Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > Pharm exam 4 (1) > Flashcards

Pharm exam 4 (1) Flashcards

1
Q

the salt factor of a drug is a measure of

A

the amount of parent drug in the formulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The majority of drugs are absorbed from the GI tract by the process of

A

passive lipid diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

A

is used for the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of acute adrenocorticol insufficiency?

A

fludrocortisone (Florinef)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following drugs is used for the long-term mgmt of hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine (Synthroid, L-T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of thyroid storm?

A

propranolol (inderal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

A

is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following contraceptives increases the risk of thrombus formation?

A

the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (Ortho evra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

induces ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following drugs prevents osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

A

raloxifene (Evista)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

A

ALL (is used for the diagnosis of Cushing’s, does not bind to corticosteroid-binding-globulin, has maximal anti-inflammatory activity and minimal salt-retaining activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

? prevents parietal cell acid secretion by antagonism of the H2-histamine receptor subtype

A

Cimetidine (Tagament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

? Protects the GI mucosa from attack by pepsin and acid

A

Colloidal bismuth compound (Pepto-Bismol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

? Prevents parietal cell acid secretion by direct inhibition of a proton-potassium ATPase

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

? Is a gallstone dissolution agent who’s use was first described in compendiums of 7th century Chinese folk medicine, and is presumably the active ingredient of dried gallbladders taken from the Himalayan bear

A

ursodiol (Tagamet) (one test had amoxicillin as the answer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

? Convulsant effects are due to GABA receptor antagonism

A

picrotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

? May induce long-term depletion of brain serotonin

A

MDMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

? Induces a high incidence of emergence delirium

A

Phencyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug X is being tested against the standard chemotherapeutic regimen currently used to treat pancreatic cancer. Initial results of the clinical trial show reduced metastases, indicating potential clinical benefit of drug X. Investigators are considering filing a new drug application (NDA) as their next step. Drug X is currently in what phase of clinical trials?

A

Phase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A drug that has a high potential for abuse, an approved medical use in the US, and for which no automatic refills can be prescribed is placed in which class of controlled substances?

A

Schedule II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following must be submitted to the FDA to receive investigational new drug (IND) status?

A

All (a. chemical synthesis protocols for making the drug,b. informed consent for studies performed in humans, c. toxicology studies performed in animals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phase I clinical trials serve to

A

establish the maximum tolerated dose and safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A drug that has a high potential for abuse, and no federally recognized medical use, is placed in which class of controlled substance?

A

Schedule I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following drugs is not appropriate for tx of GERD?

A

Ioperamide (Imodium) / (other choices were Tagamet, Mylanta, antimicrobials to eliminate helicobacter pylori)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The federal agency that regulates the advertising of prescription drugs is the

A

Food and Drug Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Food and Drug administration regulates all of the following EXCEPT the

A

Importation of Schedule II drugs (it regulates development of new prescription drugs, approval of new prescription drugs, marketing of prescription drugs, advertising of prescription drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

? A competitive antagonist at histamine H2 receptors

A

Cimetidine (Tagament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

? A noncompetitive inhibitor of the “proton pump”, a prodrug which requires an acidic environment for conversion to its active form

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

? Physically protects the stomach mucosal lining by selectively binding to damaged surfaces

A

Sucralfate (Carafate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F According to federal law, Schedule 1 drugs can only be prescribed for life threatening diseases

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F Phase I clinical trials involve laboratory animal testing to assess the safety and biological activity of new drugs

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F The Food and Drug Administration requires data demonstrating the bioavailability, safety, and efficacy of a new prescription drug

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Raloxifene (Evista)

A

has the properties of B and C (B. reduced the risk of breast and uterine cancers C. prevents postmenopausal osteoporosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following contraceptives in contraindicated in women older than 35 who smoke?

A

the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (Ortho evra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

induces ovulation AND is an estrogen receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

? Has the highest anti-inflammatory activity of the drugs listed above

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

? Is an antagonist for the aldosterone receptor

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

? Is the drug of choice for the tx of acute adrenocorticol insufficiency

A

hydrocortisone (cortef)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

? Inhibits the production of all adrenal steroids

A

Aminoglutethimide (Cytadren)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F Contraceptives combining estrogen and progestin may increase the risk of blood clots in older women who smoke

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is a progesterone receptor antagonist used for medical abortion

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera)

A

has an extended half-life compared to progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

? Is an agonist for the mineralocorticoid receptor

A

fludrocortisone (Florinef)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Molecular targets for antibiotic agents include

A

all of the above (a. bacterial call wall synthesis, b. bacterial ribosomes, c. bacterial DNA gyrases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Common mechanisms by which bacteria develop resistance to beta-lactam antibiotic drugs include

A

both A and B (a. spontaneous mutations in the transpeptidases resulting in loss of drug binding b. beta-lactamases that inactivate the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A beta-lactam antibiotic that is effective only against Gram(-) bacteria is

A

aztreonam (Azactam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This antibiotic agent is used most commonly as a surgical prophylaxis to prevent post-op infections

A

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This bacterial agent was developed recently (2005) to treat bacterial strains that are resistant to most established antibiotics including MRSA and VR strains

A

tigecycline (Tygacil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This bacterial agent has been used for decades as the tx of choice for MRSA

A

vancomycin (Vancocin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This bacteriocidal agent acts of lipids of Gram(-) bacteria to lyse their outer lipid bilayer membrane

A

polymyxin B (Aerosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which one of the following cell cycle phases is inhibited by cancer chemotherapy drugs?

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The term “targeted cancer therapy” refers to which of the following?

A

Drugs that selectively target cancer-associated molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following describes a mechanism by which a non-specific chemotherapy agent blocks DNA replication?

A

A drug is a structural analog of a nucleotide required for DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following is an example of an endocrine therapy for cancer treatment?

A

Drugs that block the activity of aromatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following factors affects the amount of drug that crosses the placenta?

A

All (A. levels and activates of placental enzymes that metabolize the drug B. lipid solubility of the drug c. the molecular weight of the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Based on the FDA’s drug-in-pregnancy rating scale, a category X drug

A

is contraindicated during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A pregnant woman consumes a teratogenic agent during weeks 30 to 35 of fetal development. Which of the following fetal defects is most likely to occur?

A

growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cocaine and tobacco-associated intrauterine growth retardation occur due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

restriction of uterine blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

? Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

? Is a sulfonamide rapidly absorbed by the body and used for the tx of systemic bacterial infections

A

Sulfsoxaxole (Gantrisin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

? Is a combination of trimethoprim (Primsol) with sulfamethoxazole

A

Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

? Is a aminoglycoside for the tx of patients with TB

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

? Inhibits mycobacterial cell wall biosynthesis

A

Isoniazid (INH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

? Is the first choice of aminoglycosides due to its low cost and reliable activity

A

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

65
Q

? Requires herpes viral kinase for activation of its antiviral activity

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

66
Q

? Inhibits influenza A infection by binding to the viral M2 protein

A

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

67
Q

? Is a triazole used in the tx of fungal meningitis

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

68
Q

? Blocks the biosynthesis of the fungal cell wall

A

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

69
Q

T/F A future stategy to circumvent bacterial resistance to antibiotic drugs might involve inhibiting bacterial signalling by quorum-sensing

A

TRUE

70
Q

T/F Sulfonamides are bacterial folate synthesis inhibitors

A

TRUE

71
Q

T/F For treating multidrug resistant TB patients, “compound drug therapy”/combination therapy is optional

A

FALSE

72
Q

The antibacterial action of vancomycin (Vancocin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A

cell wall synthesis

73
Q

The antibacterial action of azithromycin (Zithromax) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A

protein synthesis

74
Q

Which of of the following drugs is useful for the tx of bacterial infections due to either MRSA or VRE?

A

daptomycin (Cydectin)

75
Q

Which of the following stategies is being used to develop future drugs that will combat bacterial strains resistant to current drugs?

A

All (A, develop new synthetic drugs based on old drugs B. search for new natural antibiotics, C. identify new target proteins from the sequenced genomes of resistant bacteria D. Target quorum sensing signaling bt bacteria)

76
Q

An antibiotic that kills only Gram(-) bacteria is classified as

A

bacteriocidal, narrow-spectrum

77
Q

Cancer chemotherapy targets which of the following cell cycle phases?

A

Both A and B (A. DNA synthesis (S phase) B. Mitosis (M phase))

78
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the anti-cancer activity of tamoxifen (Novaldex) is true?

A

Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that binds to the estrogen receptor)

79
Q

Which one of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2?

A

Trastuzamab (Herceptin)

80
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is true for cancer chemotherapeutic drugs that block DNA syntheses (S phase)

A

All. A, They may be structural analogs of nucleotides B They may be structural analogs of molecules needed for the synthesis of nucleotides C. They may physically bind DNA and deform its structure)

81
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs and teratogenesis?

A

The greater the drug exposure, the more sever the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus.

82
Q

? Is a fluoroquinolone that is used to treat inhalational anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

83
Q

? Is a highly soluble sulfonamide used for the treatment of urinary tract infections

A

Sulfsoxaxole (Gantrisin)

84
Q

? Is a poorly absorbed sulfonamide used for the tx of inflammatory bowel disorders

A

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

85
Q

? Is a semisynthetic product of kanamycin with decreased tendency for developing drug resistance

A

Ethambutol (Myambutol)

86
Q

? Inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid, an essential component in mycobacterial cell wall

A

Isoniazid (INH)

87
Q

? Is a first-line antiTB agent that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in prokaryotic cells

A

Rifampin (Rifadin)

88
Q

? Is the most commonly used aminoglycoside due to its low cost and reliable antibacterial activity

A

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

89
Q

T/F Bacterial resistance to antibiotics emerged only recently due entirely to the indiscriminant overuse of antibiotics by humans

A

FALSE

90
Q

T/F Nearly 15% of americans experience some form of allergic rxn to the Batalactam antibiotics

A

TRUE

91
Q

T/F Due to its exceptionally broad-spectrum of activity, imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin) is recommended for use as a first line drug of choice for most bacterial infections

A

FALSE

92
Q

T/F Amantadine (Symmtrel) targets the M2 protein of the influenza A virus

A

TRUE

93
Q

T/F For the tx of herpes simplex virus infections, acyclovis (Zovirax) requires viral thymidine kinase for activation

A

TRUE

94
Q

T/F Fluconazole (Diflucan) is used in the tx of fungal meningitis

A

TRUE

95
Q

T/F Amphotericin B (Amphocin) inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane

A

FALSE

96
Q

Which of the following factors significantly contributes to the development of antibiotic drug resistance?

A

Agricultural feedlots

97
Q

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the anti-cancer activity of aromatase inhibitors?

A

inhibition of estrogen production

98
Q

Which of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against vascular endothelial growth factor?

A

bevacizumab (Avastin)

99
Q

Based on the FDA’s drug-in-pregnancy rating scale, which of the following drugs is an example of a category X drug?

A

Thalidomide (Thalomid)

100
Q

? Used historically as an important alternative tx for MRSA

A

vancomycin (Vancocin)

101
Q

? A semi-synthetic, extended spectrum Beta-lactam antibiotic of the penicillin family

A

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

102
Q

? Used most commonly as a prophylactic against opportunistic bacterial infections following surgery

A

Cephtriaxone (Rhocephine)

103
Q

? A safe, broad spectrum antibiotic that binds to the 50S robisomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

104
Q

? A new generation antibiotic that is effective for the treatment of Gram postive skin infections due to MRSA and VRE

A

daptomycin (Cydectin)

105
Q

? A drug-of-choice for infections due to intracellular bacteria such as chlamydia

A

Minocycline (Minocin)

106
Q

? A fluoroquinolone that blocks bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

107
Q

? A sulfonamide rapidly absorbed by the body and used for tx of systemic bacterial infections

A

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

108
Q

? Is an aminoglycoside for tx of TB

A

Streptomycin

109
Q

? Is a broad spectrum antibacterial agent with activity against mycobacterium tb

A

Rifampin (Rifadin)

110
Q

? Binds to the viral M2 protein and inhibits the uncoating step during viral infection

A

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

111
Q

T/F a drug induced fever can be a common late allergic rxn to long-course tx with beta-lactam antibiotics

A

TRUE

112
Q

An example of a phase-non-specific drugs is

A

cisplatin (Platinol)

113
Q

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the anti-cancer activity of anthracyclines?

A

Anthracycline inhibition of topoisomerase II

114
Q

Bleomycin-associated pulmonary fibrosis is likely to occur due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

Bleomycin hydrolase is not expressed in lung tissue

115
Q

Tobacco-associated intrauterine growth retardation occurs due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

restriction of uterine blood vessels

116
Q

Hydrocortisone (Cortef)

A

can activate both the glucocorticoid receptor and the mineralocorticoid receptor

117
Q

Which of the following is an antagonist of the aldosterone receptor?

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

118
Q

The antibacterial action of minocycline (Minocin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A

protein synthesis

119
Q

The antibacterial action of amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A

cell-wall synthesis

120
Q

The antibacterial action of Cefepime (Maxiprime) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

A

cell wall synthesis

121
Q

The antibacterial action of bacitracin (Baciguent) is due to its inhibition of

A

cell wall synthesis

122
Q

Which of the following drugs is useful for the treatment of Gram-positive bacterial infections of MRSA?

A

vancomycin (Vancocin)

123
Q

? Inhibits two steps in the bacterial folate biosynthesis pathway

A

Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)

124
Q

? Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

A

Trimethoprim (Primsol)

125
Q

? Blocks fungal cell wall biosynthesis through inhibiting glucan synthase

A

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

126
Q

T/F Drug induced fever is a common allergic reaction to a long-term treatment with Beta-lactam antibiotics

A

TRUE

127
Q

T/F The addition of antibiotics to livestock food in large-scale agricultural feedlots is a major contributor to community-acquired resistant strains of bacteria

A

TRUE

128
Q

T/F Future strategies to circumvent antibiotic resistance include the development of new drugs that challenge bug survival (ei that are bactericidal)

A

FALSE

129
Q

A semi-synthetic, broad spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic is

A

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

130
Q

This bacterial agent was developed recently to treat bacterial strains that are resistant to most establised antibiotics

A

daptomycin (Cydectin)

131
Q

The “fractional cell kill” or “log kill” hypothesis of cancer chemotherapy refers to the concept that

A

Both A and B are correct (A. a set drug concentration given for a defined period of time will kill a constant percentage of cells, independent of the absolute number of cells B. chemotherapy theoretically never reduces the tumor cell population to zero)

132
Q

Antimicrotubule drugs are effective chemotherapy agents bc they

A

interfere with tubulin polymerization or mircrotubule depolymerization

133
Q

? Is a DNA gyrase inhibitor used in the tx of inhalational anthrax infection

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

134
Q

? Is derived from kanamycin with decreased tendency for drug resistance

A

Amikacin (Amikin)

135
Q

? Is used for the tx of infections by influenza A virus

A

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

136
Q

? Is a glucan synthase inhibitor that blocks fungal cell wall biosynthesis

A

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

137
Q

? Targets ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to channel formation and the loss of intracellular constituents

A

Amphotericin B (Amphocin)

138
Q

? Is only activated in cells that are infected with herpes simplex virus

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

139
Q

? Is able to cross the blood-brain barrier for the tx of primary brain tumors

A

Carmustine (BCNU)

140
Q

? Is used for the treatment of breast cancer patients only when their tumor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) is overexpressed

A

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

141
Q

? Stabilizes polymerized microtubles, leading to mitotic arrest

A

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

142
Q

? Inhibits thymidylate synthase in tumor cells

A

Fluorouracil (5-FU)

143
Q

? Blocks peptidoglycan cross-linking during bacterial cell wall synthesis

A

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

144
Q

? Is primarily responsible for bacterial resistance to both penicillins and cephalosporins

A

beta-lactamase

145
Q

? Was developed recently for use in specific cases to treat Gram-positive bacterial infections that are resistant to vancomycin

A

daptomycin (Cydectin)

146
Q

? Binds the 30S ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis in many Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacterial strains

A

Minocycline (Minocin)

147
Q

T/F Fludrocortisone (Florinef) is used for the tx of acute adrenocortical insufficiency

A

TRUE

148
Q

T/F Spironolactone (Aldactone) is an antagonist for the aldosterone receptor

A

TRUE

149
Q

T/F Gram-negative bacteria contain a thick outer cell wall and a single lipid bilayer

A

FALSE

150
Q

T/F Sirolimus blocks the response of T cells to cytokines

A

TRUE

151
Q

T/F Weeks 2-8 of human embryonic development are the least sensitive to teratogenic agents

A

FALSE

152
Q

T/F Most drugs can be teratogenic if given at the right time and dose to a susceptible host

A

TRUE

153
Q

T/F Thalidomide is an example of a delayed teratogen

A

FALSE

154
Q

? A strong, or high ceiling, diuretic used to treat chronic and/or severe volume exapanded conditions; for example, edema associated with organ failure

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

155
Q

? A low ceiling diuretic that inhibits Na-Cl cotransporter in the distal tubule

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuil)

156
Q

? A weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule to inhibit bicarbonate reabsorption

A

Acetazolamide (Diamox)

157
Q

? An osmotic diuretic that works in the proximal tuble and descending loop of Henle, has a fase onset of action and is used in acute situation such as cerebral edema

A

Mannitol

158
Q

? A potassium sparing adjuvant diuretic that is an antagonist of collecting duct aldosterone receptors

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Pharm (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions