PHARM- Anti-hypertensives Flashcards

1
Q

Clonidine

A

centrally acting selective partial.

-Alpha2- adrenergic receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clonidin ration for A-2 receptor

A

22:01 A-2 to A-1 selectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clonidine Anesthesia effects

A
  • inc the duration of analgesia and reduces dose req for narcotic pain meds
  • inc duration of analgesia, sensory and motor blockage of local anesthetics and reduces the dose requirements for local anesthetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clonidine compared to Precedex

A

Precedex can do all the same things as clonidine

-slide 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clonidine can be used for what post-anesthetic (post-op) symptom

A

-post-anesthetic “shivering”

(75mcg I.V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clonidine peri-operative

A

reduces incidence of MI, infarction, and mortality following cardiovascular surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common use of clonidine

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clonidine mechanism of aciton

A

-stimulated inhibitory Alpha-2 receptors in the vasomotor canter in the brainstem which results in decrease in SNS outflow from this region to peripheral tissues resulting in:

A decrease HR, decrease myocardial contractility which decrease CO,

  • peripheral vasodilation (dec SVR) which dec BP
  • dec renin activity and dec circulating plasma catecholamine levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clonidine distribution

A
  • highly lipid soluble and readily crosses into the CNS and the placenta
  • portent binding 20-40%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clonidine metabolism/ excretion:

A

Metabolism: 50% hepatic
Excretion: 50% unchanged in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clonidine adverse effect most common

A
  • Dry mouth (xerostomia)

- Sedation and dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clonidine adverse effect common when admin. epidurally

A
  • Bradycardia

- Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clonidine very low risk of

A

Ventilatory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clonidine withdrawal syndrome symptoms

A
  • _Rebound HYPERTENSION

- the higher the dose, the worse the withdrawal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment of Clonidine induced rebound HTN depends on the urgency of reducing the arterial blood pressure:

A
  1. Restart clonidine if non-life treating situation
  2. Administering vasodilation such as hydralazine, so nitroprusside pr a combination of alpha and beta adrenergic blockade (Labetalol IV)
  3. beta blocking agents (esp. non-selective) SHOULD NOT be used alone is the setting, b/c they may accentuate the rebound HTN by allowing unopposed alpha-1 vasoconstriction caused by activation of the SNS and elevated circulating catecholamines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Renin

A

is an enzyme that is produced primarily by juxtaglomerular (JAG) cells of the kidney afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Renin converts ______ to _______

A

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

-this is the rare limiting factor in angiotensin II production

18
Q

Renin secretion increased by:

A
  • hypotension, decrease renal perfusion (dehydration)
  • decrease blood volume (hemorrhage)
  • reductions of Na+ conc. in early distal tubule
  • Inc SNS activity which activates beta-1 receptors on JAG calls from circulating catecholamines
19
Q

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE)

A

is a dipeptidyl peptidase enzyme that converts Ang I to Ang II

20
Q

ACE breaks down

A

bradykinin (a vasodilation substance)

21
Q

Angiotensin II (Ang II)

A

a very POTENT vasoconstriction hormone

22
Q

ACE inhibitors end in ____ except _____

A

“Pril”, Enalaprilat

23
Q

Enalaprilat

A
  • only Ace-inhibitor IV

- is the active moiety of the pro-drug enalapril

24
Q

What increases as a result of ACE inhibition

A

Bradykinin levels

25
Q

What PO ACE-inhibitor is a prodrug (only one Rick wants us to know )

A

Enalapril

26
Q

Ace Inhibitors metabolism

A

ones that are prodrugs are all esterase’s in the liver by hepatic esterase’s to form their active moieties

27
Q

ACE inhibitors dilate arteries and veins by

A

-blocking angiotensin II formation and inhibiting bradykinin metabolism

28
Q

ACE inhibitors dilate arteries and veins by..

A

blocking angiotensin II formation and inhibiting bradykinin metabolism

29
Q

ACE inhibitors dilate arteries and viens by

A

blocking angio II formation and inhibiting bradykinin metabolism

30
Q

ACE’s do not cause what period

A

tachycardia and bradycardia

31
Q

ACE inhibitors side effects main one

A
DRY COUGH
(block the enzyme ACE so that it can no longer degrade bradykinin; thus bradykinin accumulates and can cause a dry cough
32
Q

ACE inhibitors induced angioedema

A

Treatment option include the use of FFP and new drug Rick wants us to look up {Icatibant (Firazyr). A selective bradykinin B2 Receptor Antagonist. SubC only, 30mg first dose, repeat in 6hrs if symptoms do not improve or worsen.

33
Q

The clinical features of ACE inhibitor angioedema are related to elevated levels of

A

Bradykinin

34
Q

ACE inhibitor main contraindication

A

Bilateral renal artery stenosis

35
Q

ACE inhibitor: Pre-op management

A

-Circulatory effect pt. -recommend these agents be held 12-24 hrs before anesthesia surgery. “its up to the provider”
-Concerns: hemodynamics instability and hypotension when ACE’s are given the morning of.
-If large blood loss or suspected fluid shift; it may be acceptable to hold dose
-Exaggerated hypotension cause by ACE-I therapy
has been responsive to crystalloid infusion or sympathomimetic (Ephedrine or Phenylephrine)
-Use Vasopressin if hypotension is unresponsive to Ephedrine or Phenylephrine.

36
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARB’s) all end in

A

“Sartan”

37
Q

ARB’s mechanism of action

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers are selective antagonists of angiotensin II at the AT-1 receptor

38
Q

ARB’s DO NOT inhibit ____ or effect levels of _____

A

ACE ; bradykinin

39
Q

ARB’s have less incidence of what compared to ACE’s

A

cough and angioedema

40
Q

The antihypertensive offer of ARB’s may be attenuated by

A

NSAID’s