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Pharmacology > Pharm exam 1 flashcards > Flashcards

Pharm exam 1 flashcards

1
Q

Which drug is commonly used for treating overactive bladder symptoms (urinary incontinence)?

A

Oxybutynin

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2
Q

Which drug is commonly used to treat seasickness?

A

Scopalamine

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3
Q

Which antimuscarinic drug(s) have a bronchodilator effect?

A

Ipratropium(short acting) & Tiotropim (long acting) .

Used in COPD/asthma/emphysema pt’s

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4
Q

What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A

Potency = Amount of medication needed to elicit an effect (high affinity = high potency = lower dose)

Efficacy = maximum effect a medication can produce

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5
Q

If 2 drugs are equally effective (same response is achieved), how does the dose tell you which of the 2 drugs is more potent?

A

The lower the dose the higher potency

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6
Q

What factor is most important with regard to maximizing a drug’s bioavailability?

A

Absorption

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7
Q

Differentiate between a full agonist and a partial agonist.

A

Full agonist = Has high efficacy EX: dobutamine

Partial agonist = Has only partial efficacy

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8
Q

what is the difference between a reversible and irreversible antagonist?

A

A competitive antagonist is considered to be reversible effect at the receptor can be overcome with time, unbinding of the antagonist, and more availability of the agonist

an irreversible antagonist will “permanently” block the agonist at that receptor (Emax cannot be obtained, even at higher doses)

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9
Q

What portion of albumin can diffuse through tissue?

A

The unbound portion

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10
Q

What will a CYP inducer do to the serum concentration (and thus efficacy) of a drug?

A

Inducer of CYP450 (rifampin) will increase metabolism of Warfarin, requiring more of the medication to have an effect.

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11
Q

What will a CYP inhibitor do?

A

Inhibitor of CYP450 (fluconazole, grapefruit juice) will cause Warfarin to build up in the blood-risk of severe bleeding.

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12
Q

What is the therapeutic window?

A

margin of safety and is represented as therapeutic index ratio LD50/ED50

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13
Q

What does a narrow therapeutic window mean?

A

drugs with small differences in dose can lead to serious life threatening reactions

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14
Q

What is a steady state?

A

dosing and elimination are equal

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15
Q

What effect do cholinomimetics (muscarinic receptor agonists) have on the eyes, including their role in treating glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine stimulates the contraction of ciliary muscle and increases the outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber- decreasing the intraocular pressure. Therefore used to treat glaucoma.

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16
Q

What type of receptors does atropine act on?

List some beneficial/therapeutic effects, and adverse (side) effects of atropine.

A

Acts on muscarinic receptor, competition with ACh for receptor (blocks ACh)

treats severe bradycardia, Dilates pupils and is used for ophthalmology exam, Antidote for organophosphate poisoning

Side effects: tachycardia, constipation, urinary retention, mydriasis, dry mouth, hyperthermia, confusion, delirium.

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17
Q

What drug is used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium

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18
Q

What drug is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

19
Q

What is inotropy? What is chronotropy?

A 
Inotropy = heart contractility 
Chronotropy = heart rate
20
Q

Name some positive inotropes?

A

Epinephrine, Norepi

21
Q

Negative inotropes?

A

Calcium channel blockers, non-dihyrdropyridines

22
Q

Principal receptors for inotropy and chronotropy:

A

B1 receptors.

23
Q

What drug is used to treat hypotension? is a nasal spray decongestant and is used in optholmology as a topical agent that leads to mydriasis?

A

Phenylephrine ( Alpha 1 agonist)

24
Q

what is the role of alpha-1 blockers in reducing blood pressure?

A

Vasodilation reduces BP

25
Q

What is the drug name that acts on α-2 receptors in CNS → Blocks Norepinephrine release →
Lowers BP and is (Also used in the treatment of ADHD)

A

Clonidine

26
Q

Preferred Drug that is used in pregnancy to lower BP?

A

Methyldopa

27
Q

What is the drug that crosses the BBB, is used to prevent migraine HA’s and used for hyperthyroidism to offset effects of excess thyroid hormone.

A

Propranolol

28
Q

Which beta blockers also have alpha-blocker effects?

A

3rd generation RX: Labetalol & Carvedilol

Labetalol used for— chronic hypertension in pregnancy & hypertensive emergencies

Carvedilol— antioxidants properties (inhibits inflammatory response); preferential beta-blocker in heart failure

29
Q

What is the name of the drug usually used to treat glaucoma

A

Timolol

30
Q

What is the first line of treatment for Stage 1 hypertension in non-Black patients and patients younger than 55

A
  1. Thiazide diuretics
  2. Renin-Angiotensin inhibitors/blockers (ACE or ARB)
  3. Calcium channel blockers
31
Q

What is the first line of treatment for black people and people over 55?

A

Calcium channel blockers

32
Q

What is the first line of treatment in pt’s with CKD (regardless of race)

A

Ace inhibitors

33
Q

What is the enzyme that coverts angiotensin1 to angiotensin 2? ( Ace inhibitor)

A

Ace-kininase 2

34
Q

Name drugs that are thiazide diuretics?

A

Chlorthalidone or Indapamide, HCTZ

35
Q

Where do thiazide (and thiazide-like) diuretics work in the kidney? Where do drugs like
furosemide work?

A

Thiazides work in the DISTAL convoluted tubule.

Furosemide (loop diuretic) works in the ascending loop of henle

36
Q

How do direct vasodilators (e.g., Hydralazine) work? What are the adverse effects of
Hydralazine?

A

NOT USED TO REGULATE BP! Act directly on smooth muscle cells, resulting in vasodilation. Arteriole relaxation results in a decreased BP. The decreased BP leads to reflex tachycardia & increased cardiac output = decreased afterload, PVR & BP.

Adverse effects: Angina, MI, Heart failure

37
Q

What class of antihypertensives reduce/lower peripheral vascular resistance (afterload), but do not cause reflex tachycardia?

A

Beta blockers

38
Q

Which class or classes of antihypertensive drugs are associated with an undesired/adverse effect of peripheral edema?

It helps to know classes of drugs that are associated with reflex Tachycardia.

A

Peripheral edema = Calcium channel blockers

Drugs associated with reflex tachycardia = Vasodilators (hydralizine and minoxidil), alpha adrenoreceptor antagonists (terazosin, phenoxybenzamine), beta blockers (offset reflex tachycardia)

39
Q

Review the use of diuretics in the setting of patients who have gout

A

Thiazide (loop) diuretics can raise serum uric acid and can precipitate gout, worsening gout (hyperuricemia).
Gout = increased uric acid in bloodstream

40
Q

What drug(s) are used in emergency hypertension? BP: >180/120

A

Nicardipine (Calcium channel blocker), Esmolol & Labetalol (adrenergic antagonists), Nitroprusside & Nitroglycerin (nitric oxide vasodilator), Hydralazine (vasodilator), Phentolamine (alpha 1 blocker), Fenoldopam (dopamine agonist)

41
Q

Which antihypertensives are “safe” to use in pregnancy, and which drugs are contraindicated?

A

Safe: Hydralazine, Methyldopa, Labetalol

Contraindicated: ACE inhibitors

42
Q

What thiazide diuretic drug can be used in sulfa allergy and CKD?

A

Metalazone

43
Q

What effects do thiazides have on serum vs. urine electrolytes (e.g., sodium, potassium,
calcium)

A

HYPOKALEMIA, HYPONATREMIA, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia

44
Q

What effects do loop diuretics (furosemide) have on serum vs. urine electrolytes (e.g., sodium,
potassium, calcium)?

A

Urine electrolyte—Increased Calcium content of urine —> increase renal blood flow; highest efficacy in mobilizing Sodium (Na) and Cl from body
Serum — hypokalemia

Pharmacology (1 decks)

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