drug making it not effective
26
nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate are examples of which drug class?
Nitrates (anti-anginal drugs)
27
Why isn't nitroglycerine given orally PO?
Due to its large first-pass effect. Sublingual instead= no liver metabolism.
28
What are the 3 main side effects of Nitros?
Headache, tachycardia & postural hypotension due to vasodilation
29
Which drug can not be used if the client is taking Viagara?
Nitroglycerine (anti-anginal)
30
Why should anti-hypertensives not be stopped suddenly?
Risk of rebound hypertensive crisis
31
captopril, lisinopril, and ramipril are examples of which drug class?
ACE inhibitors (Anti-hypertensives)
32
A dry, non-productive cough is a side effect of which anti-hypertensive drug class?
ACE inhibitors. Will reverse when discontinued.
33
minoxidil, hydralizine, and diazoxide are examples of which drug class?
Vasodilators
34
Furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are examples of which drug class?
Loop diuretics
35
Amiloride, Spironolactone, Aldactone are examples from which drug class?
Potassium-sparing diuretics
36
What is the #1 side effect of postassium-sparing diruetics?
hyperkalemia (too much potassium)
37
hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) & trichlormethiazide are examples of which drug class?
Thiazide diuretics
38
chlorthalidone & metolazone are examples from which drug class?
Thiazide-like diuertics
39
Foods high in potassium include bananas, oranges, dates, raisins, plums, fresh vegetables, potatoes, meat, and fish should be consumed for which diuretics?
Thiazides and thiazide-like, loop diuretics, and osmotic diuretics. NOT potassium-sparing.
40
Why should Clients taking diuretics along with a digitalis preparation should be taught to monitor for digitalis toxicity?
Digoxin toxicity is made worse by hypokalemia. Diuretics promote K excretion.
41
Diabetic clients who are taking which diuretic classes should be told to monitor blood glucose and watch for elevated levels?
taking thiazide and/or loop diuretics
42
Excessive consumption of licorice can lead to an additive hypokalemia in clients taking which class of diuretics?
thiazides
43
K+ levels are managed by which hormone?
Aldosterone
44
Heparin sodium is an example of which drug class?
Anticoagulants
45
which drug is monitored by activated partial thromboplastin times (aPTTs)?
heparin sodium
46
What is the antidote to heparin sodium?
Protamine sulfate
47
Enoxaparin & Dalteparin are examples from which drug class?
low-molecular weight heparins
48
Which drug is monitored by INR (International normalization ratio)?
Warfarin
49
What is the antidote to warfarin?
Vitamin K
50
Aspirin, dipyridamole (aggrenox), pentaoxifylline (trental) are examples from which drug class?
Antiplatelet drugs
51
Streptokinase, urokinase, tissue plasminogen activator, anisolyated plasminogen-streptokinase activator complex (APSAC) are examples from which drug class?
Thrombolytic Drugs
52
Tranexamic acid & desmopressin are examples from which drug class?
Antifibrinolytics/Hemolytic drugs
53
What is the main purpose of hemolytic drugs?
promote clot formation
54
Clients should avoid foods high in vitamin K when taking which drug class?
Hemolytics/Antifibrinolytics
55
What is the main purpose of anticoagulants?
Prevent clot formation
56
What is the main purpose of anti-platelet drugs?
to inhibit platelet aggregation/plugs
57
What is the main purpose of thrombolytic drugs?
lyse existing clots
58
What is the main purpose of HMG-CaA Reductase Inhibitors or Statins?
reduced production of cholesterol
59
Lovastatin, pravastatin, simvastatin, and atorvastatin are examples from which drug class?
HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors, or Statins
60
What is the first line drug class for lowering cholesterol?
Statins
61
What is the main purpose of bile acid sequestrants?
Prevent reabsorption of bile acids in the small intestine causing liver to make more bile acid out of cholesterol
62
Cholestyramine resin, colestipol hydrochloride, and colesevelam are examples from which drug class?
Bile acid sequestrants
63
What is a major side effect of bile acid sequestrants?
tinnitus
64
What is the main purpose of Nicotinic acid?
reduce LDLs or increase HDLs
65
Nicotinic acid is also which vitamin?
vitamin B3
66
What is the main purpose of Fibric Acid derivatives?
Lower LDL levels
67
Clofibrate, gemfibrozil, fenofibrate, and bezafibrate are examples from which drug class?
Fibric Acid Derivatives
68
Risk of gallstones and prolonged prothrombin time are side effects of which drug class?
Fibric acid derivatives
69
clients on long term therapy of which major drug classes might need supplemental fat-soluble vitamins? (A, D, & K)
Antilipemics
70
What is the main purpose of B-adenergic agonists as respiratory drugs?
to reduce airway constriction during asthma attack
71
What drug should be used during the acute phase of an asthma attack to restore airflow?
Ventolin (albuterol)
72
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an inhaler from which drug class?
Anticholinergics
73
What is the main purpose of anticholinergics as respiratory drugs?
Prevent bronchospasm in COPD
74
What is the main purpose of Xanthine derivatives?
prophylactic/prevent asthma attack
75
Theophylline and Aminophylline are examples from which drug class?
Xanthine derivative
76
What is the main purpose of leukotriene receptor agonists (antileukotrienes)?
Block inflammation in airways caused by leukotrienes
77
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are examples of which drug class?
Antileukotrienes
78
What is the main purpose of corticosteroids as a respiratory drug?
Stabilize cells that release bronchoconstricting substances & increase response to ventolin
79
True or false: corticosteroids as resp. drugs have immediate results
false. Can take several weeks.
80
True or false: corticosteroids have many drug interactions
true: aspirin, anticoagulants, antidiabetic drugs
81
Why should corticosteroids never be discontinued abruptly?
They can cause an addisonian crisis due to adrenal suppression from taking the drug
82
Prednisone, budesonide, fluticasone, salmeterol are examples from which drug class?
corticosteroids
83
What is the main purpose of Mast Cell Stabilizers?
Prevent release of substances that cause bronchospasms
84
Cromoglycate, Nedocromil, Ketoifen fumarate are examples from which drug class?
mast cell stabilizers
85
Ketoconazole, cimetidine, and erthyromycin may increase concentrations of which antihistamine drug?
Loratadine (claritin)
86
Pseudoephedrine is an example of which drug class?
Decongestants
87
What are the 3 classes of drugs in "decongestants"?
adrenergics, anticholinergics, corticosteroids
88
What are the indications for using an antitussive?
non-productive coughing
89
Dextromethorphan (nyquil, robitussin) is an example of which drug class?
non-opioid antitussive
90
Guaifenesin is an example of which drug class?
expectorants
91
iodine-containing products, iodinated glycerol, and potassium iodide are examples from which drug class?
expectorants
92
What is "mycosis"
an infection caused by a fungus
93
Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for what?
Systemic fungal infections
94
The "shake and bake" and other adverse effects (renal toxicity, neurotoxicity, seizures, paresthesia, etc) are from which drug?
Amphotericin B
95
Fluconazole (Diflucan), Nystatin, and amphotericin B are from which drug class?
Antifungals
96
Tissue extravasation from which drug at the IV site may lead to tissue necrosis?
Fluconazole (antifungal)
97
Tuberculosis is the medical diagnosis of any infectious disease caused by what?
Mycobacterium
98
Isoniazid (INH), ethambutol, pyrazinamide (PZA), rifampin, streptomycin are examples from which drug class?
Primary antitubercular drugs
99
Capreomycin, cycloserine, ethionamide, kanamycin, para-aminosalyicyclic acid are examples from which drug class?
Secondary antitubercular drugs
100
Isoniazid (INH) is the drug of choice for what?
tuberculosis infections
101
Pyridoxine deficiency, liver toxicity, and peripheral neuritis are adverse effects from which TB drug?
Isoniazid (INH) (primary)
102
Neuritis and blindness are adverse effects of which TB drug?
Ethambutol (primary)
103
Hepatitis & orange discolouration of urine and stool are adverse effects of which TB drug?
Rifampin (primary)
104
Therapy of antitubercular drugs may last how long?
up to 24 months
105
Why should diabetic clients taking INH monitor blood glucose?
INH may cause hyperglycemia
106
Which TB drugs may cause oral contraceptives to be ineffective?
INH and rifampin
107
What is the main function of antiviral drugs?
to treat infections caused by viruses other than HIV
108
What is the main function of antiretroviral drugs?
to treat infections caused by HIV
109
Acylovir, amantadine, oseltamivir, and ribavirin are examples from which drug class?
Antivirals
110
True or false: antiviral drugs have many drug interactions
true
111
Which drug is the treatment of choice for the chicken pox and shingles?
Acyclovir
112
ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) detects what kind of virus?
Human immunodeficiency virus
113
What is a candidiasis?
a fungal infection caused by yeast
114
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and fusion inhibitors are examples from which drug class?
antiretrovirals
115
Aspirin & Indomethacin (Indocin) are examples of which drug class?
Acetic acid derivatives (NSAIDS)
116
Ibuprofen & Naproxen are examples from which drug class?
Proprionic acids (NSAIDS)
117
Celecoxib (Celebrex) is an example of which drug class?
COX-2 Inhibitors (NSAIDS)
118
Which major drug class is analgesic, anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic, and anti-rheumatic?
NSAIDs
119
True or false, NSAIDS are indicated for people with Vitamin K deficiencies, peptic ulcer disease, kidney/liver disease, and hemorrhagic stroke
FALSE - they are contraindicated for these conditions
120
Salicylates are not to be given to children under the age of 12 for what reason?
The risk of Reye's syndrome
121
Reye's syndrome is associated with which drug consumption by children with viral diseases such as chicken pox?
Aspirin
122
Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Enterococci are examples of gram positive or gram negative bacteria?
gram postive
123
What term describes antibiotic treatment based on signs and symptoms?
empiric therapy
124
what term describes antibiotic treatment based on results of culture and sensitivity?
Specific therapy
125
Trimethoprim, sulfisoxazole are examples from which antibiotic class?
Sulfonamides
126
Which antibiotic classes are bacteriostatic?
Sulfonamides, Macrolides, & Tetracyclines
127
Which antibiotic classes are bactericidal?
Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, & Quinolones
128
Which antibiotic class reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
Sulfonamides
129
Any client taking which antibiotic class should be monitored for 30 minutes after administration?
Penicillins due to allergy
130
Amoxicillin, cloxacillin, piperacillin sodium are examples from which antibiotic class?
penicillins
131
Cephalexin (keflex), cefozitin, cefuroxime are examples from which antibiotic class?
cephalosporins
132
The effectiveness of which antibiotic is decreased when taken with caffeine, citrus juice, citrus cola, or tomato juice?
Penicillins
133
Erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are examples from which antibiotic class?
macrolides
134
Why can macrolides cause hepatotoxicity and jaundice?
They are metabolized in the liver (and inhibit cytochrome p450?)
135
Demeclocycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline are examples from which antibiotic class?
Tetracyclines
136
This class of antibiotics bind to Ca, Mg, and Al ions.. therefore dairy products, antacids, and irons salts should be avoided.
Tetracyclines
137
Gentamycin, neomycin, steptomycin, trobramycin are examples from which antibiotic class?
Aminoglycosides
138
Which antibiotic class has NO PO forms?
Aminoglycosides due to poor absorption
139
What are the 2 most significant adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Monitor peak and trough levels of blood for prevention
140
True or False: Quinolones should be taken with 3L of water per day
True
141
Intake of ALKALINE foods such as antacids, peanuts and sodium bicarbonate should be limited with which antibiotic class?
Quinolones
142
What specific antibiotic is taken for MRSA?
Vancomycin
143
What specific antibiotic is taken for C. diff and STIs?
Metronidazole - good for anaerobes
144
Redman's syndrome is caused by what? (related to antibiotic)
Rapid infusion of vancomycin. Should be infused over 60 minutes
145
Fever, perineal itching, coughing, lethargy, or any unusual discharge may be signs & symptoms of what? (related to antibiotics)
superinfection
146
Oversecretion of adrenocorticol hormones could result in what syndrome?
Cushings syndrome
147
Dexamethasone, hydrocortisone, and prednisone are examples of which drug class?
Glucocorticoids
148
Fludrocortisone acetate is an example from which drug class?
Mineralocorticoids
149
Ketoconazole is an example of which drug class?
Antifungal, although can be used as adrenal steroid inhibitors (used to tx cushings syndrome)
150
Serious infections including septicemia, systemic fungal infections, and varicella are contraindications for which drug class?
Adrenal corticosteroids
151
Cosyntropin, somatotropin, and octreotide are examples from which drug class?
Anterior Pituitary Drugs
152
Vasopressin and desmopression are examples from which drug class?
Posterior Pituitary Drugs
153
Corticotropin is used to diagnose what insufficiency?
adrenocortical insufficiency
154
Which pituitary drug is a synthetic growth hormone to stimulate skeletal growth?
somatotropin
155
Which pituitary drug reduces the severe diarrhea, flushing, and life-threatening hypotension that may occur with a carcinoid crisis?
Octreotide (inhibits GH release)
156
Which pituitary drug may cause alterations in blood glucose levels?
Octreotide
157
Which pituitary drug is a potent vasoconstrictor used in hypotensive emergencies?
vasopression
158
Which pituitary drug is used for hemophilia A and Type I von Willebrand's disease?
Desmopressin
159
true or false: pituitary drugs can be stopped abruptly
false, may lead to addisonian crisis
160
What is the value for optimal PLASMA glucose?
4.0-6.0 mmol/L
161
Aspart & lispro are examples of this type of insulin
Rapid acting insulin
162
Regular, humulin R, and toronto are examples of this type of insulin
Short acting insulin
163
Humulin N and NPH are examples of this type of insulin
intermediate acting insulin
164
glargine and lente are examples of this type of insulin
long acting insulin
165
What is the onset, peak, and duration of rapid acting insulin?
onset 10-15minutes, peak 1-2 hours, duration 3-5 hours
166
What is the onset, peak, and duration of short acting insulin?
onset 30 min, peak 2-3 hours, duration 6.5 hours
167
What is the onset, peak, and duration of intermediate acting insulin?
onset 1-3 hours, peak 5-8 hours, duration up to 18 hours.
168
What is the onset, peak, and duration of long acting insulin?
onset 90 minutes, no peak, duration 24 hours
169
What is the first line drug for antihyperglycemic drugs?
Metformin (Biguanide)
170
How does Metformin (biguanides) work? Why doesn't metformin cause hypoglycaemia?
Decreases hepatic glucose production in T2D. No hypoglycaemia because no insulin-release stimulation
171
metallic taste and reduced B12 levels are an adverse effect of which antihyperglycemic drug?
Metformin (Biguanides)
172
Glyburide is an example of which antihyperglycemic drug class?
Sulfonylureas
173
Why is hypoglycemia an adverse effect for Sulfonylurea drugs?
They stimulate insulin release in the pancreas, could produce too much insulin
174
Actos is an example from which antihyperglycemia drug class?
thiazolidinediones (glitazones)
175
How do thiazolidinediones work as an antihyperglycemic?
they enhance the sensitivity of insulin receptors through gene regulation to promote skeletal uptake of glucose
176
Acarbose (precose) is an example of which antihyperglycemic drug class?
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors
177
Which class of antihyperglycemic drugs works in the small intenstine?
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors. Could cause flatulence, diarrhea, abdominal pain
178
If a client is NPO for a procedure and they are have orders for antihyperglycemic drug therapy, what must be done?
call the physician to clarify the order
179
What is the correct way to mix intermediate and short acting insulin?
Air in long vial, air in short vial, with draw short, withdraw long. Clear before cloudy.
180
Levothryoxine and liothyronine are examples from which drug class?
Thyroid replacement drugs
181
Cardiac dysrhythmias, tachycardia, palpitations, angina, menstrual irregularities, and weight loss are all adverse effects of which thyroid replacement drug?
Levothyroxine
182
Liver and bone marrow toxicity are adverse effects of what drug therapy?
antithyroid drug therapy for hyperthyroidism (Antithyroid drugs: thioamide derivatives: methimazole, propylthiouracil (PTU))
183
Clients taking this medication should avoid foods high in iodine (seafood, soy sauce, tofu)
Antithyroid medications (methimazole, PTU)
184
How do antiemetic and antinausea drugs work?
Block GI tract, labyrinth of inner ear, and cerebral cortex from activating the CTZ (chemoreceptor trigger zone)
185
For clients receiving chemotherapy, how far in advance should antiemetics be given?
half an hour to 3 hours before the chemotherapy agent
186
How do adsorbents & bulk forming agent work as an antidiarrheal?
They coat the walls of the GI and bind with the causative agent
187
Bismuth subsalicylate and activated charcoal are examples from this drug class
Adsorbents & bulkforming antidiarrheals
188
Atropine can you be used as an antidiarrheal, true or false
true. It can act as an antispasmodic to decrease peristalsis of GI tract
189
Diphenoxylate (lomotil) and loperamide (imodium) are examples of this antidiarrheal class?
opiates. Decrease bowel motility to increase bowel transit time
190
L. acidophilus is an example of this class of antidiarrheal?
Intestinal flora modifiers (probiotic)
191
Dark stools, blue gums, and tinnitus are adverse effects from which drug class?
Adsorbents & bulk forming antidiarrheals
192
Adsorbents decrease absorption of many drugs, true or false
true - interfere with digoxin, clindamycin, quinidine, and hypoglycemic agents
193
true or false, adsorbents cause increase bleeding time with anticoagulants
true
194
Psyllium, methylcellulose, polycarbophil are examples from which drug class?
bulk forming laxatives
195
polyethylene glycol, sorbitol, glycerine, and lactulose are examples from which drug class?
hyperosmotic laxatives
196
magnesium sulfate, magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, and sodium phosphate are examples from which drug class?
saline laxatives
197
castor oil, senna, cascara, dulcolax, and ex-lax are examples from which drug class?
stimulant laxatives
198
magnesium toxicity with renal insufficiency is an adverse effect from which laxative group?
salines
199
Almagel, Maalox, Mylanta are examples of what kind of antacids?
aluminum salts - have constipating effects
200
Gaviscon and Milk of Magnesia are examples of what kind of antacids?
Magnesium salts - can cause diarrhea
201
What antacids are contraindicated for renal failure?
Magnesium salts - cannot excrete extra Mg
202
TUMs and Rolaids are examples of what kind of antacids?
Calcium salts
203
Cimetidine (Tagamet), Famotidine (Pepcid), and Ranitidine (Zantac) are examples of which drug class?
Histamine (H2) Antagonists
204
What is the main purpose of H2 Antagonists?
to suppress acid secretion in the stomach
205
True or false, all H2 antagonists may inhibit the absorption of drugs that require a basic GI environment for absorption
false - inhibit drug absorption for drugs that require an acidic environment. H2 antagonists suppress acid release
206
pantoprazole, lansoprazole (prevacid) and omerprazole (losec) are examples from which drug class?
proton pump inhibitors. Total inhibition of gastric acid secretion
207
Name the act....
Protect consumers from drugs that are contaminated, adulterated, or unsafe to use. To address drugs that are labeled falsely and those with misleading or deceptive labeling
Food and Drug Act 1953
208
Name the act....
| Regulates the possession, sale, manufacture, disposal, production, import, export, and distribution of certain drugs
Controlled Drug and Substances Drug Act 1997
209
true or false, morphine, codeine and heroin are natural stubstances
false, heroin is semi-synthetic
210
When does narcotic withdrawal begin? What is the peak?
beings 8-12 hours after last use. Peaks 48-72 hours.
211
true or false, narcotic withdrawal is life threatening
false
212
true or false, constant yawning, runny nose, and tremors are a sign of narcotic withdrawal
true
213
Drugs that are psychosis generating are termed...
psychotogenic
214
Drugs that are mind manifesting are termed...
psychedelics
215
true or false, tolerance is developed with hallucinogens
false
216
What is the peak for alcohol withdrawal?
Minor: 24-36 hours
Major: 50 hours
217
buspirone (BuSpar) is an example from which drug class?
Anxiolytic. Interacts with SSRIs and MAOIs
218
alprazolam (xanax) is most commonly used as what kind of medication?
as an anxiolytic
219
which benzodiazepine is good for management of alcohol withdrawal and reversal of status epilepticus?
diazepam (valium)
220
true or false, many anxiolytics interfere with oral contraceptives
true - xanax and valium
221
lithium carbonate and lithium citrate are examples from which drug class?
mood stabilizing drugs. can be used in combination with many other
222
What is the drug of choice for mania?
Lithium.
223
What is therapeutic serum level range for lithium?
maintenance 0.6-1.2mmol/L
acute mania - 1-1.5 mmol/L
anything over 2.0 is toxicity
224
What is the most serious effect of using lithium?
cardiac dysrhythmia
225
long term treatment of which drug may cause hypothyroidism?
lithium
226
tricyclics, tetracyclics, and MAOIs are examples of first generation antidepressants, true or false
true
227
amitriptyline (Elavil) is an example of which drug?
Tricyclic antidepressant
228
How is a tricyclic antidepressant overdose managed?
No antidote. Decrease absorption using activated charcoal, speed elimination by alkalinizing urine, provide BLS
229
phenelzine sulphate, tranylcypromine sulphate, and selegiline hydrochlore are examples of which drug class?
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
230
Client should avoid foods high in tyramine (cheeses, smoked foods, yeast extracts, red wine etc) when using this drug class
MAOIs. Could result in hypertensive crisis leading to stroke, coma, death
231
Trazodone (oleptro), bubpropion (wellbutrin) and SSRIs are second generation antidepressants, true or false
tru
232
delirium, agitation, tachycardia, myoclonus, and tremors are symptoms of what syndrome?
Serotonin syndrome - too much serotonin
233
What are the drug interactions for Cymbalta?
SSRIs, Triptans, and alcohol. Can increase risk of serotonin syndrome and liver injury
234
What is the mechanism of action for antipsychotics? (simple)
block dopamine receptors in the brain to decrease dopamine levels. = tranquilizing effect
235
agranulocytosis, NMS, EPS, tardive dyskinesia and hemolytic anemia are adverse effects for which drug class?
antipsychotics
236
What herbal product can be used for depression, anxiety, sleep disorders and nervousness?
St Johns Wort
237
drug names that end in -prazole are typically...?
proton pump inhibitors
238
drug names that end in -ase are typically...?
thrombolytics
239
drug names that end in -azine are typically...?
antiemetics
240
drug names that end in -terol/-phylline are typically...?
bronchodilators
241
drug names that end in -arin are typically...?
anticoagulants
242
drug names that end in -vir are typically...?
antivirals
243
drug names that end in -cycline are typically...?
tetracyclines
244
drug names that end in -mycin are typically...?
aminoglycosides
245
drug names that end in -floxacin are typically...?
quinolones
246
drug names that end in -triptyline are typically...?
tricyclics
247
drug names that end in -pram/-ine are typically...?
SSRIs
248
Diltiazem, verapamil, nifedipine are examples from which drug class?
calcium channel blockers
