Pharm Cards

Question 1

What is the first-line treatment for Wilson Disease (toxic Copper accumulation)?

Answer 1

D-Penicillamine (Contains a sulhydryl group and functions as a copper chelator) - removes excess loosely bound Copper from the serum

Question 2

First-line treatment for Iron Overdose?

Answer 2

Deferoxamine - a chelating agent that binds ferric iron converting it to Ferrioxamine, a water-soluble form that is excreted in urine.

Question 3

First-line treatment for lead poisoning?

Answer 3

Edetate calcium disodium, increases urinary excretion of lead

Question 4

What drug class is Fluoxentine, a first-line treatment for depression.

Answer 4

SSRI

Question 5

Most effective treatment for Parkinson disease, dopamine depletion in the basal ganglia.

Answer 5

Levodopa

Question 6

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) can be caused by an overdose of what class of drugs?

What does this class of drugs do?

Answer 6

anti-psychotic (neuroleptic) medications (i.e. risperidone)

block Dopa receptors in the brain

Question 7

Treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

Answer 7

Dantrolene (direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxant)

antagonizes Ryanodine receptors inhibiting Ca++ ion release from the SR of skeletal muscle

Question 8

What Serontonin receptor antagonist has been used to treat Serotonin Syndrome?

Answer 8

Cyproheptadine

Question 9

Topical preparations of alpha-adrenergic agonists cause vasoconstriction of the nasal mucosa vessels and are used as ______________.

Phenylephrine, xylometazoline, oxymetazoline

Answer 9

Decongestants

Question 10

Decongestants are characterized by rapidly declining effects after a few days use. This phenomenon is known as __________.

Overuse of alpha-adrenergic agonists causes negative feedback, resulting in dec NE synthesis and release from nerve endings diminishing their vasoconstricting toning effects.

This results in what condition leading to exacerbation of the nasal congestion symptoms?

Answer 10

Tachyphylaxis

Rebound Rhinorrhea (Rhinitis medicamentosa) - nasal congestion w/o cough, sneezing, nasal drip.

*associated with Topical decongestant use >3 days

Question 11

Drug-free intervals of 8-10 hours should be maintained during the use of this drug?

It is associated with the phenomenon of tachyphylaxis d/t diminished release of NO from the target cells.

Answer 11

Nitroglycerin

Question 12

What is an indirect-acting adrenergic agonist that is used as a decongestant? It also causing tachyphylaxis after a few days treatment.

Answer 12

Ephedrine

Question 13

What 3 drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) preventing the reduction of dihyrdofolic acid to tetrahydrofolate (THF)?

Answer 13

Trimethoprim (TMP) - restricts bacterial growth
*w/Sulfonamides

Methotrexate (MTX) - targets rapidly proliferating human cells by halting DNA synthesis

Pyrimethamine - ihibits parasitic DHFR

Question 14

What drug is a folate antimetabolite that targets rapidly proliferating human cells by halting DNA synthesis through binding DHFR?

-specific to S-Phase of cell cycle preventing synthesis of purine and thymidylic acid (used for pyrimidine synthesis)

Answer 14

Methotrexate

Question 15

Treatment for Malaria and Toxoplasmosis.

-inhibits parasitic Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

Answer 15

Pyrimethamine

Question 16

What drug?

• prevents mucopeptide transfer into the growing cell wall
• inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

Answer 16

Bacitracin

Question 17

Binds to penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) inhibiting the final step of peptidoglycan synthesis in bacterial cell walls.

-used in conjunction with Cilastatin

Answer 17

Imipenem

Question 18

What drug prevents renal metabolism of Imipenem by competitiving inhibiting dehydropeptidase on the renal tubule brush border?

Answer 18

Cilastin

Question 19

What drugs unravels the helical structure of DNA and breaking its strands?

protein synthesis is inhibited and cell dies soon after

Answer 19

Metronidazole

Question 20

As a structural analog of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA), ______________ competes with PABA to inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase, an enzyme needed for dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR).

Answer 20

Sulfamethoxazole (Sulfonamide)

Question 21

What condition can be acquired through use of an ACEi resulting in increased bradykinin levels?

Answer 21

Angioedema, also seen with low C1 esterase inhibitor levels in autosomal dominant inheritance.

Question 22

Neuraminidase inhibitor useful in treatment and prevention of both influenza A & B.

impairs the release of newly formed virions from infected host cells and impairs viral penetration of mucus secretions that overlie the respiratory epithelium

Answer 22

Oseltamivir

Question 23

Meglitinides are short-acting glucose-lowering medications that act by closing ATP-dependent K+ channels in the pancreatic beta cell membrane (membrane ion channels), inducing depolarization and stimulating insulin release.

usually given with meals reducing postprandial glucose excursions.

Answer 23

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

Question 24

__________ inhibits mitochondrial enzymes required for gluconeogenesis, helping ro reduce glucose levels by impairing hepatic glucose production. Also increases peripheral glucose uptake.

Answer 24

Metformin

Question 25

Repaglinide - the molecular target of this medication is?

Answer 25

Membrane ion channels (inhibits Beta pancreas cell ATP-mediated K+ channels = increased insulin secretion in Type 2 Diabetics)

Question 26

Patients with PCOS who desire fertility can be treated with ________, an estrogen receptor modulator that decreases negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus by circulating estrogen, resulting in increased gonodatropin production (FSH and LH) and ovulation.

Answer 26

Clomiphene

Question 27

Dopamine agonists, such as ________ and __________, decrease pituitary release of prolactin in patients with infertility d/t hyperprolactinemia.

Answer 27

Bromocriptine and Cabergoline

Question 28

What 2 drugs are the most important vasodilators responsible for increasing coronary blood flow to the myocardium?

Answer 28

Adenosine and Nitric Oxide

Question 29

________ is a long-activing anticonvulsant that inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of Na+ channels to recover from inactivation.

Concurrently administered with IV ___________, which has rapid onset and potentiates the effects of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the CNS.

Answer 29

Phenytoin

Lorazepam

Question 30

MOA of Antiseizure drug(s): Phenytoin and Carbamazepine

Answer 30

Blocks Na+ channels

Question 31

MOA of antiseizure drug(s): Valproic acid

Answer 31

Blocks Na+ channels & Inc GABA levels

Question 32

MOA of antiseizure drug(s): Inc. GABA_A action by increasing post-synaptic Cl- influx

Answer 32

Benzodiazepine (frequency)

Phenobarbital (duration)

Question 33

MOA of antiseizure drug(s): modulates GABA & Glutamate release

Answer 33

Levetiracetam

Question 34

MOA of antiseizure drug(s): blocks thalamic T-type Ca²⁺ channels

For Absense seizures

Answer 34

Ethosuximide