pharm exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Nurse Dino is caring for a patient that is prescribed a tetracycline for an infection. Nurse Dino would question which medication on the MAR?

A

digoxin

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2
Q

What foods decrease the absorption of Tetracyclines? Select all that apply.

A

calcium, magnesium, iron, zinc

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3
Q

What is the biggest adverse effect associated with clindamycin _______?

A

c. diff

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4
Q

The nurse is working on a telemetry unit and is caring for a patient taking macrolides. The nurse would anticipate which part of the heart rhythm to be abnormal?

A

Q-T interval

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5
Q

Mupirocin, a bacteriostatic agent is a topical agent used to treat skin infections. List two skin infections it is used for.

A

impetigo and MRSA

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6
Q

A pt. Was recently diagnosed with chlamydia. The nurse sees that the pt is currently taking a tetracycline. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of how this drug gets metabolized and excreted the nurse would anticipate what lab orders? Select all that apply. (Page 1054)

A

ALT, GFR, creatinine

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7
Q

The nurse notes the patient has a tetracycline ordered on the MAR. The nurse knows the medication could be which of the following: (select all that apply)

A

Tetracycline
Demeclocycline
Doxycycline
Minocycline

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8
Q

Tetracyclines are known for their ability to penetrate the CSF, treating most meningeal infections.

A

false

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9
Q

The nurse understands that tetracyclines are used as a first line treatment for the following bacteria… (select all that apply)

A

H. Pylori
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Borrelia burgdorferi

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10
Q

What macrolide can be used in place of Penicillin G if the patient presents with an allergy to penicillin? (Page 1060)

A

Erythromycin

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11
Q

What levels should be monitored in a patient who is receiving gentamicin for meningitis? Select all that apply. (Pg. 1065)

A

BUN, creatinine

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12
Q

Penicillins and aminoglycosides can be mixed together in the same IV solution. (P.1065)

A

false

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13
Q

What topical medication would we give an infant with conjunctivitis? (1063)

A

Neomycin

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14
Q

Which aminoglycoside is the least susceptible to inactivation by bacterial enzymes? (pg. 1062)

A

Amikacin

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15
Q

A patient comes in with a bacterial infection and the doctor wants to prescribe gentamicin, what class of medications on the EMAR would be a cause of questioning the order? (1065)

A

Neuromuscular blocking agent

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16
Q

A patient is taking aminoglycosides with impaired renal function. What would be a concern for this patient? (Pg. 1064, short answer)

A

The half life of the aminoglycoside will be longer which could increase toxicity.

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17
Q

Aminoglycosides are primarily used against gram-negative bacilli. (p.1062)

A

True

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18
Q

A nurse is administering aminoglycosides at 0900 to patients suffering a severe infection of the abdomen. Which route of administration would ensure the drug to be absorbed effectively?(Select all that apply)(1062)

A

Intramuscular
intravenous

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19
Q

Which parts of the body are most affected by aminoglycoside toxicity? (Pg.1064) Select all that apply

A

ears and kidneys

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20
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for aminoglycosides? (page 1062)

A

inhibition of protein synthesis

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21
Q

(Pg 1100) Why is ciprofloxacin not a first line drug of choice?

A

Because its the only effective agent against anthrax

22
Q

(Pg 1101) In what disease is taking fluoroquinolones contraindicated?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

23
Q

Why is Diflucan prescribed with Cipro? (pg 1100)

A

To prevent oral or vaginal yeast

24
Q

Which broad spectrum is used to treat TB? (pg 1103)

A

Rifampin

25
Q

What adverse effect should geriatric patients be educated on when being prescribed fluoroquinolones? (Pg 1100)

A

Tendon Tears

26
Q

Which of the following antibiotics are examples of common Fluoroquinolones. (pg. 1100)

A

Ofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin

27
Q

The nurse would expect to see constipation as an adverse effect of which drug? (pg. 1102)

A

Daptomycin

28
Q

Ciproflaxcin and Levofloxacin are the only fluoroquinolones approved for use in children.

A

true

29
Q

What would we question in a patient’s diet if they are prescribed fluoroquinolones?

A

milk

30
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who has inhaled Anthrax spores, what would the nurse expect to be ordered in the EMAR? (pg. 1100)

A

ciprofloxacin

31
Q

A nurse is on the EMAR and sees that the patient has furosemide. The nurse knows the following are adverse effects for this medication: Select all the apply (Pg 457)

A

Ototoxicity
Hyponatremia
Hypochloremia
dehydration

32
Q

What are the three most common uses for Spironolactone? (Select all that apply)

A

Hypertension
Edema
Heart failure

33
Q

You have just given your patient a dose of PO furosemide (Lasix). What is the expected onset of the drug?

A

60 minutes

34
Q

True or False: Thiazide-induced hypokalemia is a special problem for patients taking digoxin

A

true

35
Q

A nurse sees that a patient is on spironolactone while staying in the hospital. The nurse knows to keep a look at what electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hyperkalemia

36
Q

A patient in the ER has a GFR lab that comes back as 10 mL/min. What type of diuretic can they not receive? pg: 459

A

Thiazides

37
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient in the Emergency Department who has acute renal failure, chronic heart failure and has not voided in two days. Which medication would the nurse be expecting to administer?

A

Furosemide

38
Q

A patient is in the hospital with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is prescribed mannitol. The nurse understands that the adverse effect of this medication is which of the following?

A

Edema

39
Q

Which adverse effects should the nurse be aware of when administering furosemide? Select all that apply:

A

a. Hearing loss
B. Dysrhythmia
C. Dizziness
D. Dehydration
F Oliguria

40
Q

Patient is in the hospital with moderate renal failure and has a foley catheter only putting out 100mL for 12 hours. The nurse overhears the care attendant talking to the patient. The nurse would intervene if they heard the care attendant saying _____.

A

“Your loop diuretic should kick in within the next 48 hours”

41
Q

Mr. Johnson was admitted for an Urinary Tract Infection which progressed into a systemic infection. The provider prescribed a Sulfonimide. What severe adverse reaction would you be on the lookout for? (pg.1070)

A

Steven-Johnson Syndrome

42
Q

What bacteria do Sulfonamides work best on (select all that apply)

A

E.coli
Staphylococcus Aureus
Enterobacter

43
Q

The patient presents with blue-green or gray skin what medication does the nurse expect to see on the EMAR? (pg. 1072, Table 92.2)

A

Silver sulfadiazine

44
Q

What is a contraindication regarding pregnant women and the use of sulfonamides? (pg. 1072)

A

Systemic sulfonamides can cause birth defects especially early on. Use of them later in pregnancy can cause the baby to experience kernicterus.

45
Q

Systemic sulfonamides can cause birth defects especially early on. Use of them later in pregnancy can cause the baby to experience kernicterus.

A

true

46
Q

A patient taking trimethoprim understands that they should notify the provider if they experience…. (SATA) pg. 1076

A

Sore throat
Fever
Pallor
Easy bruising

47
Q

Which of the following are hypersensitivity reactions related to sulfonamides? Select all that apply. (page 1070)

A

Rash
Photosensitivity
Drug fever

48
Q

List three adverse effects of Trimethoprim: (Pg 1073)

A

Possible answers:
Epigastric distress
Nausea and vomiting
Glossitis
Stomatitis
Hematologic effects
Hyperkalemia

49
Q

The nurse understand that topical sulfonamides are indicated in treating _____& ____ (fill in the blank) pg 1069

A

a. Superficial infections of the eyes
b. Suppressing bacterial colonization for burns

50
Q

Which of the following are ways that bacteria can acquire resistance to trimethoprim? Select all that apply. Pg 1073

A

a. Synthesizing increased amounts of dihydrofolate reductase

c. Producing an altered dihydrofolate reductase that has a low affinity for trimethoprim

e. Reducing cellular permeability to trimethoprim.