Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 Resp Exam 2 > Pharm agents for HIV AIDS, Martin, DSA > Flashcards

Pharm agents for HIV AIDS, Martin, DSA Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Nucleoside/nNt Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Emtricitabine
Tenofovir DF
Lamivudine
Zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Efavirenz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the protease inhibitors

A

Atazanavir
Darunavir
Lopinavir
Ritonavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors

A

raltegravir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the CCR5 Anatgonist/entry inhibitor

A

maraviroc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the fusion inhibitors

A

enfuvirtide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the preferred regimen to Tx drug-naive patients

A

backbone: 2 NNRTIs
base: one of these:
-NNRTI
Protease inhibitor
INSTI
CCR5 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the antiretroviral agent combinations

A

Emtircitabine +Tenofovir
DF
efavirenz+ emtricitabine+tenofovir DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the drug regimens used during pregnangy

A 
zidovudine + iopinavir + ritonavir
Intrapartum period (IV) zidovudine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Infants from HIV mothers receive what drug and for how long

A

zidovudine for 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the pre and post exposure prophylaxis regimen for HIV

A

ralegravir + emtircitabine + tenofovir DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

goals of HIV therapy

A

reduce HIV assoc morbidity and prolong duration and quality of survival
rstore and preserve immunologic function
maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV viral load
prevent HIV transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why are combination druge regimens used

A

minimize development of resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is CD4 count indicative of AIDS

A

<350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HIV Tx should be initiated regardless of CD4 in what patients

A

pregnant women
patients with HIV assoc nephropathy
patients co infected with hep B virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CD4 T cell counts are used for what

A

decide when to initiate therapy
monitor the Therapeutic response
monitored every 3-4 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is most important indicator of response to antiretroviral therapy

A

plasma HIV RNA (viral load)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is considered a success in antiviral Tx HIV

A

decrease in viral load of 3X or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

viral suppression takes how long from initiation of Tx

A

12-24 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is drug resistance testing recommended

A

patient enters care
there is a drug treatment failure
changing drug protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is genotypic assays

A

involve sequencing of the reverse trasncriptase and protease genes to detect mutations that are known to confer drug resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is recommended for pregnant women prior to initiation of Tx

A

genotypic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phenotypic assays do what

A

measure ability of a virus to grow in a different [ ] of antiretroviral drugs

24
Q

what are used to make pseudotyped viruses that express the patient-derived HIV genes of interest

A

when gene sequences are from patient plasma HIV RNA are inserted into the backbone of a laboratory clone of HIV

25
Q

do NRTI and NNRTI bind to same sites

A

no 2 different sites

26
Q

What is the preferred NNRTI? exception?

A

efavirenz

not in pregnant women or women who could be potentially pregnant in future

27
Q

What is the preferred dual-NRTI

A

tenofovir/emtricitabine

28
Q

Patient has HLA B5701, should not use what dual NRTI regimen

A

abacavir/lamivudine

have HS reaction

29
Q

how does tenofovir inhibit reverse transcriptase

A

incorporated into growing viral DNa chain and causes chain termination

30
Q

Tenofovir DF is avaiable in combination with what drugs

A

emtricitabine

emtricitabine and efavirenz

31
Q

What is the best tolerated NRTI

A

emtricitabine

32
Q

adverse effects emtricitabin

A

hyperpigmentation of palms and soles

33
Q

emtricitabine is used to Tx what other condition besides HIV

A

HBV

34
Q

side effects of zidovudine

A

anemia, neutropenia, nausea, vomiting, HA, fatigue, confusion, malaise, myopathy, hepatitis, hyperpigmentation or oral mucosa and nail beds
lipoatrophy, lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis

35
Q

how do the NNRTIs work

A

bind directly to reverse trancriptase blocking RNA and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity

36
Q

what are the NNRTI drugs

A

efavirenz and delavirdine, necirapine, etravirine

37
Q

when does R to efavirenz occur

A

when used as monoTx

only used in combinations to prevent this

38
Q

NNRTI toxicity signs

A

CNS: dizzy, drowsy, insomnia, HA, confusion, agitation, depression
Psych: severe
Rash and HS syndrome, steven-johnson syndrome

39
Q

What are the preferred protease inhibitor regimens

A

atazanavir + ritonavir

darunavir + ritonavir once daily

40
Q

What is the alternative PI regimen

A

iopinavir + ritonavir

41
Q

What 2NRTIs are give with PI

A

tenofovir/emtricitabine

42
Q

how do protease inhibitors affect CYP3A4

A

inhibitors of it

43
Q

why is low dose ritonavir given with other PIs

A

increases serum [ ]

44
Q

PIs work how

A

prevent mature proteins, result in immature noninfective viral particles

45
Q

result of monoTx of PI

A

contraindicated because cause phenotypic resistance

46
Q

Adverse effects of PI

A

GI distress, increased bleeding in hemophliacs, hyperglycemia, insulin R and hyperlipidemia
assoc with increased risk of coronary artery disease

47
Q

adverse effects of atazanavir (PI)

A

hyperbilirubinemia

rash in 20% that is mild or moderate

48
Q

What is the role of HIV-1 integrase

A

catalyzes viral DNA insertion in host genome

49
Q

what is the integrase inhibitor drug

A

raltegravir

50
Q

What are the 2 major coR used by HIV-1 to gain entry

A

CCR5 and CXCR4

51
Q

Maraviroc antagonizes what R

A

CCR5

52
Q

how do you determine if HIV patient has R5 or X4

A

commercial assay

53
Q

side effects maraviroc

A

cough, pyrexia, upper respiratory tract infection, rash, MSK Sx, abdominal pain and postural dizziness

54
Q

if considering use of maraviroc what should be done

A

Coreceptor tropism assay

also done if virologic failure of drug is apparent

55
Q

patient has CD4 <100

most likely R type

A

either X4 or dual or mixed-tropic because more resistant to Tx

56
Q

MOA enfuvirtide

A

inhibition of fusion binding to gp41 of viral envelop glycoprotein & prevents conformational changes required for fusion of viral and cellular membranes

57
Q

Administration of enfuvirtide

A

BID subcu

usually Tx-experienced patients

Year 2 Resp Exam 2 (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions